Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HAA GOM / SOP > GOM > Flashcards

GOM Flashcards

1
Q

The GOM must be used by the certificate holder’s flight, ground, and maintenance personnel in conducting its operations.

a) True.

b) False.

A

A) True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who, through the director of operations, exercises operational control of company flight operations?

a) President.

b) Directors of Base Operations.

c) Chief Pilot.

A

C) Chief Pilot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who has operational control over all Air Evac EMS, Inc. company flight operations and is responsible for all operational functions?

a) President.

b) Vice President of Operations.

c) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

A

C) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pilots authorized to exercise operational control duties are listed in the “Operational Control Pilot List – Air Evac EMS, Inc.” that is maintained in the

a) Operations Control Center.

b) Flight Operations Department.

c) Pilot’s record at his primary assigned base.

A

B) Flight Operations Department.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Operations Control Center (OCC) Tier I OCC and Tier II ICC duties and responsibilities can be found in __________ of the Operations Manual.

a) Chapter 8.

b) Chapter 4.

c) Chapter 2.

A

A) Chapter 8.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The Operations Control Center (OCC) reports to the _________, including matters of operational control.

a) Chief Pilot.

b) President.

c) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

A

C) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Operations Control Center (OCC), through the authority of the __________, exercises operational control of company aircraft.

a) Chief Pilot.

b) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

c) President.

A

B) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Who has responsibility to ensure flight operations has a copy of each pilot’s current medical and pilot certificate on file?

a) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

b) Pilot Records Supervisor.

c) Each individual pilot.

A

C) Each individual pilot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Before each flight, the pilot in command shall become familiar with

a) The routes to be flown to include en route terrain and obstacle elevations, and the airports and/or heliports where a landing may occur.

b) Anticipated flights, name and location of relief pilot, and names of the medical personnel.

c) The location of the aircraft engineering log, location of the base mechanic, and the name of the OCC specialist on duty for that service area.

A

A) The routes to be flown to include en route terrain and obstacle elevations, and the airports and/or heliports where a landing may occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The pilot reporting to duty will receive a shift change briefing (when a previous pilot is available) addressing the following items

a) Names of the medical personnel on duty, status of the NVG batteries, and maintenance inspections coming due.

b) Aircraft status, hazard updates, and name and location of the relief pilot.

c) Name of the CenCom specialist on duty for that service area, name and location of the base mechanic, and name of the nearest available area pilot.

A

B) Aircraft status, hazard updates, and name and location of the relief pilot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who has the final authority concerning matters of flight safety and aircraft operation, in accordance with FARs and the AEEMS GOM?

a) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

b) OCC Specialist.

c) Pilot in Command.

A

C) Pilot in Command.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In the event of a hard landing, sudden stoppage, lightning strike, any limitation exceeded, or any occurrence that calls into question airworthiness, that aircraft shall not be flown until released by the

a) Senior Director of Flight Operations or his designee.

b) Senior Director of Maintenance or his designee.

c) Maintenance Control Specialist.

A

B) Senior Director of Maintenance or his designee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

As soon as possible after shift change, company aircraft shall be

a) Washed and topped off with fuel.

b) Washed, preflight checked, and topped off with fuel.

c) Preflight checked, operationally checked if necessary, and ready for operation.

A

C) Preflight checked, operationally checked if necessary, and ready for operation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Who has final responsibility for determining the aircraft is airworthy, and that it is properly returned to service after the completion of any maintenance.

a) Senior Director of Flight Operations or his designee.

b) Senior Director of Maintenance or his designee.

c) Pilot in Command.

A

C) Pilot in Command.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When may a pilot, who is not a company flight instructor or company check pilot, allow any person to manipulate or “follow through” the flight controls of any company aircraft?

a) At no time.

b) If the pilot holds a FAA issued CFI with appropriate category and class ratings.

c) If the pilot holds an ATP certificate.

A

A) At no time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who may start a company aircraft?

a) A properly qualified pilot or a properly qualified mechanic.

b) A properly qualified and designated PIC.

c) Any person authorized by the Senior Director of Flight Operations.

