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GOM Flashcards

1
Q

What are the categories of Ops Specs?

A 
A - General & Authorizations
B - En Route 
C - Terminal 
D - Maintenance 
E - Weight & Balance
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2
Q

What information can be found in Ops Spec D085?

A
  • Aircraft Listing.

- Registration and serial numbers an operator is allowed to operate under Pt 135.

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3
Q

What information can be found in Ops Spec B050?

A

Authorized areas of enroute operations, limitations, and provisions.

Where an operator can conduct enroute operations.

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4
Q

What information can be found in Ops Spec C052?

A
  • Straight in non-precision, APV, and Cat-1 precision
    approach and landing minima - all airports
-  Lists approaches an operator can fly and visibility   
   reporting requirements (i.e. TDZ RVR controlling)
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5
Q

What information can be found in Ops Spec C077?

A
  • Terminal visual flight rules and provisions.
  • Departing and arriving VFR and IFR visual approaches
    and departures.
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6
Q

What information can be found in Ops Spec C079?

A
  • Lower than standard takeoff minima.

- RVR values for takeoff and required visual references

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7
Q

Can MEL categories B or C be extended?

A

YES

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8
Q

Can MEL categories A or D be extended?

A

NO

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9
Q

Can NEF categories D or R be extended?

A

YES

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10
Q

Can CDL items be extended?

A

NO

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11
Q

IFR Takeoff Minimums - 2 Engine Standard Takeoff Mins

A

1SM or 5000RVR

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12
Q

A TERPs minimum for takeoffs or landings is

A

Limiting

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13
Q

IFR Takeoff Minimums - Std TO Mins may be reduced to:

A

IAW OpSpec C079

  • 500 RVR
  • or 1/4 SM based on RVV
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14
Q

IFR Takeoff Minimums - RVR1600 or 1/4sm - Visual AIDS Req’d

A

One visual aid: HIRL, CL, RCLM or adequate visual reference

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15
Q

Contents of the Aircraft Binder (12):

A
  • Form: VOR Check
  • Form: Aircraft Status Sheet
  • Form: Airworthiness Release
  • Form: Discrepancy Log and Instructions
  • Form: Condition Log and Instructions
  • Form: Airworthiness Release
  • Empty weight and center of gravity determination
  • Radio Station Authorization
  • MEL/NEF/CDL Placards
  • Customs Receipt
  • Insurance forms
  • Credit cards
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16
Q

A signed off discrepancy will have what information (5)?

A
  • Aircraft TT / TC
  • Corrective action
  • Date
  • Signature
  • Certificate Number
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17
Q

VOR check required how often?

A

30 Days

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18
Q

Non-compliant RVSM aircraft requirements

A
  • “NO RVSM” flight plan remark
  • Operate in accordance to MEL
  • Advise FAA through DO within 72hrs if necessary
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19
Q

Discrepancy categorizations (6):

A
  • Un-airworthy Item
  • MEL Item
  • NEF Item
  • CDL Item
  • Carry-Over Item
  • Information Only Item
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20
Q

Persons authorized to complete corrective action portion of discrepancy log:

A
  • Company Maintenance Personnel
  • FAA Certificated Technicians and FAA Certified Repair Stations
  • Company Flight Crew may clear deferrals for expired NAV databases / gross weight increases and decreases for approach category
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21
Q

What MEL categories can be extended by the DOM?

A

MEL category B and C

NEF category D and R

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22
Q

Length of discrepancy MEL categories?

A

A - MEL specified
B - 3 days (midnight day recorded +72 hours) day recorded doesn’t apply
C - 10 days (midnight day recorded +240 hours) day recorded doesn’t apply
D - 120 days (midnight day recorded)
R - refurb

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23
Q

What is contained within the CDL?

A

Configuration Deviation List (CDL) are those items installed on the aircraft listed as secondary airframe parts. The CDL identifies any external parts of an aircraft type which may be missing at the commencement of a flight and which contains, where necessary, any information on associated operating limitations and performance correction (e.g., speed penalty, increased fuel burn, altitude limitations). If inoperative, damaged, or missing, these items have no effect on the aircraft’s ability to be operated safely under all operational conditions.

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24
Q

What items are typically in the NEF?

