GOM Flashcards
Define operational control
Ability to initiate, conduct, and terminate a flight
Who has ultimate responsibility for operational control?
Director of operations
Operational control is delegated into 4 levels. Name them and explain who can approve release.
Level 1 - crew self release with pax
Level 2 - crew self release w/o pax (call SOC)
Level 3 - Crew self release or ODO release
Level 4 - DO/CPO/ODO
Immediately notify CPO of any of the following:
1 - Aborted Takeoff
2 - Deviation from normal procedures
3 - Pilot unable to perform duties
4 - Safety violations (perceived or real)
5 - Unscheduled landings (including return to the field)
Immediately notify SOC of any of the following
1 - Accident or Incident
2 - Delay greater than 15 minutes
3 - Significant deviation from planned route
4 - Unforecast or Significant weather encounters
5 - Other info related to safety of flight
Deviation from GOM is not authorized unless approved by
Director of Operations
Who is authorized to exercise operational control?
1 - Director of Operations 2 - Director of Maintenance 3 - Chief Pilot 4 - Assistant Chief Pilot 5 - ODO (limited) 6 - Captain (limited)
Level 3 release may be required:
1 - International (outside lower 48) 2 - Class II NAV 3 - Contaminated Runways 4 - Special Airport Operations 5 - NCPT (first 150hrs) or RCPT 6 - No suitable IAP
Level 4 release required:
1 - DAAP
2 - Supplemental O2 Required
3 - Maintenance Flights
4 - Part 91 Ops (not training/checking) (CPO)
5 - Ferry Flight
6 - CSE Red (CPO)
7 - Braking Action (2 / Medium to Poor) (CPO)
Possible self release at special or mountainous airport:
- Self release allowed by dep/arr and SAG
- No severe weather
- PIC ops last 12 months
- Daylight ops
- Night arrival authorized and IAP available
- Night departure with APG DP and Company Authorized
Severe weather for Mountainous and Special Airports is defined as:
- Potential Severe Icing
- Potential Severe Turbulence
- Potential Freezing Rain
- Wind >25kts incl gusts (Mountainous only)
Potential Dep/Arr Runway Self Release:
- CSE not RED
- Not NCPT/RCPT
Departure Runway - Runway Dry
- Runway Wet/Contaminated TOFL >1000’ >actual
- Runway Wet <1000’ >actual required (left seat TO)
- DEP CLIMB APG DP or 1.6VMC
Arrival Runway - 1.67 Dry with suitable IAP
- 1.92 Wet with suitable IAP and Not Contaminated
- 1.92 Contaminated RCAM >2/>Med to Poor w/ no tailwind and 2 TRs
Contaminated runway dispatch requirements
- Level 3 Release required if TOFL <1000’ >actual for Takeoff, No tailwind, Both TRs operational
- Level 4 Release required if RCAM 2 / Med to Poor
- For landing: No tailwind, Both TRs operational
Potential Class II Self Release:
- Qualified for Route
- Supplemental O2 not required (Level 4)
- Destination Fuel >2000# (Level 3)
- ETP airports above WX mins (ODO/SOC)
- ETP fuel >30min (Level 3)
Potential International Self Release:
Level 3 unless:
- Crew familiar with BOE Procedures (if eligible)
- Crew familiar with international proc and customs loc and proc
Border Overflight Eligible Checklist
- Aircraft listed
- Crew members listed
- Customs overflight noted on flight plan remarks
Immediate notification to the NTSB is required when an aircraft accident or any of the following listed incidents occur:
a) Flight control system malfunction or failure;
b) Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness;
c) Failure of structural components of a turbine engine excluding compressor and turbine blades and vanes;
d) In-flight fire;
e) Aircraft collide in flight.
f) Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 for repair (including materials and labor) or fair market value in the event of total loss, whichever is less.
g) In-flight failure of electrical systems which requires the sustained use of an emergency bus powered by a backup source such as a battery, auxiliary power unit, or air driven generator to retain flight control or essential instruments;
h) In-flight failure of hydraulic systems that results in sustained reliance on the sole remaining hydraulic or mechanical system for movement of flight control surfaces;
i) Sustained loss of the power or thrust produced by two or more engines.
j) An evacuation of an aircraft in which an emergency egress system is utilized.
k) An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.