A

B) A properly qualified and designated PIC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Flight time in helicopters is defined as

a) The time from when the aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of flight and ends when it comes to a full stop at the next point of landing.

b) The time from when the main rotor blades start to turn for the purpose of flight and ends when the main rotor blades come to a complete stop at the next point of landing.

c) The time from when the engine is started for the purpose of flight and ends when the engine is shut down at the next point of landing.

A

A) The time from when the aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of flight and ends when it comes to a full stop at the next point of landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Time in service, with respect to maintenance time records, is the time

a) Recorded from the pilot’s watch.

b) Recorded on the aircraft clock.

c) Recorded from the Hobbs/Recording Tachometer.

A

C) Recorded from the Hobbs/Recording Tachometer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How often must recurrent training be completed?

a) Every 6 months.

b) Every 12 months.

c) Every 24 months.

A

B) Every 12 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How often must a line check be completed?

a) Every 6 months.

b) Every 12 months.

c) Every 24 months.

A

B) Every 12 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Night landings to unimproved sites when any component of the NVG system is inoperable are not permitted without

a) Chief Pilot authorization.

b) Medical personnel acceptance of the risks involved.

c) Tier I OCC approval.

A

C) Tier I OCC approval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Air Evac EMS, Inc.’s definition for improved sites is

a) An area where improvements have been made specifically to assist the landing of an aircraft (ex. runways, helipads, PILA sites, etc.).

b) Any area that is adequate for landing a helicopter without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

c) Any area that has adequate lighting (for night operations) and enough area to land a helicopter without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

A

A) An area where improvements have been made specifically to assist the landing of an aircraft (ex. runways, helipads, PILA sites, etc.).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Air Evac EMS, Inc.’s definition for unimproved landing sites is all sites that are not improved.

a) True.

b) False.

A

A) True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

For all nighttime operations, both aided and unaided, the pilot must have__________, as required by 14 CFR 135.207.

a) Night vision goggles available.

b) Visual surface light reference, sufficient to safely control the aircraft.

c) Conducted three instrument approaches (non-precision and/or precision) within the past 30 days.

A

B) Visual surface light reference, sufficient to safely control the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

All unaided takeoffs and landings to meet the night flight experience requirements will be conducted

a) In a simulator.

b) At a lighted improved site.

c) At an unimproved site.

A

B) At a lighted improved site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If a pilot has not flown a specific Make or Model (ex. Bell 206, Bell 407, AS350) aircraft within the previous __________ days, he/she will be required to perform __________ takeoffs and landings tot a full stop, in a traffic pattern or similar to a traffic pattern at your location, as the sole occupant of that specific make/model aircraft.

a) 30,2

b) 45,3

c) 30,3

A

C) 30,3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If a pilot has not flown a specific Make or Model (ex. Bell 206, Bell 407, AS350) aircraft within the previous __________ days, he/she will be required to perform additional training with a Company Flight Instructor in that specific make/model aircraft.

a) 30

b) 60

c) 90

A

C) 90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The preflight risk analysis is required to be completed prior to

a) The preflight of the aircraft

b) The first leg of a helicopter air ambulance (HAA) operation.

c) The medical personnel brief.

A

B) The first leg of a helicopter air ambulance (HAA) operation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Pilots are expected to comply with weather minimums of no lower than __________ day, and __________ night, unless alternate weather minimums have been approved.

a) 1000, 3; 1500, 5
b) 800, 3; 1000, 3
c) 500, 2; 800, 3

A

A) 1000, 3; 1500, 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

With prior approval, a pilot may be approved for the following alternate weather minimums.

a) 1000, 3 day; 1500, 5 night.

b) 800, 3 day; 1000, 3 night.

c) 500, 2 day; 800, 3 night.