A

Items that if inoperative, damaged or missing have no effect on the aircraft’s ability to be operated safely under all operational conditions.

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25
Q

Maintenance Check Flight is required after what maintenance (4):

A
  • Engine Change
  • Primary Flight Control Surface Installation, Rigging, Cable Changes, Actuator Replacement
  • Major structural repair or alterations that may affect flight characteristics
  • As required by DOM
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26
Q

Maintenance Check Flight Conditions (3):

A
  • Minimum Required Crew
  • VMC
  • Daylight
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27
Q

Maintenance Confidence Flight Conditions (1):

A
  • Minimum Required Crew
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28
Q

Discrepancies under which Special Flight Permits Issued (6:)

A
  • Aircraft damage
  • Landing gear down operations
  • Landing gear door removed
  • System(s) inoperative beyond the limits of the MEL, but otherwise capable of safe flight
  • Aircraft operation with flaps in full up position
  • Compliance with an airworthiness directive unless the airworthiness directive states otherwise or it is determined that the aircraft cannot be moved safely
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29
Q

Hazardous Materials COMAT will not be transported on our aircraft. The ONLY exception is:

A

A tire assembly with serviceable tire not over inflated and it is protected from damage.

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30
Q

HAZMAT exceptions, carried by Passengers or Crewmembers. Personal use items allowed under following conditions:

A
  • Non-radioactive medicinal or toiletry articles in checked or carry-on
  • Aerosol with no risk and protective cap
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31
Q

Aggregate quantity of all HM items carried by each person allowed may not exceed:

A

70oz. (2kg) by mass or 68fl. oz. (2L) by volume

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32
Q

Individual containers of HM cannot exceed:

A

18oz. (0.5kg) by mass or 17 fl.oz. (500ml) by volume

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33
Q

What self-defense HAZMAT item may a person carry on the aircraft?

A

One self-defense spray not exceeding 4 fl. oz. that incorporates a positive means of prevent accidental discharge (checked baggage only)

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34
Q

How are wheelchair batteries to be prepared for travel?

A

Battery must be disconnected and terminal and end cables are insulated to prevent short circuits.

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35
Q

A HAZMAT incident shall be reported as soon as practical but no later than

A

12 hours after the occurence of the incident.

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36
Q

Hazardous Material Onboard Gulfstream A/C (8):

A
  • Aircraft Batteries
  • Engine Oil
  • Life Rafts
  • Fire Bottles (APU, Engines)
  • Fire Extinguishers (cockpit, cabin, lav)
  • Fuel
  • Hydraulic Fluid
  • Oxygen Bottles
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37
Q

RNAV Instrument Approaches must be accomplished only in accordance with instrument approach procedures that are:

A
  • Contained in a CURRENT FMS Database

- Pilot must verify approach waypoints for accuracy to current pubs

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38
Q

Night Ops Require (2):

A
  • runway lights

- lighted wind direction indicator (may be substituted with ground personnel)

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39
Q

Use of FMS IAP is prohibited unless:

A

APPR or APP is annunciated

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40
Q

Minimum Altitude Rules -

No turns prior to

A

400ft AGL unless required by ATC and is safe.

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41
Q

Minimum Altitude Rules -

The initial climb to

A

1500ft AGL, or APG Acceleration Altitude, if higher, must be completed as rapidly as practicable.

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42
Q

Minimum Safe and Enroute Altitudes: The terrain clearance requirements are

A

1,000ft, or 2,000ft in mountainous terrain, above the highest obstacle and within 5nm of the course to be flown.

Note: MSA provides terrain clearance w/in 4nm of the course to be flown.

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43
Q

Aircraft landing on a runway served by a VASI, PAPI, or other visual light system or an ILS shall

A
  • fly at or above the visual glideslope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
  • fly at or above the electronic glideslope between the OM and MM.
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44
Q

Aircraft landing on a runway without a visual or instrument system shall

A

use a computed 3 degree slope (300ft/1mile) until 1/2mile final approach.