The Captain of an aircraft involved in an accident or incident will, to the extent possible:
- Communicate 1st to emergency services, then to SOC.
- Preserve any aircraft wreckage, cargo, and mail
- Preserve all aircraft operating records
- Not stand relieved unless for medical reasons until the NTSB or FAA takes custody.
- Submit a report as soon as physically able (ASAP)
Pilots who anticipate any portion of their flight to be operated under VFR will file a _____________ by phone to the Operation Analyst. The Captain will ___________ to close the VFR flight plan once the VFR portion is completed.
Company flight plan
call or email SOC
Overdue aircraft by 30 minutes (company flight plan):
Operations Analyst will:
- Attempt to contact crew
- Notify ODO, DO and CP
- Contact FBO
- Contact FSS
- Contact ATC to pass message
Overdue aircraft by 45 minutes (company flight plan):
DO or CP will:
- Initiate ERP
- Notify FSDO
- Reference NTSB pt 830
Contents of the Aircraft Binder:
- Form 106: VOR Check
- Form 108: Aircraft Status Sheet
- Form 125: Airworthiness Release
- Form 130: Discrepancy Log and Instructions
- Form 140: Condition Log and Instructions
- Form 503: Airworthiness Release
- Empty weight and center of gravity determination
- Radio Station Authorization
- MEL/NEF/CDL Placards
- Customs Receipt
- Insurance forms
- Credit cards
How long must the completed 130 forms remain on the aircraft?
30 days from the last discrepancy and then mailed to MX control.
A signed off discrepancy will have what information?
- Aircraft TT
- Corrective action
- Date
- Signature
- Certificate Number
VOR check required how often?
30 days (Form 106)
Non-compliant RVSM aircraft requirements
- “NO RVSM” flight plan remark
- Operate in accordance to MEL
- Advise FAA through DO within 72hrs if necessary
Discrepancy categorizations:
- Un-airworthy Item
- MEL Item
- NEF Item
- CDL Item
- Carry-Over Item
- Information Only Item
Define and describe Carry Over Item
Covers items not listed in MEL/NEF/CDL
- Dents/cracks within limits
- Removal of optional equipment
- Removal of equipment not required by Type Cert and Op Rules
- Fuel leaks within limits
- Interim repairs approved by manufacturer or DER
Define Info Only Items
Item is written for information purposes and does not indicate an un-airworthy condition
Persons authorized to complete corrective action portion of discrepancy log:
- Company Maintenance Personnel
- FAA Certificated Technicians and FAA Certified Repair Stations
- XOJET Flight Crew may clear deferrals for expired NAV databases
Items to be entered into and deferred in the Discrepancy Log (Form 130):
- MEL
- CDL
Items to be entered into and deferred in the Condition Log (Form 140):
- NEF
- Carry-Over
The assigned Captain may defer a _________ or complete an _________ Item.
Discrepancy
INFO ONLY
When shall the white copy of the discrepancy or condition log be removed?
When all items on the page are completed.
What is the duration of an airworthiness release and how many shall be retained?
- Until superseded by next maintenance event
- Retain two most current airworthiness releases
- Mail remaining expired airworthiness releases to maintenance
What MEL categories can be extended by the DOM?
MEL category B and C
NEF category D and R
Length of discrepancy MEL categories?
A - MEL specified
B - 3 days (midnight day recorded +72 hours) day recorded doesn’t apply
C - 10 days (midnight day recorded +240 hours) day recorded doesn’t apply
D - 120 days (midnight day recorded)
R - refurb
Where can the flight crew find deferral placarding instructions?
Placard instructions can be found in the MEL/NEF/CDL.
What is contained within the CDL?
Citation X - Specific Bonding Jumpers and Fuel Cover/Lanyard
Configuration Deviation List (CDL) are those items installed on the aircraft listed as secondary airframe parts. The CDL identifies any external parts of an aircraft type which may be missing at the commencement of a flight and which contains, where necessary, any information on associated operating limitations and performance correction (e.g., speed penalty, increased fuel burn, altitude limitations). If inoperative, damaged, or missing, these items have no effect on the aircraft’s ability to be operated safely under all operational conditions.