A

B) 800, 3 day; 1000, 3 night.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

During nighttime operations, a(n) __________ cloud layer will be viewed as a ceiling.

a) scattered

b) overcast

c) broken

A

A) scattered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

While conducting VFR operations, the PIC must ensure that all terrain and obstacles along the route of flight are cleared vertically by no less than __________ feet for day operations and _________ feet for night operations.

a) 200, 400

b) 300, 500

c) 500, 1000

A

B) 300, 500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When a new transport request is received while airborne, the flight may proceed without conducting a full VFR preflight plan.

a) True; if this possibility was considered and documented in the original VFR flight planning as an operational consideration.

b) True; if authorized by Tier III OCC before accepting the new request.

c) False.

A

A) True; if this possibility was considered and documented in the original VFR flight planning as an operational consideration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Prior to flight, the PIC is required to calculate weight and balance using the company’s approved weight and balance program.

a) True.

b) False.

A

A) True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When should the aircraft preflight be completed?

a) Anytime during the shift.

b) At the end of the shift, prior to the relief pilot reporting for duty.

c) Upon arrival at the duty station.

A

C) Upon arrival at the duty station.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The preflight will be in accordance with, but not limited to,

a) The aircraft flight manual or accepted abbreviated checklist.

b) The accepted abbreviated checklist only.

c) The rotorcraft flight manual or by memory.

A

A) The aircraft flight manual or accepted abbreviated checklist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Properly trained medical personnel may operate a heliporter anytime an aircraft is involved.

a) True.

b) False.

A

A) True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

If a tie down is being utilized, what must be placed over the collective as an indication that the tie- down system must be removed prior to engine start?

a) Pilot’s helmet.

b) Yellow sock.

c) Red storage bag.

A

C) Red storage bag.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The helicopter must not go through the hangar door opening until the bottom of the hangar door is raised to the height of the

a) Yellow stripes.

b) Red stripes.

c) White and black cross-hatched stripes.

A

B) Red stripes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

No aircraft shall be flown unless that aircraft has been loaded in accordance with the approved

a) AFM weight and balance section.

b) Company weight and balance excel spreadsheet.

c) EFB app for the appropriate BH206L model.

A

A) AFM weight and balance section.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The aircraft weight and balance computation will be accomplished utilizing the

a) EFB app for the appropriate BH206L model.

b) Company approved electronic weight and balance program located on the intranet.

c) Weight and balance loading and computation chart found in the limitations section of the AFM.

A

B) Company approved electronic weight and balance program located on the intranet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Weight computations and CG ranges are required to be onboard the aircraft during flight.

a) True.

b) False.

A

B) False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

For weight and balance computations, what is the weight of Jet A?

a) 7.0 pounds per gallon.

b) 6.8 pounds per gallon.

c) 6.5 pounds per gallon.

A

B) 6.8 pounds per gallon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Who is responsible for assuring the aircraft load is properly distributed in accordance with the computed loaded conditions?

a) PIC and medical personnel.

b) PIC.

c) Medical personnel.

A

B) PIC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Who is responsible to ensure that all passengers, including the patient, are properly restrained and secured?

a) PIC and medical personnel.

b) PIC.

c) Medical personnel.

A

B) PIC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

No passenger, except those authorized to carry weapons per FAR 135.119, may carry a deadly or dangerous weapon aboard company aircraft without written approval from the

a) Vice President of Operations.

b) Chief Pilot.

c) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

A

C) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Before each takeoff the PIC or qualified medical personnel will orally brief all passengers in accordance with FAR 135.117 on the following:

a) Smoking, use of seat belts, and location of fire extinguishers.

b) Placement of seat backs in the upright position for takeoff and landing, location of survival equipment, and emergency egress.

c) All are correct.

A

C) All are correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Family members are highly encouraged to ride along on patient flights and Air Evac EMS, Inc. will make every effort to return them back home.

a) True.

b) False.

A

B) False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How many copies of the challenge/response checklist are required to be onboard company aircraft?

a) One.

b) Two.

c) Three.

A

b) Two.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When must the challenge/response checklist be utilized?

a) Pre-flight and post-landing.

b) Cruise and pre-landing/

c) Pre-takeoff and pre-landing.