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45
Q

Operations shall be suspended (8):

A

a) Braking Action Reports of Nil or Poor (<2RCAM)
b) Freezing rain or drizzle
c) Severe turbulence
d) Severe icing
e) Winds 50 kts or greater
f) Crosswinds beyond the manufacturer’s demonstrated component
g) Greater than 10kt tailwind
h) Deemed unsafe

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46
Q

Procedures Not Authorized @ Talon (9):

A 
1- Special VFR Clearances
2- Contact Approaches 
3- VFR or IFR On Top Clearances 
4- VFR Over-the-Top 
5- RNP AR Approaches 
6- Use of Standard Weights 
7- Carriage of HAZMAT 
8- Powerplant Reversing for Rearward Taxi
9- LAHSO
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47
Q

All VFR operations will have what weather conditions minimum?

A

Visibility Day - 3SM
Visibility Night - 5SM
Visibility Above 10k MSL - 5SM

Cloud clearance requirements - 152 (1000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal)
Above 10k - 111 (1000 above, 1000 below, 1SM horizontal)

Ceiling Reports >1000ft

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48
Q

VFR Arrival Requirements:

A
  • Company Flight Plan
  • Visual Contact with destination and maintain VFR
  • Operate within 10NM of airport
  • IAP required @ night or reduced visibility
  • Pilots familiar with airport and obstacles
  • Remain in controlled airspace as long as feasible
  • Published CTAF
  • Required Facilities or Services
  • Verified Ground Handling 1 hour prior to landing
  • @Night - Arrivals require VASI/PAPI or GS system
  • @Night - May not cancel IFR and land VFR at SAG airports
  • @Night - Mountainous VFR only airports not authorized
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49
Q

> 1600RVR - Controlling RVR for landing

A
  • Touchdown Zone RVR

- Mid RVR may be substituted if TDZ RVR is unavailable

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50
Q

TDZ RVR 1200, Mid RVR 1200, Rollout RVR 1000 (one may be inoperative) - Req’d Airport Equip

A

Daylight - HIRL or CL or servicable RCLM

Night - HIRL or CL

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51
Q

TDZ RVR 1000, mid-RVR 1000 (if installed), and rollout RVR

1000, (one may be inoperative) - Req’d Visual Aids

A

CL or HIRL and serviceable RCLM

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52
Q

TDZ RVR 500, mid-RVR 500 (if installed), and rollout RVR 500, (one may be inoperative) - Req’d Visual Aids:

A

HIRL and Operative runway CL lights

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53
Q

For operations below RVR 1600 - A minimum of how may RVR systems are required?

A
  • Two operative RVR reporting systems are required.
  • All available RVR reports are controlling.
  • Far-end RVR on long runways is not controlling and not to be used as one of two required RVR systems
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54
Q

If ATC does not specifically assign a SID or radar vector:

A

You must comply with the ODP.

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55
Q

ODP exception - VFR conditions and what pilot request?

A

request ‘visual climb on course’ which will not be assigned by ATC

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56
Q

Define a diverse airport

A

IFR airport without ODP are considered diverse

- turn in any direction with 3.3% climb gradient to reach min IFR altitude

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57
Q

Uncontrolled airspace or untowered airport operations require (4):

A
  • Instrument Approach Procedure
  • CTAF
  • IFR facilities and services
  • Approved weather sources
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58
Q

Uncontrolled airport departure/arrival weather sources

  • Departures
  • Arrivals
A

Departures
- without approved weather, depart VMC (Captain determines) with takeoff alternate

Arrivals

  • Approved Alternate Airport
  • Local Altimeter or altimeter on approach chart
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59
Q

An instrument approach will not begin unless

A

latest visibility is at or above the landing minimums

* may not descend past FAF w/ less than landing mins

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60
Q

Effective runway length will be at least 115% of 60% runway required (1.92) for what approach visibility:

A

Weather forecasts or reports indicate @ ETA or upon arrival

- visibility will be (or is) less than 3/4SM or 4000RVR

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61
Q

When approach visibility will be less than 3/4SM or 4000RVR what runway lights and markings must be operational?

A

Precision Instrument Runway Centerline Marking or Centerline Lights

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62
Q

What is the point that, after which, an approach must be discontinued if the weather drops below prescribed landing visibility minimums

A

FAF

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63
Q

What RVR is controlling for landing?

A

TDZ RVR reports are controlling. Mid and Rollout RVR are advisory.