What items are typically in the NEF?
Items that if inoperative, damaged or missing have no effect on the aircraft’s ability to be operated safely under all operational conditions.
What two levels of maintenance flight will the company conduct?
Check Flight and Confidence Flight
Who holds responsibility for issuance of a special flight permit?
Director of Maintenance
Maintenance Check Flight is required after what maintenance:
- Engine Change
- Primary Flight Control Surface Installation, Rigging, Cable Changes, Actuator Replacement
- Major structural repair or alterations that may affect flight characteristics
- As required by DOM
Maintenance Check Flight Conditions:
- Minimum Required Crew
- VMC
- Daylight
Maintenance Confidence Flight is required when:
An operational or functional check of non-critical systems following maintenance to determine if repairs have corrected the discrepancy prior to re-entry into revenue service.
Maintenance Confidence Flight Conditions:
- Minimum Required Crew
Discrepancies under which Special Flight Permits Issued
- Aircraft damage
- Landing gear down operations
- Landing gear door removed
- System(s) inoperative beyond the limits of the MEL, but otherwise capable of safe flight
- Aircraft operation with flaps in full up position
- Compliance with an airworthiness directive unless the airworthiness directive states otherwise or it is determined that the aircraft cannot be moved safely
Hazardous Materials COMAT will not be transported on our aircraft. The ONLY exception is:
A tire assembly with serviceable tire not over inflated and it is protected from damage.
HAZMAT exceptions, carried by Passengers or Crewmembers. Personal use items allowed under following conditions:
- Non-radioactive medicinal or toiletry articles in checked or carry-on
- Aerosol with no risk and protective cap
Aggregate quantity of all HM items carried by each person allowed may not exceed:
70oz. (2kg) by mass or 68fl. oz. (2L) by volume
Individual containers of HM cannot exceed:
18oz. (0.5kg) by mass or 17 fl.oz. (500ml) by volume
What self-defense HAZMAT item may a person carry on the aircraft?
One self-defense spray not exceeding 4 fl. oz. that incorporates a positive means of prevent accidental discharge (checked baggage only)
When will Wheelchairs/mobility aids not be transported?
If the device shows signs of damage or leakage.
Wheelchair batteries are either ____ or _____
Spillable or non-spillable
Wheelchairs must be loaded/stored _____
Upright. If they cannot then it is recommended that non-spillable batteries are removed and mandatory that the spillable batteries are removed.
How are wheelchair batteries to be prepared for travel?
Battery must be disconnected and terminal and end cables are insulated to prevent short circuits.
If a wheelchair battery is to be removed:
- Removal accomplished by properly trained airline personnel
- Transported in strong, rigid packaging that is impervious to battery fluid.
- Packaging marked as CORROSIVE label with “Battery, Wet, With Wheelchair”
A HAZMAT incident shall be reported as soon as practical but no later than
12 hours after the occurence of the incident.
Hidden shipment indicators could indicate:
that HAZMAT is present.
Examples of hidden shipment indicators:
- Aircraft Parts/COMAT
- Automobile Parts
- SCUBA gear
- Camping Equipment
- Electrical Equipment
- Frozen Fruits / Veggies
- Household Goods
- Instruments
- Machinery Parts
- Medical Supplies / Equipment
- Pharmaceuticals
- Photo Supplies
- Refrigerators
- Swimming Pool Supplies
- Tool Boxes
Hazardous Material Onboard Citation X
- Aircraft Batteries (3)
- Engine Oil
- Life Rafts
- Fire Bottles (APU, Engines)
- Fire Extinguishers (CP, Closet)
- Fuel
- Hydraulic Fluid
- Oxygen Bottles
For taxi the PF’s EFB will be set to ____ and the PM’s EFB will be set to ____
Departure Procedure (if assigned), Taxi Diagram
All mechanical discrepancies noted by the flight crew will be recorded on FORM 130/140 with what information:
• The control number.
• The date that the discrepancy is initiated.
• Description
• All permanent aircraft record entries will be legible and accurate.