A

C) Pre-takeoff and pre-landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

If the pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft, must he/she still perform the challenge/response checklist?

a) Yes; but only the challenge portion.

b) Yes; both the challenge and response portions.

c) No; not required if the pilot is the sole occupant.

A

B) Yes; both the challenge and response portions.

52
Q

Except for takeoff and landing, pilots will maintain a minimum altitude of:

a) 300 feet AGL or higher for day VFR operations, 500 feet AGL or higher for night VFR operations.

b) 300 feet MSL or higher for day VFR operations, 500 feet MSL or higher for night VFR operations.

c) 500 feet AGL or higher for day VFR operations, 300 feet AGL or higher for night VFR operations.

A

a) 300 feet AGL or higher for day VFR operations, 500 feet AGL or higher for night VFR operations.

53
Q

While en route, a minimum of __________ feet AGL altitude is recommended at all times as long as legal cloud separation can be maintained.

a) 800

b) 1000

c) 1200

A

B) 1000

54
Q

What power setting is encouraged en route to a patient pickup or anytime a patient is onboard as long as airspeed or other limitations are not exceeded?

a) Max continuous torque.

b) Best fuel range torque.

c) Max takeoff torque.

A

A) Max continuous torque.

55
Q

Landing/departing from dollies is authorized.

a) True.

b) False.

A

B) False.

56
Q

According to Air Evac EMS, Inc.’s GOM, __________ minutes of fuel is viewed as “Critically Low Fuel.”

a) 15

b) 20

c) 30

A

C) 30

57
Q

Any pilot deviating from the fuel reserve guidance found in the GOM, Chapter 5, will submit a written statement as to the events surrounding the occurrence to

a) The Chief Pilot within 24 hours but preferably at the completion of the flight.

b) The Chief Pilot within 5 days.

c) Tier 1 OCC at the completion of the flight.

A

A) The Chief Pilot within 24 hours but preferably at the completion of the flight.

58
Q

Regarding fueling; if the quality of fuel is in question, or the fuel vendor is patronized by Air Evac EMS, Inc. four times or less per month, and/or no fuel vendor audit has been conducted, the __________ will perform a clear and bright test on a fuel sample before refueling.

a) pilot

b) mechanic

c) fuel vendor

A

A) pilot

59
Q

Prior to fueling, the nozzle will be checked for contamination.

a) True.

b) False.

A

A) True.

60
Q

No smoking is allowed onboard the aircraft at any time or within __________ feet of the aircraft during fueling operations.

a) 30

b) 50

c) 100

A

B) 50

61
Q

No aircraft refueling or de-fueling may be conducted with thunderstorms within a __________ mile radius.

a) 10

b) 5

c) 2

A

B) 5

62
Q

The PIC is authorized to hot refuel the helicopter alone and may leave the flight controls of the aircraft unattended to do so.

a) True.

b) False.

A

B) False.

63
Q

May the pilot in command get out of an aircraft with the rotors turning/engine running?

a) No; never authorized.

b) Yes; however, the pilot will be out of the cockpit for the least amount of time possible, and will remain within close proximity of the aircraft.

c) Yes; the pilot may get out of the cockpit as long as desired.

A

B) Yes; however, the pilot will be out of the cockpit for the least amount of time possible, and will remain within close proximity of the aircraft.

64
Q

When can the pilot in command leave the aircraft while the rotor is turning?

a) A PIC is not authorized to leave the aircraft while the rotor is turning.

b) To determine all lights are working properly for night operations.

c) The PIC determines there is a hazard to safe operations.

A

c) The PIC determines there is a hazard to safe operations.

65
Q

Pilots may disengage the SAS to practice approaches or other types of approved training (no patient on board).

a) True.

b) False.

A

A) True.