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64
Q

An aircraft may operate below DA or MDA assuming (3):

A
  • maintain runway visual reference
  • continually in safe position to land normally in the TDZ
  • Visibility equal to or greater than required for approach
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65
Q

Visual Reference Requirements for Landing (airport environment)

A
  • Approach Lights (may continue to 100ft above TDZ elevation)
  • REILs, VASIs, Red Sidebars / Terminating Lights
  • Threshold, Threshold Markings, Threshold Lights
  • Touchdown Zone, Touchdown Zone Markings, Touchdown Zone Lights
  • Runway, Runway Marking, Runway Lights
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66
Q

Requirements Visual Approach:

A
  • Inside B, C, D airspace, within 35sm from the destination in class E airspace, or airspace beneath the designated transition area.
  • IFR airport
  • Flight is under the control of an ATC facility.
  • Maintains VFR arrival requirements
  • Both the Captain and Co-Pilot must be familiar with the airport and the surrounding obstacles to identify, avoid and maneuver safely.

If Non-Charted
- Maintains visual contact with the airport or traffic following assigned by ATC.

If Charted

  • Comply with its limitations and maintain visual contact with the charted landmark(s).
  • IAP is required when the crew does not have absolute assurance of obstacle clearance at night and/or when the weather conditions might not allow excellent visual conditions.
  • Night Visual Approaches require a VASI/PAPI or glideslope system to be operative and used.
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67
Q

Visual approaches into special airports at night are not authorized unless:

A

It is a charted visual approach

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68
Q

Night visual approaches require what guidance:

A
  • VASI/PAPI or glideslope system

- Good personal policy, but not Talon req’t

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69
Q

Missed approach must be initiated if (3):

A
  • Runway environment not in sight at or below/past DA/MDA or MAP.
  • Not in a position to make a safe landing in the TDZ
  • Aircraft not stabilized
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70
Q

Regulatory fuel requirements:
FAA

ICAO

A

FAA
Fly to first intended destination, to alternate (if required) and an additional 45 minutes at normal cruise speed.

ICAO

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71
Q

What are standard derived alternate approach minimums (1 Nav Rule)?

A

At ETA, airports with one navigational facility providing a suitable straight in precision / non-precision approach procedure, or circling approach.

  • A ceiling derived by adding 400 ft to the DH/MDH
  • A visibility derived by adding 1 statue mile to the
    authorized CAT I landing minimum
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72
Q

What are standard derived alternate approach minimums (2 Nav Rule)?

A

At ETA, airports with two navigational facilities, each providing a straight-in precision / non-precision approach procedure, to different, suitable runways. Extended over water operations requires separate suitable runways (two separate pieces of pavement)

  • A ceiling derived by adding 200 ft to the DH/MDH of the two approaches being used
  • A visibility derived by adding 1/2 statue mile to the higher authorized CAT I landing minimum of the two approaches being used
  • Visibility and ceiling corrections are separate items in determining the derived minimums
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73
Q

Should not tanker into or out of (4):

A
  • Mountainous Airports
  • Wet or Contaminated Runways
  • Short Field Runway
  • Anytime DAAP is used
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74
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required? How close to departure?

A

Visibility below lowest suitable CAT1 landing minimum

Alternate must be within 1 hour flying time at normal cruise

75
Q

What weather minimums at destination trigger the requirement to file an alternate?

A
  • Forecast ETA +/- 1hr weather is less than:
  • Ceiling
    • lowest circling MDA +1500
    • lowest straight in mins (if no circle authorized) +1500 or 2000AGL, whichever higher
  • Visibility (highest of: lowest apch vis mins +2sm OR 3sm)
76
Q

Alternate Airport with GPS ONLY approaches require (2):

A
  • RAIM check during preflight

- destination airport does not require GPS approach

77
Q

To utilize an airport as an alternate:

A
  • Airport is eligible
  • 1.67 dry / 1.92 wet landing performance
  • Approved weather reporting
  • At ETA, weather at or above landing minimums (authorized to derive minimums for 135 ops)
78
Q

Once a flight is AIRBORNE, the flight may continue towards the destination even if weather goes below landing minimums as long as:

A

The weather at an alternate airport listed on the flight plan is at or above alternate derived minimums.