A description of the mechanical discrepancy will be as clear and descriptive as possible. Use as much space as necessary to give a complete description of the discrepancy. If more space is needed
put an “X” through the next control number then use the next discrepancy block for additional space. The next Discrepancy Log page will be used for continuation of mechanical discrepancies.
What is required to be reviewed on the XO Format Flight Plan prior to signing it?
- Routing
- Fuel Requirements
- Flight Times
When shall the company NOT conduct simulated abnormals or emergencies?
- Passenger/Cargo Flights
- Reposition Flights unless IAW training manual
RNAV Instrument Approaches must be accomplished only in accordance with instrument approach procedures that are:
- Contained in a CURRENT FMS Database
Night Ops Require
- runway lights
- lighted wind direction indicator (may be substituted with ground personnel)
RNAV Instrument Approaches must be accomplished only in accordance with instrument approach procedures that are:
- Contained in a CURRENT FMS Database
- Pilot must verify approach waypoints for accuracy to current pubs
RNAV Approach - Pilot must verify
approach waypoints for accuracy to current pubs
Use of FMS IAP is prohibited unless:
APPR or APP is annunciated on the PFD
Minimum Altitude Rules -
No turns prior to
400ft AGL unless required by ATC and is safe.
Minimum Altitude Rules -
The initial climb to
1500ft AGL must be completed as rapidly as practicable.
Minimum Safe and Enroute Altitudes: The terrain clearance requirements are
1,000ft, or 2,000ft in mountainous terrain, above the highest obstacle and within 5nm of the course to be flown. Note an MSA allows 4nm of the course to be flown.
Aircraft landing on a runway served by a VASI, PAPI, or other visual light system or an ILS shall
- fly at or above the visual glideslope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
- fly at or above the electronic glideslope between the OM and MM.
Aircraft landing on a runway without a visual or instrument system shall
use a computed 3 degree slope (300ft/1mile) until 1/2mile final approach.
Speed Limitations-
(Class C/D)
(Class B)
(Holding)
a) 200kts: In Class C and D within 4NM up to 2,500ftAGL
b) 200 kts: Under Class B
c) 250 kts: <10,000 MSL
d) 200 kts: Holding from 6,000 ft and below
e) 230 kts: Holding from 6001 ft to 14,000 ft
f) 265 kts: Holding from 14,001 ft and above
Operations shall be suspended:
a) Braking Action Reports of Nil or Poor (<2RCAM)
b) Freezing rain or drizzle
c) Severe turbulence
d) Severe icing
e) Winds 50 kts or greater
f) Crosswinds beyond the manufacturer’s demonstrated component
g) Greater than 10kt tailwind
h) Deemed unsafe
Procedures Not Authorized @ XOJET:
1- Special VFR Clearances 2- Contact Approaches 3- VFR or IFR On Top Clearances 4- VFR Over-the-Top 5- RNP Approaches 6- Use of Standard Weights 7- Carriage of HAZMAT 8- Powerplant Reversing for Rearward Taxi
Pilots who anticipate any portion of their flight to be operated under VFR will:
File a company flight plan by phone with Operation Analyst
Define VFR Only Airport:
Airport without a published or usable DP or Approach
All VFR operations will have what weather conditions minimum?
Visibility Day - 3SM
Visibility Night - 5SM
Visibility Above 10kMSL - 5SM
Cloud clearance requirements - 152 (1000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal)
Above 10k - 111 (1000 above, 1000 below, 1SM horizontal)
Ceiling Reports >1000ft
Define VFR Only Airport:
Airport without a published DP or Approach
VFR Arrival Requirements:
- Company Flight Plan
- Visual Contact with destination and maintain VFR
- Operate within 10NM of airport
- IAP required @ night or reduced visibility
- Pilots familiar with airport and obstacles
- Remain in controlled airspace as long as feasible
- Published CTAF
- Required Facilities or Services
- Verified Ground Handling 1 hour prior to landing
- @Night - Arrivals require VASI/PAPI or GS system
- @Night - May not cancel IFR and land VFR at SAG airports
- @Night - Mountainous VFR only airports not authorized
Training, Checkrides, Maintenance and New Aircraft Acceptance Flights may be operated under VFR provided:
- Company flight plan
- Remain within 50NM of originating airport
- Meet weather and obstacle requirements
- Select altitude as high as practical
IFR Takeoff Minimums - 2 Engine Standard Takeoff Mins
1SM or 5000RVR
A TERPs minimum for takeoffs or landings is
limiting
IFR Takeoff Minimums - 2 Engine Standard Visibility
1SM or 5000RVR
IFR Takeoff Minimums - Standard Takeoff Mins may be reduced to:
lowest straight in approach visibility for departure airport’s most suitable runway
IFR Takeoff Minimums - Crew Requirements
Captain - 100hrs PIC and PF unless CoPilot 100hrs PIC in type. May waive if Check Airman.