66
Q

What is the minimum clearance for all helicopters?

a) At least 1/4 of the rotor diameter between the rotor blade tips on rotor discs of operating aircraft, between the outboard tip of the rotor disc and any obstruction, and at a distance great enough not to create a hazard to persons or property on the ground in non-secured areas.

b) At least 1/2 of the rotor diameter between the rotor blade tips on rotor discs of operating aircraft, between the outboard tip of the rotor disc and any obstruction, and at a distance great enough not to create a hazard to persons or property on the ground in non-secured areas.

c) At least 1/3 of the rotor diameter between the rotor blade tips on rotor discs of operating aircraft, between the outboard tip of the rotor disc and any obstruction, and at a distance great enough not to create a hazard to persons or property on the ground in non-secured areas.

A

C) At least 1/3 of the rotor diameter between the rotor blade tips on rotor discs of operating aircraft, between the outboard tip of the rotor disc and any obstruction, and at a distance great enough not to create a hazard to persons or property on the ground in non-secured areas.

67
Q

Per the GOM, what is the definition of “Other Commercial flying”?

a) Any nonmilitary flying as a required crewmember for which the crewmember is compensated.

b) Any flight time accumulated outside of Air Evac EMS, Inc.

c) Any flying as a crewmember for which the crewmember is compensated.

A

A) Any nonmilitary flying as a required crewmember for which the crewmember is compensated.

68
Q

A pilot’s total flight time in all commercial flying (Air Evac EMS, Inc. plus all other commercial flying) may not exceed __________ hours in any calendar quarter; __________ hours in any two consecutive calendar quarters; or __________ hours in any calendar year; or ________ hours within any 24 hour window.

a) 400; 800; 1,200; 6

b) 500; 1,000; 1,500; 8

c) 500; 800; 1,400; 8

A

C) 500; 800; 1,400; 8

69
Q

A pilot’s duty period is defined as starting when the on-coming pilot

a) Leaves home.

b) Reports to work.

c) Completes the aircraft preflight.

A

B) Reports to work.

70
Q

No pilot will report to conduct a Part 135.267 duty period following a normal break period without at least __________ consecutive hours of rest or conducting any other duties assigned by the certificate holder in the previous __________ hours.

a) 10;8

b) 10; 10

c) 10; 12

A

B) 10; 10

71
Q

Pilots will accept a transport request (with respect to duty time) based on preflight planning that the flight will terminate at the receiving facility prior to the pilot exceeding __________ hours on duty.

a) 10

b) 12

c) 14

A

C) 14

72
Q

The FAA approves Air Evac EMS, Inc. to use the following sources of weather information

a) Aviation Digital Data Service.

b) Weather Tap.

c) All are correct.

A

C) All are correct.

73
Q

Acceptance of a flight is prohibited when liquid moisture in the form of mist, drizzle, or rain is observed or forecast and a temperature of _______ or less is observed or forecast at the altitudes of operation and along the route of flight.

a) +3°C / +37° F

b) 0°C/ +32°F

c) +8°C / +46°F

A

A) +3°C / +37° F

74
Q

Company primary weather minimums are __________ for daytime operations, and _________ for nighttime operations.

a) 1000/3; 1500/5

b) 800/2; 1000/3

c) 1200/3; 1500/5

A

A) 1000/3; 1500/5

75
Q

Company alternate weather minimums are __________ for daytime operations, and _________ for nighttime operations.

a) 1000/3; 1500/5

b) 800/2; 1000/3

c) 800/3; 1000/3

A

C) 800/3; 1000/3

76
Q

Whenever a pilot encounters a potentially hazardous meteorological condition, the knowledge of which the pilot considers essential to the safety of other flights, the pilot, or medical personnel if requested by the pilot, shall

a) Notify the nearest FSS as soon as possible.

b) Notify CENCOM as soon as possible.

c) Notify Tier I OCC as soon as practicable.

A

B) Notify CENCOM as soon as possible.

77
Q

Required weather minimums must exist at the departure point for the type of flight being conducted. There must be reasonable expectation that these minimums, or better conditions, will

a) Exist en route and at the destination at the ETA.

b) Exist at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at the destination.

c) Exist at least 30 minutes before and 30 minutes after the ETA at the destination.