79
Q

Crew Oxygen Use Requirements - Pressurized Aircraft

A
  • Cabin Altitude above 10000MSL, Crew shall use O2 continuously
  • Above FL250, if pilot leaves cockpit, other shall use O2
  • Above FL350, one pilot shall use O2 continuously
80
Q

Passenger Oxygen Requirements - Pressurized Aircraft

A
  • At or above FL250, each occupant requires a ten minute supply
  • Between 10,000 and 15,000 MSL, 02 for 10% of the occupants for a time period that exceeds 30 minutes
  • Above 15000MSL continuous O2 for each occupant
81
Q

Pax Oxygen Requirements

____ per minute at 15,000
____ per minute at 20,000
____ per minute at 25,000

A
  1. 5 liters
  2. 0 liters
  3. 5 liters
82
Q

Accelerate stop distance must not exceed the length of the runway plus the length of any _____

A

Stop-Way

83
Q

For takeoff, the Thrust Reversers are only used in calculations when the field is _____

A

Wet or Contaminated

84
Q

For landing, the Thrust Reversers are only used in calculations when the field is _____

A

Contaminated

85
Q

Calculated takeoff distance must not exceed the length of the runway plus any _____

A

Clearway

86
Q

Length of any clearway used for takeoff distance calculations may not exceed _____

A

> one half the runway length

87
Q

The company does not use any clearway except as associated with a _______

A

Stopway

88
Q

Calculated takeoff run may not be greater than ____

A

Runway Length

89
Q

Calculated takeoff distance ends at _____ on a dry runway and ______ on a wet runway

A

35 feet above the runway, 15 feet above the runway

90
Q

Enroute engine out climb rate at MEA

A

Maintain 50 FPM climb at MEA with critical engine inop

91
Q

Aircraft with FMS computed altitude limits will not fly ____

A

above this limit and will use extreme caution when operating within 3000ft of the computed altitude limit.

92
Q

B-RNAV or RNAV5 (RNP5) requires

A

+/- 5NM for 95% of time

93
Q

P-RNAV or RNAV1 (RNP1) requires

A

+/- 1NM for 95% of time

94
Q

RVSM airspace begins at ____ and ends at _____ inclusive

A

FL290, FL410

95
Q

What is required prior to entering RVSM airspace (3)?

A
  • Crew Training
  • Proper Operational Equipment
  • Maintenance Program
96
Q

RVSM Required Equipment List (4)

A
  • Two independent altitude measurement systems (ADC)
  • Auto Pilot
  • Alt Alerting System
  • Alt Reporting Transponder
97
Q

RVSM Tolerance

A
  • Total Vertical Error +/- 300ft
  • Altimetry System Error +/- 245ft
  • Assigned Alt Deviation +/- 300ft
98
Q

During before start for a flight into RVSM the primary altimeters must be within ____ of ______

A

75ft of airport field elevation

99
Q

Prior to entering RVSM the two primary altimeters must be within

A

200ft of each other

100
Q

For all RVSM flights the two primary altitmeters must be checked every

A

Hour, for overwater flights a log must be kept

101
Q

If RVSM equipment fails the crew must advise ATC

A

“negative RVSM due to equipment”

102
Q

When will the runway length required be 115% of required (2)?

A
  • When weather forecasts or reports indicate the runways may be wet or slippery at ETA
  • Visibility will be less than 3/4SM (4000RVR)
103
Q

What is the difference between most suitable runway and favorable runway?

A

Favorable = Longest Runway, in still air.

Suitable = Best Choice at Time of Landing, with respect to winds, approaches and length.

104
Q

In the case of an emergency, crews may use actual unfactored ____

A

landing distance calculations

105
Q

If the runway is not completely dry, it should be considered

A

Wet

NO…not if this disagrees w/ manufacturer definition of wet data

106
Q

A runway is considered dry when

A
  • No precipitation reported or forecast (within ETA -4/+1)

- Fog or mist may prevent moisture evaporating

107
Q

To help determining if runway is dry, flight crew may utilize

A

Ground personnel

108
Q

Runway is considered contaminated when (3):

A
  • Heavy precipitation (ETA -1/+1)
  • Freezing rain (any intensity)
  • Snow, Snow Grains/Pellets, Ice Pellets or Hail of any intensity other than ‘light’ with surface temp below -2C

-Other as defined by manufacturer?