IFR Takeoff Minimums - RVR1600 or 1/4sm
One visual aid: HIRL, CL, RCLM or adequate visual reference
> 1600RVR - Controlling RVR for landing
Touchdown Zone RVR, Mid RVR may be substituted if TDRVR is unavailable
TDZ RVR 1200, Mid RVR 1200, Rollout RVR 1000 (one may be inoperative)
Daylight - HIRL or CL or servicable RCLM
Night - HIRL or CL
TDZ RVR 1000, mid-RVR 1000 (if installed), and rollout RVR
1000, (one may be inoperative)
CL or HIRL and serviceable RCLM
TDZ RVR 500, mid-RVR 500 (if installed), and rollout RVR 500, (one may be inoperative)
HIRL and Operative runway CL lights
For operations below RVR 1600 - A minimum of how may RVR systems are required?
Two operative RVR reporting systems are required. All available RVR reports are controlling. Far-end RVR on long runways is not controlling and not to be used as one of two required RVR systems
If ATC does not specifically assign a SID or radar vector:
must comply with the ODP
ODP exception - VFR conditions and
request ‘visual climb on course’ which will not be assigned by ATC
Define a diverse airport
IFR airport without ODP are considered diverse
- turn in any direction with 3.3% climb gradient to reach min IFR altitude
Uncontrolled airspace or untowered airport operations require:
- Instrument Approach Procedure
- CTAF
- IFR facilities and services
- Approved weather sources
Uncontrolled airport departure/arrival weather sources
Departures
Arrivals
Departures
- without approved weather, depart VMC (Captain determines) with takeoff alternate
Arrivals
- Approved Alternate Airport
- Local Altimeter or altimeter on approach chart
An instrument approach will not begin unless
latest visibility is at or above the landing minimums
Effective runway length will be at least 115% of runway required (1.92) for what approach visibility:
Weather forecasts or reports indicate @ ETA or upon arrival
- visibility will be (or is) less than 3/4SM or 4000RVR
When approach visibility will be less than 3/4SM or 4000RVR what runway lights and markings must be operational?
Precision instrument Runway Centerline Marking or Centerline Lights
What is the point that, after which, an approach may be continued if the weather drops below landing visibility
FAF
What RVR is controlling for landing?
TDZ RVR reports are controlling. Mid and Rollout RVR are advisory.
An aircraft may operate below DA or MDA assuming:
- continually in safe position to land normally in the TDZ
- Visibility equal to or greater than required for approach
- maintain runway visual reference
Visual Reference Requirements for Landing (airport environment)
- Approach Lights (may continue to 100ft above TDZ elevation)
- REILs, VASIs, Red Sidebars/Terminating Lights
- Threshold, Threshold Markings, Threshold Lights
- Touchdown Zone, Touchdown Zone Markings, Touchdown Zone Lights
- Runway, Runway Marking, Runway Lights
Requirements Visual Approach:
- Inside B, C, D airspace, within 35sm from the destination in class E airspace, or airspace beneath the designated transition area.
- IFR airport
- Flight is under the control of an ATC facility.
- Maintains VFR arrival requirements
- Both the Captain and Co-Pilot must be familiar with the airport and the surrounding obstacles to identify, avoid and maneuver safely.
Non-Charted
• Maintains visual contact with the airport or traffic following assigned by ATC.
Charted
• Comply with its limitations and maintain visual contact with the charted landmark(s). - IAP is required when the crew does not have absolute assurance of obstacle clearance at night and/or when the weather conditions might not allow excellent visual conditions.
- Night Visual Approaches require a VASI/PAPI or glideslope system to be operative and used.