A

B) Exist at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at the destination.

78
Q

Helicopter flights into known icing conditions are authorized through OCC approval.

a) True.

b) False.

A

B) False.

79
Q

Helicopter flights into know icing conditions are __________ per FAR 135.227(d).

a) authorized

b) prohibited

c) restricted

A

B) prohibited

80
Q

Maximum surface winds for startup and shutdown are __________ knots and/or a __________ knot gust spread. This limitation is for startup and shutdown only.

a) 40; 15

b) 40; 20

c) 30; 15

A

A) 40; 15

81
Q

For Air Evac EMS, Inc. purposes, “cold weather” is anytime ambient temperature is __________ or less.

a) 30°C

b) 40°C

c) 40°F

A

C) 40°F

82
Q

The pilot and/or mechanic is authorized to use any de-icing or anti-icing fluids on the aircraft.

a) True.

b) False.

A

B) False.

83
Q

All departures will be made from a hover, and not directly from the ground. Exceptions for possible brown-out or white-out should be considered.

a) True.

b) False.

A

A) True.

84
Q

During takeoff, except to avoid obstacles, no turns will be made below __________ knots and __________ feet AGL.

a) 10; 500

b) 50; 30

c) 60; 300

A

C) 60; 300

85
Q

Unless established on final approach, except to avoid obstacles, no turns will be made below __________ feet AGL and __________ knots.

a) 500; 10

b) 300; 50

c) 300; 60

A

C) 300; 60

86
Q

Minimum altitude above ground level at which a company helicopter shall be in a stabilized approach condition is __________ feet.

a) 50

b) 100

c) 200

A

B) 100

87
Q

If at any time during the final approach, at or below __________ feet AGL, the aircraft is not in a stabilized approach condition, the pilot will execute a go-around maneuver.

a) 50

b) 100

c) 200

A

b) 100

88
Q

Which parameters constitute a stabilized approach?

a) Bank angle less than 20°, airspeed within ± 15 knots of the recommended approach speed with an apparent rate of closure which will allow an approach to the touchdown area with little or no flare, no roll rate below ETL is allowed, and a safe landing is never in doubt.

b) Bank angle less than 30°, airspeed within ± 20 knots of the recommended approach speed with an apparent rate of closure which will allow an approach to the touchdown area with little or no flare, no roll rate below ETL is allowed, and a safe landing is never in doubt.

c) Bank angle less than 5°, airspeed within ± 5 knots of the recommended approach speed with an apparent rate of closure which will allow an approach to the touchdown area with little or no flare, no roll rate below ETL is allowed, and a safe landing is never in doubt.

A

A) Bank angle less than 20°, airspeed within ± 15 knots of the recommended approach speed with an apparent rate of closure which will allow an approach to the touchdown area with little or no flare, no roll rate below ETL is allowed, and a safe landing is never in doubt.

89
Q

Which of the following events would require a pilot to complete a written event/incident report to the Chief Pilot within 24 hours (preferable immediately after the flight).

a) The pilot has flown past the 14 hour duty day Part 135.

b) The pilot has flown with less than 20 minutes of fuel.

c) All are correct.

A

C) All are correct.

90
Q

In accordance with aircraft torque exceedance procedures for the Bell 206, if a torque exceedance occurred while in flight and the maximum torque exceedance is unknown, the pilot is authorized to pull the Diamond J torque gauge circuit breaker in flight to determine the maximum value.

a) True.

b) False.

A

B) False

91
Q

A pilot may request a return flight to base beyond the 14th hour. This will require consultation and approval from the

a) Tier I OCC or higher.

b) Chief Pilot.

c) RDFO or Chief Pilot.

A

A) Tier I OCC or higher.

92
Q

Pilots will announce their intentions as follows when no established communications procedure exists.

a) Five miles from landing, one mile from landing, and landing.

b) Liftoff, one mile from departure site, and five miles from departure site.

c) All are correct.