109
Q

Regarding runway coverage, a runway is considered contaminated when:

A
  • > 25% of the runway is covered by standing water, snow, or slush more than 1/8” or 3mm , or any ice accumulation
  • <25% of runway is covered, if contaminate is prior to midpoint of runway
110
Q

Patchy contamination indicates

A

<25% of surface covered, absence of described surface indicates entire landing area

111
Q

Mandatory ATC Reports

A
  • Vacating assigned altitude
  • Leveling assigned altitude (ICAO)
  • Missed Approach
  • Variations in average TAS of 5% or 10 knots from filed FPL
  • Entering holding
  • Approaching clearance limit
  • Leaving assigned holding fix
  • Unable to climb/descend at least 500fpm
  • Any loss of navigation or communication capability
  • Deviation from ATC clearance
  • Safety of flight issues
  • Unforecasted weather
112
Q

What additional ATC reports are required when not in radar contact?

A
  • Leaving final approach fix inbound

- Corrected estimate when estimate is in error by greater than 3 minutes

113
Q

Failed communications under IFR, fly what route:

A
  • Last assigned route
  • Vectored, by a direct route to the fix being vectored to
  • Expected route
  • Filed route
114
Q

Failed communications under IFR, fly altitude:

A

highest of:

  • Minimum altitude as appropriate phase of flight
  • Expected altitude
  • Assigned altitude
115
Q

Failed communications leaving a clearance limit:

A
  • Leave the holding fix at EFC time
  • Descent for approach begin from enroute altitude upon reaching the fix from which the approach begins but not before
  • EFC time
  • at ETA of FPL
116
Q

Pilot qualifications for DAAP

A
  • Captain (2000 total / 100 PIC in type)
  • Co-Pilot (1000 total / 100 PIC in type)
    If Co-Pilot does not meet requirements, and Captain is not Check Airman, PIC shall make all DAAP landings
117
Q

DAAP landings will be made with what flap setting?

A

Full

118
Q

DAAP limitations

A
  • Full Flaps Only
  • No Single Engine / Emergency Procedures
  • Dry Only

Not Talon Policy

119
Q

DAAP runway length factors

A
  • actual x 1.25 (dry)

- actual x 1.44 (visibility <3/4sm / 4000RVR)

120
Q

Once a rest period is started the company may not _____ and can only _________

A

Shorten the rest period, lengthen the period once.

121
Q

To lengthen a rest period Scheduling will _________

A

Notify the crew member at least one hour prior to the start of the next duty period.

122
Q

Max regulatory flight crew hours per:

  • Calendar Quarter
  • Two consecutive Quarters
  • Calendar year
A
  • 500
  • 800
  • 1400
123
Q

Define Pre-Block Out Delay

A

Any delaying event that the crew becomes aware of prior to closing the cabin door prior to taxi.

124
Q

Define Post-Block Out Delay

A

Any delaying event that the crew becomes aware of after closing the cabin door prior to taxi.

125
Q

In the case of a post block out delay, if the operation was legal when the _____

A

block began, the flight is legal to continue.

126
Q

During any 24 consecutive hours the total flight (block) time of the assigned flight may not exceed______

A

10 hours flight (block) time.

**

127
Q

Flight (block) times may exceed flight time limits if:

A
  • Normally Terminate would be legal
  • Duty period does not exceed 14 hours
  • Next rest period complies with Compensated Rest
  • Captain approves
128
Q

Compensated Rest Rules:

A

30 minutes - 11hrs rest
30-60minutes - 12hrs rest
>60minutes - 16hrs rest

129
Q

If an airman certificate is lost, what should be done?

A

Contact FAA Airman Certification Branch to request temporary authority to exercise privileges.