A

C) All are correct.

93
Q

A previous transport decline for weather or other considerations does not in itself automatically preclude a base from considering or accepting the transport.

a) True.

b) False.

A

A) True.

94
Q

Any flight request for a transport with on-way patient loaded miles of __________ NM, or more, will require approval from the CenCom communication’s supervisor with the assistance of MedLink or Tier I OCC prior to acceptance.

a) 100

b) 150

c) 200

A

B) 150

95
Q

Hot loading/unloading will be acceptable under the following circumstances:

a) Patient condition requires immediate departure/arrival and/or Cardio Pulmonary Resuscitation is in progress.

b) The surface of the landing area is unstable and/or there is impending bad weather.

c) All are correct.

A

C) All are correct.

96
Q

Upon arriving at a scene during the day, the PIC

a) May proceed directly onto final approach without conducting a high recon.

b) Shall make a high recon to determine wind direction, forced landing areas, and obstacles for entry and egress from the area.

c) May conduct a high recon if he/she determines it’s necessary.

A

B) Shall make a high recon to determine wind direction, forced landing areas, and obstacles for entry and egress from the area.

97
Q

A recon performed during landing does not suffice as to ensuring that your departure path is safe and clear of obstacles. It must be verified prior to departure.

a) True.

b) False.

A

A) True.

98
Q

The risk analysis is required to be completed

a) Prior to the first leg of a helicopter air ambulance operation.

b) As soon as the PIC reports for duty.

c) As soon as practicable after departure on the first leg of a helicopter air ambulance operation.

A

A) Prior to the first leg of a helicopter air ambulance operation.

99
Q

Only one Risk Analysis is required per duty day per PIC (not required for each HAA operation).

a) True.

b) False.

A

B) False.

100
Q

When must a paper copy of the risk analysis be completed and signed?

a) Anytime that a new risk analysis is completed when away from home base and a computer or EFB is not available.

b) Anytime the PIC deems it necessary.

c) When a risk analysis is performed by the medical personal for the PIC

A

A) Anytime that a new risk analysis is completed when away from home base and a computer or EFB is not available.

101
Q

The pilot may not lift the aircraft until he/she receives notification from Tier I or Tier II OCC that their Preflight Risk Analysis Form has been “Acknowledged.”

a) True.

b) False.

A

A) True

102
Q

The pilot may lift the aircraft without receiving notification from Tier I or Tier II OCC that their Preflight Risk Analysis Form has been “Acknowledged.”

a) True.

b) False.

A

B) False.

103
Q

If the total risk value is in the __________, the pilot accepted and submitted RA form must be reviewed and acknowledged by either Tier I or Tier II OCC.

a) Green

b) Green or Yellow

c) Yellow

A

B) Green or Yellow

104
Q

If the total risk value is in the __________, the pilot is required to consult with Tier I OCC prior to acceptance of the flight.

a) Green

b) Yellow

c) Orange

A

C) Orange

105
Q

For a total risk value in the red, the flight is a no-go and will not be accepted unless consultation between the pilot, Tier I OCC, and an RDFO can reduce the risk into the orange range.

a) True; this risk mitigation option must be initiated by the pilot.

b) True; this risk mitigation option must be initiated by Tier I OCC.

c) False.

A

A) True; this risk mitigation option must be initiated by the pilot.

106
Q

For night operations, the search light may be inoperative provided

a) The flights are inter-facility or landing at an airport.

b) All fixed lights are operational.

c) All are correct.

A

C) All are correct.

107
Q

No scene flights are allowed without an operative search light.

a) True.

b) False.

A

A) True.

108
Q

If the searchlight becomes inoperative at any time before landing at a scene at night, the transport will be aborted.

a) True.

b) False.

A

A) True.

109
Q

The radio altimeter is required for NVG operations.

a) True.

b) False.

A

A) True.

110
Q

Base pilots may conduct the following emergency procedures with medical personnel on board.

a) Autorotations from altitude and tail rotor failures.

b) Stuck pedals and hydraulic failures.

c) None are correct.