130
Q

Replacement Airman Certificate length of validity and restrictions:

A
  • 60 days
  • Printed and copy emailed to training dept
  • May be restricted to domestic ops
131
Q

FAA letter of investigation

A

notify DO (within 3 days)

132
Q

Considered high minimums Captain when

A

under 100 hours PIC in type

133
Q

High minimums Captain restrictions

A
  • No less than standard takeoff minimums
  • Add 100ft to DA/MDA on IAPs
  • Add 1/2 mile to required minimum visibility
  • Published RVR1800-2000 = RVR4500
  • Published RVR2400-3000 = RVR4500
  • Published RVR4000-5000 = RVR6000
134
Q

Co-Pilot Limitations (less 100hrs PIC)

A
  • No less than standard takeoff minimums
  • No less than 1sm or 5000RVR for landings
  • No standing water, snow, slush or similar conditions
  • Braking action good
  • 15kts max crosswind
  • Windshear reported
  • Level 3 Special Airports
  • Any condition determined by Captain
135
Q

To prevent food poisoning, crews will

A

Not eat or share the same meal.

136
Q

Blood donation restrictions

A

No duty within 72 hrs post blood donation.

137
Q

Passengers under 2 years (seatbelt rule)

A

May be held by a properly seatbelted adult passenger

138
Q

What must an FAA Aviation Safety Inspector, NTSB or DOT air carrier evaluator provide to gain access to the cockpit? What must the Captain do?

A
  • Properly completed FAA Form 8430-13

- Captain will inspect FAA form 110A or S&A form 110B

139
Q

During aircraft fueling what should not be activated or deactivated?

A

Batteries or Starters

140
Q

With an active thunderstorm within ____ the aircraft will not be refueled.

A

10 mile radius

141
Q

Passengers _____ or older must show a current government issued personal photo ID prior to boarding.

A

18 years or older

142
Q

Unaccompanied minors

- Travel inside the US

A
  • approved without any form of ID
143
Q

The _______ is the Ground Security Coordinator (GSC) until ________, at which time ________ then becomes the In-Flight Security Coordinator (ISC).

A

Captain, the aircraft door is closed, the Captain

144
Q

________ is responsible for verifying each adult passenger’s _________ against the manifest.

A

The captain, valid ID

145
Q

Valid Identification (ID) - 3 Options

A
  • Current government-issued photo ID
  • Current government-issued ID without photo and a second current photo ID non-government
  • A current Company (Talon) photo ID
146
Q

If a passenger does not meet ID requirements contact _____

A

Dispatch / DO / CP

147
Q

If an additional pax shows up…

  • What sort of delay?
  • What must be done?
A
  • Pre-Block Out
  • Update W&B
  • Call CA and provide pax full name and DOB
  • Pax will be added to trip manifest and new briefs issued after No Fly List is checked
  • Must receive updated brief, unless verbal given by AOSC
148
Q

If a passenger is a no show…

  • What sort of delay?
  • What must be done?
A
  • Pre-Block Out
  • Update W&B
  • Call CA to verify pax not traveling
149
Q

Crew must confirm what items prior to safety briefing:

A
  • Destination Airport and FBO
  • Brief ETE
  • Brief local arrival time
  • Arrival Transportation
  • (optional) enroute weather and destination weather
150
Q

Safety briefing shall include (11):

A
  • Comply with all placards
  • No smoking flight
  • Safety belt instructions
  • Seat backs upright
  • Aircraft exits, location and operation
  • Survival equipment location
  • Flotation Location
  • Normal and emer O2 use
  • Fire Extinguisher location and instruction
  • Taxi, Takeoff, Landing large devices powered off and stowed
  • Briefing card location
151
Q

How many pax briefing cards are required?

A

1 per seat

152
Q

Child safety seat requirements:

A
  • passenger provided
  • Placed in a forward facing seat
  • Child is proper weight
  • Seat must be labeled to meet all “federal motor vehicle safety standards” and (in red lettering) “THIS RESTRAINT IS CERTIFIED FOR USE IN MOTOR VEHICLES and AIRCRAFT”
153
Q

Whose responsibility is it to ensure a child safety seat is appropriate and installed correctly?

A

The parent/guardian

154
Q

On overwater flights, how many infant life vests must be onboard?

A

one for each child under 35lbs

155
Q

Animals used by handicapped passengers may be carried if:

A
  • secured by a short, quick disconnect chain w/in reach of its master
  • not allowed in exit row or cockpit
  • flight conducted below 10,000ft cabin altitude
156
Q

Large animals are not allowed where? (2):

A
  • in the exit row
  • to lie in any aisle
  • must occupy a seat and be restrained
157
Q

Higher risk dogs will not be carried unless

A
  • specific approval is given by brief/email
  • carried in kennel at all times

No Talon policy on this.

158
Q

What animals will be kenneled at all times?

A
  • Certain large breed dogs (Not talon policy)
  • Cats / small dogs
  • Other non-service animals
159
Q

PEDs that must be stowed for taxi, takeoff and landing

A
  • personal computers
  • DVD player
  • Cameras and portable camcorders
160
Q

PEDs not allowed for use during flight

A
  • Televisions
  • Radios
  • Remote control toys
  • Pagers
  • Wireless Modems
  • E Cigarettes
  • Cellular functions enabled
161
Q

For CREW, when must PED and EFBs be in airplane mode?

A
  • At all times unless parked at gate or designated holding area.
162
Q

Once aware of a possible violation, how long does crew have to file an ASAP?

A
  • 24hrs

- 72hrs with extension from ASAP manager?

163
Q

What is required for a LEO to carry a weapon onboard?

A
  • Documents provided to customer service and DO
  • DO issues approval
  • Identify self with official badge AND official photo ID
  • Captain will be notified by CA/Dispatch or DO
  • Briefing shall include LEO employing agency, “Armed LEO / Escort Approved by DO”
  • Captain remind LEO of prohibition of using alcohol
164
Q

Carriage of firearm rules:

A
  • Unloaded
  • Kept in locked container (hard-sided case) (baggage compartment is NOT considered locked container in G-IV or G-V)
  • Or a functional trigger lock is used
  • PIC retains possession of all locking device keys
  • Proper customs forms if international
165
Q

Transport of Ammunition rules

A
  • Personal use small arms ammunition if securely packaged in proper containers in checked baggage
166
Q

What service equipment must be stowed for taxi, takeoff and landing?

A

Tables, Food, Beverage and Setups

167
Q

May passengers bring their own alcohol?

A

Alcohol must be served by operator

168
Q

An intoxicated passenger:

A
  • May not be served alcohol

- Will be denyed boarding

169
Q

Blood alcohol limit for flight crew:

A

?FAA - 0.04

EASA - 0.02

170
Q

Alcohol Policy

  • FAR
  • Company policy
  • Post accident
A
  • 8 hrs
  • 10 hrs (prior to duty)
  • 8 hrs after accident unless test specimen given, or w/ DO / CP determination of alcohol not contributing factor
171
Q

Crews will never reset ______.

A
  • Any fuel system circuit breaker that has tripped

This is airmanship, not policy.

172
Q

Other than fuel system CBs, crews may reset CBs how many times?

A
  • Once
  • Follow manufacturer guidance
  • Contact maintenance control
173
Q

How long shall W&B records be maintained for flights?

A

30 days

174
Q

How often must company aircraft be weighed?

A

36 months

175
Q

No flight will depart in IMC conditions or at night unless

A

Weather radar is functioning

176
Q

If 1 EFB is inoperative:

A
  • Crew has printed second set of current terminal charts for each airport of intended landing and alternates
177
Q

If 2 EFB are inoperative:

A

If both EFB’s have failed in flight, use the “Back-Up Approach Procedures-Voice Communication Checklist” to obtain required information to complete the flight.

In the event of a dual EFB failure, operations will continue utilizing printed paper navigational charts printed prior to departure.

178
Q

Pilots shall update their terminal charts within:

A

7 days of issuance

Not Talon policy

179
Q

Air Carrier Certificate #

A

OZTA781J

180
Q

Aborted Takeoff (GOM definition)

A

Any discontinuance after takeoff clearance and commencement of takeoff roll.

181
Q

Passport Renewal Policy

A
  • Primary passport will be replaced at least 6 months prior to expiration
  • 2nd passport will be acquired when the primary passport is within 24 months of expiration, unless a 2nd passport is already operationally required
182
Q

What is the guidance document for Hazmat?

A

ICAO Doc 9284: Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Good by Air

183
Q

Where can the checklist for Hazmat spillage be found?

A

ICAO Doc 9481: Emergency Response Guidance for Aircraft Incidents Involving Dangerous Goods

135 (4 decks)

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