A

C) None are correct.

111
Q

EFB supplemental information can be found in

a) Appendix A of the GOM.

b) Appendix D of the GOM.

c) Appendix D of the Training Manual.

A

B) Appendix D of the GOM.

112
Q

Which app on the EFB will contain reference material such as the rotorcraft flight manual, general operations manual, minimum equipment list, and emergency response guide?

a) PDF To Go.

b) Garmin Pilot.

c) Airwatch/Secure Content Locker (SCL).

A

C) Airwatch/Secure Content Locker (SCL).

113
Q

In flight, the EFB must be stowed or in __________ for all critical phases of flight.

a) An approved portable mounting device

b) An approved fixed mounting device

c) All are correct.

A

A) An approved portable mounting device

114
Q

The EFB may be utilized in cruise flight. Ownship display must be turned ON in flight.

a) True.

b) False.

A

B) False.

115
Q

The EFB may be utilized in cruise flight. Ownship display must be turned OFF in flight.

a) True.

b) False.

A

A) True.

116
Q

If either (primary or backup) EFB fails, the aircraft __________ until a replacement EFB is received, pre-flight performed, and confirmed to be loaded with appropriate information or current copies of required documents can be substituted.

a) May continue operations.

b) Will remain on the ground

c) May continue operations after approval from OCC Tier II

A

B) Will remain on the ground

117
Q

EFB battery life is defined as

a) The time the iPad mini EFB will run before it must be recharged.

b) The total amount of time the battery will last before it needs to be replaced.

c) The time the iPad mini EFB will run before it reaches the low battery life warning (10%).

A

A) The time the iPad mini EFB will run before it must be recharged.

118
Q

EFB battery lifespan is defined as

a) The time the iPad mini EFB will run before it must be recharged.

b) The total amount of time the battery will last before it needs to be replaced.

c) The time the iPad mini EFB will run before it reaches the low battery life warning (10%).

A

B) The total amount of time the battery will last before it needs to be replaced.

119
Q

When a pilot determines that the EFB does not meet the battery lifespan standards through the battery testing procedure, the pilot will contact __________ for an iPad mini EFB replacement.

a) The Chief Pilot

b) Maintenance Control

c) OCC

A

C) OCC

120
Q

All EFB devices will be tested __________ of every year to determine if the EFB has sufficient battery lifespan.

a) Every third month

b) Every June and December

c) Every January and July

A

C) Every January and July

121
Q

If an EFB is tested and will not continue to operate for at least __________ hours on battery power, the pilot will contact OCC to arrange for a replacement EFB.

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

A

B) 3

122
Q

When there’s an aircraft equipment change that would affect the flight manual or supplements, __________ will update the aircraft specific EFB file to reflect the changes appropriately.

a) MXC

b) OCC

c) CenCom

A

B) OCC

123
Q

If the EFB user has reason to question the EFB configuration, they will contact __________, or their designee, for resolution.

a) Chief Pilot

b) On duty Maintenance Control specialist.

c) OCC

A

C) OCC

124
Q

Any EFB anomalies or malfunctions that would be considered a nuisance, intermittent, or unusual will be reported through __________.

a) 135 Quality Control Manager.

b) Chief Pilot.

c) EFB anomaly report.

A

C) EFB anomaly report.

125
Q

The EFB anomaly report can be found in

a) The GOM, Appendix B.

b) The GOM, Appendix C.

c) The GOM, Appendix D.

A

C) The GOM, Appendix D.

126
Q

The EFB operator procedure checklist can be found in

a) The GOM, Appendix D

b) The GOM, Chapter 5

c) The GOM, Chapter 4

A

A) The GOM, Appendix D

127
Q

The EFB battery lifespan test form can be found in

a) The GOM, Appendix A

b) The GOM, Appendix D, Page 10.

c) The GOM, Chapter 5

A

B) The GOM, Appendix D, Page 10.

HAA GOM / SOP (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions