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2nd ME > GOA > Flashcards

GOA Flashcards

1
Q

Functions of the skin

A

Protection
Insulation
Receptors
Aids in homeostasis
Thermoregulation
Excretion of waste
Synthesis of vit. D
Oil secretion
Cosmesis

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2
Q

most superficial layer of the epidermis

A

Corneum

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3
Q

layer of the epidermis that contains keratin and is water-proof

A

corneum

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4
Q

A thin layer of the epidermis that resists pressure

A

Lucidum

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5
Q

Where can lucidum be found in the body?

A

palms
soles

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6
Q

What does stratum granulosum do?

A

Water and heat retention

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7
Q

Layer of the epidermis containing the Langerhan’s cells

A

Spinosum

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8
Q

Layer of the epidermis containing the most melanocytes

A

Basale

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9
Q

Cells responsible for immune response

A

Langerhans’s cells

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10
Q

where in the dermis can the receptors be found?

A

papillary region

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11
Q

How much of the dermis does the papillary region make up for?

A

one-third

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12
Q

this layer provides strength and extensibility to the dermis

A

Reticular region

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13
Q

receptors responsible for pain, touch, pressure, and temperature

A

Free-nerve endings

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14
Q

receptors responsible for light touch

A

Merkel’s disc

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15
Q

receptors responsible for discriminative touch

A

Meissner’s corpuscle

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16
Q

receptors responsible for heat

A

Ruffini’s endings

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17
Q

receptors responsible for cold

A

Krause-end bulb

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18
Q

receptors responsible for vibration and pressure

A

Pacinian corpuscle

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19
Q

Functions of the subcutaneous tissue

A

Support
Insulation
Cushion
Source/storage of energy

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20
Q

course, thick, long, and pigmented hair

A

Terminal hair

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21
Q

where can terminal hair be found?

A

scalp, eyelash, eyebrow, pubic area

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22
Q

fine, short, and unpigmented hair

A

vellus hair

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23
Q

where can vellus hair be found?

A

Arms, chest, cheeks

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24
Q

another name for eccrine glands

A

Herocrin glands

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25
Q

function of eccrine glands

A

thermoregulation

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26
Q

where can apocrine glands be found?

A

Axilla
Genital area

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27
Q

when are apocrine glands activated?

A

stress

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28
Q

These are modified apocrine glands that produces ear wax

A

Ceruminous glands

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29
Q

These are modified apocrine glands that produce milk

A

Mammary glands

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30
Q

burn that only affects the epidermis

A

1st-degree/Superficial

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31
Q

S/Sx of 1st-degree burn

A

no blisters
pink or red in color

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32
Q

A type of burn that affects the receptors

A

Superficial-partial thickness burn

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33
Q

S/Sx of superficial-partial thickness burn

A

bright red in color
intact blisters
moderate edema
painful

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34
Q

A type of burn that affects the epidermis and the whole dermis

A

Deep-partial thickness burn

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35
Q

S/Sx of deep-partial thickness burns

A

not painful
waxy red/white
broken blisters

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36
Q

Range of damage in full-thickness burn

A

epidermis to hypodermis

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37
Q

A type of burn that burns through the hypodermis and includes muscle damage

A

Subdermal/4th degree burn

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38
Q

burn assessment tool for chronic patients

A

Lund & Browder

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39
Q

burn assessment tool for emergency

A

Rule of Nines

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40
Q

Injuries in the skin and underlying tissue due to prolonged pressure on the skin

A

pressure ulcer

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41
Q

a stage of pressure ulcer presenting with blood-filled blisters that are maroon or purple in color

A

Suspected deep tissue injury

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42
Q

S/Sx of stage 1 pressure ulcer

A

intact skin
redness
non-blanchable

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43
Q

S/Sx of stage 2 pressure ulcer

A

possiblity of partial-thickness skin loss
skin abrasion
shallow crater

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44
Q

S/Sx of stage 3 pressure ulcer

A

full-thickness skin loss
deep crater

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45
Q

S/Sx of stage 4 pressure ulcer

A

similar to stage 3 but includes muscle damage

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46
Q

S/Sx of unstageable pressure ulcer

A

covered in slough or eschar

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47
Q

Moist, soft, and often loosely adherent, indicating ongoing inflammatory response and tissue repair.

A

slough

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48
Q

Dry, firm, and firmly adherent, signifying the end stage of tissue necrosis and non-viable tissue

A

Eschar

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49
Q

What is the treatment for pressure ulcer

A

debridement

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50
Q

Dagger bone

A

Sternum

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51
Q

Vertebral landmark of xiphoid process

A

T10

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52
Q

Vertebral landmark of superior border of scapula

A

T1

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53
Q

Vertebral landmark of inferior angle of scapula

A

T7

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53
Q

True ribs

A

1st seven pairs

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54
Q

False ribs

A

8
9
10

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55
Q

Floating ribs

A

11
12

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56
Q

How are the true ribs attached to the sternum?

A

Through costal cartilages

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57
Q

Atypical rib

A

1st rib

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58
Q

shape of typical ribs

A

Superior: round
Inferior: sharp and thin

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59
Q

Cause of thoracic outlet syndrome

A

impingement of the 1st cervical rib or pressure over the subclavian artery

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60
Q

these provides attachment from ribs to the sternum

A

Costal cartilages

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61
Q

this action of the ribs increases the antero-posterior diameter of the ribs

A

Pump-handle (up and down action)

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62
Q

Ribs that do pump-handle

A

1-6

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63
Q

this action of the ribs increases the lateral diameter of the ribs

A

Bucket-handle

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64
Q

Ribs that do bucket-handle

A

7-10

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65
Q

this action of the ribs does not increase the diameter

A

Caliper motion

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66
Q

ribs that do the caliper motion

A

11-12

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67
Q

Inflammation of the costal cartillages

A

Costochondritis/Tietze’s syndrome

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68
Q

posterior boundary of the thoracic outlet

A

T1 vertebra

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69
Q

lateral boundary of the thoracic outlet

A

medial border of the first rib and costal cartilage

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70
Q

anterior boundary of the thoracic outlet

A

superior border of the manubrium

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71
Q

tent-shaped fibrous sheet on the upper part of the lungs

A

Suprapleural membrane

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72
Q

Where does the suprapleural membrane attach to?

A

laterally to the medial border of the 1st rib and costal cartilage

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73
Q

Function of the suprapleural membrane

A

protects the cervical pleura
helps resist changes in intrathoracic pressure

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74
Q

where is the heart located?

A

in the mediastinum

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75
Q

What is the orientation of the heart?

A

Oriented to the left with the right side more anterior

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76
Q

Outside covering of the heart

A

epicardium

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77
Q

heart muscle

A

myocardium

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78
Q

Innermost covering of the heart

A

Endocardium

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79
Q

Area where the heartbeat can be heart the loudest

A

Point of Maximal Impulse/Apex/LV

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80
Q

Borders of the heart

A

Right: RA, SVC, IVC
Inferior: LV, RV
Left: LV, L auricle
Superior: RA, LA, R auricles

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81
Q

only vein that carries oxygenated blood

A

Pulmonary vein

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82
Q

Only artery that carries deoxygenated blood

A

Pulmonary artery

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83
Q

Groove between the RA and right auricle

A

Sulcus terminalis

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84
Q

Ridge inside the sulcus terminalis

A

Crista terminalis

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85
Q

This roughens the RA

A

Musculi pectinati

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86
Q

This is a vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the upper half of the body

A

Superior Vena Cava

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87
Q

This is a vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower half of the body

A

Inferior Vena Cava

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88
Q

This vein drains blood from the heart wall

A

Coronary sinus

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89
Q

Where is the coronary sinus located?

A

Inside the RA between IVC and and AV auricle

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90
Q

It is the junction where the RV forms as a funnel

A

Infundibulum

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91
Q

This part of the heart is the ridge to the RV and makes the heart look like a sponge

A

Trabeculae Carneae

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92
Q

What does the trabeculae carneae do?

A

Increase contractility
Aid in blood flow

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93
Q

Heart strings

A

Chordae Tendineae

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94
Q

Functions of the chordae tendineae

A

prevent inversion or prolapse of valves

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95
Q

How thick is the LV?

A

3x thicker than the RV because it pumps blood to the system

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96
Q

How high is the intraventricular pressure in LV?

A

6 times than RV

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97
Q

Papillary muscles in the RV

A

Anterior
Posterior
Septal

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98
Q

largest and most prominent papillary muscle in the RV

A

anterior

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99
Q

smallest papillary muscle in the RV

A

septal

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100
Q

Papillary muscles in the LV

A

anterior
posterior

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101
Q

Primary pacemaker of the heart

A

SA node

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102
Q

range of HR when the SA node is active

A

60-100 bpm

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103
Q

What does the SA node do?

A

Controls the beating of the heart and initiates depolarization

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104
Q

This node is the passageway of signals

A

AV node

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105
Q

another name for AV node

A

Junctional node

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106
Q

most common site of heart block

A

AV node

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107
Q

This is when the heart cannot contract properly due to the poor signals

A

Heart block

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108
Q

Another name for AV bundle

A

Bundle of His

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109
Q

Location of the bundle of his

A

IV septum

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110
Q

What nerve group supplies the cardiac plexus?

A

Autonomic Nervous System

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111
Q

What is the nerve supply of the cervical and upper thoracic portion of the trunk

A

Sympathetic

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112
Q

Large veins of the thorax

A

Brachiocephalic
SVC
Azygos
IVC
Pulmonary

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113
Q

Large arteries of the thorax

A

Ascending aorta
Arch of the aorta
Descending Thoracic Aorta
Pulmonic artery

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114
Q

Branches of the arch of aorta

A

Brachiocephalic
L Common Carotid
L subclavian
Descending aorta

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115
Q

Branches of the brachiocephalic artery

A

R Common Carotid
R Subclavian

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116
Q

Branches of the R Common Carotid artery

A

R Ext. Carotid
R Int. Carotid

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117
Q

Branches of the R Subclavian

A

Axillary artery
Vertebral artery

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118
Q

Branch of the axillary artery

A

Brachial artery

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119
Q

Branches of the brachial artery

A

Radial artery
Ulnar artery

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120
Q

Branch of the Vertebral artery

A

Basilar artery

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121
Q

Branch of the Basilar artery

A

PCA

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122
Q

Branches of the descending aorta

A

Posterior intercostal artery
Subcostal artery
Thoracic aorta

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123
Q

Branches of the thoracic aorta

A

Abdominal aorta
Common Iliac artery

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124
Q

Branches of the Common Iliac artery

A

External Iliac artery
Interna Iliac artery

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125
Q

Branch of the Internal Iliac artery

A

Lumbosacral plexus

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126
Q

Branch of the External Iliac Artery

A

Femoral artery

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127
Q

Branch of the Femoral artery

A

Popliteal artery

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128
Q

Branches of the Popliteal artery

A

Anterior Tibial artery
Posterior Tibial Artery

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129
Q

Primary muscle for respiration

A

Diaphragm

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130
Q

Shape of the diaphragm

A

Dome-shaped

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131
Q

What happens to the diaphragm during inspiration?

A

Flattens

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132
Q

What happens to the diaphragm during expiration?

A

Recoils back to dome shape

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133
Q

Innervation of the diaphragm

A

C3, C5, and branch of the phrenic nerve

134
Q

3 parts of the diaphragm

A

Sternal
Costal
Vertebral

135
Q

This part of the diaphragm that arises from the posterior surface of the xiphoid process

A

Sternal

136
Q

This part of the diaphragm that arises from the deep surfaces of the lower six ribs and their costal cartilages

A

Costal

137
Q

This part of the diaphragm that arises from the vertebral columns or crura and from the arcuate ligaments of the spine

A

Vertebral

138
Q

location of the domes of the diaphragm

A

Right: reaches the upper border of the 5th rib
Left: reaches the lower border of the 5th rib

139
Q

Openings of the diaphragm

A

Aortic
Esophageal
Caval

140
Q

How does the Serratus Posterior Superior help in respiration?

A

It elevates the ribs, helping during inspiration

141
Q

How does the Serratus Posterior Inferior help in respiration?

A

It depresses the ribs, helping during expiration

142
Q

Primary muscle of inspiration

A

Diaphragm

143
Q

Accessory muscles of inspiration

A

Scalenes (A, M, P)
SCM
Pec Major and Minor
Serratus Anterior
Lats Dorsi

144
Q

Primary muscles of expiration

A

None; passive recoil of the lungs

145
Q

Accessory muscles of expiration

A

Internal Intercostals
Abdominals
Transversus Thoracis

146
Q

A thin layer of tissue that covers the lungs and lines the inside wall of the chest cavity

A

Pleura

147
Q

Covering of the lungs that is sensitive to stretch

A

Visceral pleura

148
Q

Innervation of the pulmonary plexus

A

ANS

149
Q

Membrane that covers the thoracic wall that is sensitive to pain and pressure

A

Parietal pleura

150
Q

A slit-like space that separates both pleura

A

Pleural cavity

151
Q

Divisions of the parietal pleura

A

Costal
Mediastinal
Diaphragmatic

152
Q

This division of the pleura that lines the ICS, costal cartilages, and inner surfaces of all ribs

A

Costal pleura

153
Q

This division of the pleura that covers and forms the lateral boundary of the mediastinum

A

Mediastinal pleura

154
Q

Innervation of the mediastinal pleura

A

Phrenic nerve

155
Q

This division of the pleura that covers the thoracic surface of the diaphragm

A

Diaphragmatic pleura

156
Q

what innervates the R & L domes of the lungs

A

Phrenic nerve

157
Q

Mobile cartilaginous pipe that serves as the passageway for air

A

Trachea

158
Q

Another name for trachea

A

Windpipe

159
Q

Where does the trachea start?

A

neck as continuation of the larynx

160
Q

Where does the trachea end?

A

below the carina by dividing into the right and left principal bronchus

161
Q

Blood supply of the trachea

A

Upper 2/3: Inferior thyroid arteries
Lower 1/3: Bronchial arteries

162
Q

Nerve supply of the trachea

A

R and L Vagus nerve
Recurrent Pharyngeal nerves

163
Q

Distinguishing feature of the R Principal Bronchus

A

wider and shorter
more vertical
1 in long

164
Q

What happens during aspiration?

A

The food goes into the bronchus instead of esophagus

165
Q

Most common site of aspiration

A

R principal bronchus

166
Q

Distinguishing feature of the L Principal Bronchus

A

Narrower and longer
More horizontal
2 in long

167
Q

Shape of the bronchopulmonary segment

A

Pyramid shape with its apex toward the lung root

168
Q

The bronchopulmonary segment contains the

A

Segmental brocbus
Segmental artery
Lymph vessels
Autonomic nerves

169
Q

Where are the segmental veins located?

A

Lies in the connective tissue between adjacent bronchopulmonary segments

170
Q

What does the segmental veins do?

A

Carry deoxygenated blood towards the SVC

171
Q

Lobes and divisions of the R Lung

A

Superior lobe: Apical, posterior, anterior
Middle lobe: Lateral, medial
Inferior lobe: Superior (apical), medial basal, anterior basal, lateral basal, posterior basal

172
Q

Lobes and divisions of the L lung

A

Superior lobe: Apical, posterior, anterior, superior lingular, inferior lingular
Inferior lobe: Superior (apical), medial basal, anterior basal, lateral basal, posterior basal

173
Q

Anterior border that is thin and overlaps the heart and provides space for your heart

A

Cardiac notch

174
Q

Where can the cariac notch be found?

A

Left lung

175
Q

A depression in which the bronchi, vessels, and nerves that form and the root enter and leave the lung

A

Hilum

176
Q

Total Lung Capacity

A

6,000 mL

177
Q

Vital Capacity

A

4,500 mL

178
Q

Residual Volume

A

1,500 mL

179
Q

Inspiratory Capacity

A

3,500 mL

180
Q

Functional Residual Capacity

A

2,500 mL

181
Q

Inspiratory Reserve Volume

A

3,000 mL

182
Q

Tidal Volume

A

500 mL

183
Q

Expiratory Reserve Volume

A

1,000 mL

184
Q

Functions of the digestive system

A

Ingestion
Secretion
Mixing and propulsion of food
Digestive breakdown of food

185
Q

Digestion via movement of digestive organs

A

Mechanical digestion

186
Q

Digestion via chemical enzymes

A

Chemical digestion

187
Q

A tube through which food pass and where digestion and absorption occur

A

GI tract

188
Q

GI tract is composed of

A

Mouth
Pharynx
Esophagus
Small intestine
Large intestine

189
Q

Organs that help in digestion but through which food never passes through

A

Accessory organs

190
Q

Accessory organs compose of

A

Teeth
Tongue
Salivary glands
Liver
Gallbladder
Pancreas

191
Q

Layers of the GI wall

A

Mucosa
Submucosa
Muscularis
Serosa

192
Q

Innermost layer of the GI wall

A

Mucosa

193
Q

3 divisions of the Mucosa

A

Epithelium
Lamina Propria
Muscularis Mucosae

194
Q

Division of the mucosa that is in direct contact with the contents of GIT

A

Epithelium

195
Q

Type of epithelium that lines the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, and anal canal

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

196
Q

Type of epithelium that lines the stomach and intestines

A

Simple columnar epithelium

197
Q

located in epithelial cells that secrete mucus

A

Exocrine cells

198
Q

located in epithelial cells that secretes hormones

A

Endocrine cells

199
Q

Division of epithelium that is thin and flat

A

Lamina propria

200
Q

What is found below the lamina propria

A

Areolar connective tissue

201
Q

What does the areolar connective tissue contain?

A

Blood and lymphatic vessels

202
Q

Division of the epithelium that is a thin layer of smooth muscle

A

Muscularis Mucosae

203
Q

Function of muscularis mucosae

A

throws muscle membrane of the stomach and small intestines into many small folds

204
Q

Layer of the GI wall that binds muscosa to the muscularis

A

Submucosa

205
Q

Layer of the GI wall that is smooth muscle in most of the GIT and connected to the mucosa by the submucosa

A

Muscularis

206
Q

Shape of the inner layer of the muscularis

A

Circular

207
Q

Shape of the outer layer of the muscularis

A

Longitudinal

208
Q

What is the mouth and esophagus used for in digestion?

A

Swallowing

209
Q

What is the external anal sphincter used for in digestion?

A

voluntary defecation

210
Q

This is the process of breaking down of food through involuntary muscle contraction mixing it with digestive secretions to propel the food along the tract

A

Peristalsis

211
Q

Most superficial layer of the GIT and abdominal cavity

A

Serosa

212
Q

What does the serosa form?

A

Extension of greater omentum and mesentery

213
Q

Apron-like fold of the visceral peritoneum which prevents the parietal
and visceral peritoneum of abdominal
cavity from adhering to each other

A

Greater Omentum

214
Q

Attaches the intestines to the
posterior abdominal wall and is formed
by a double fold of peritoneum

A

Mesentery

215
Q

What forms the mouth?

A

Cheeks and tongue

216
Q

Anterior portion of the mouth

A

Hard palate

217
Q

Posterior portion of the moth

A

Soft palate

218
Q

What forms the anterior portion of mouth?

A

Maxilla and palatine bones

219
Q

U-shape

A

Uvula

220
Q

Accessory organ that maneuvers food for chewing

A

Tongue

221
Q

Where are the lingual tonsils found?

A

Base of the tongue

222
Q

What are the three pairs of major salivary glands?

A

Parotid
Submandibular
Sublingual

223
Q

largest pair of salivary glands

A

Parotid

224
Q

location of parotid salivary glands

A

Inferior and anterior to the ears

225
Q

Major salivary glands located at the floor of the mouth

A

Submandibular

226
Q

exact or specific location of the submandibular salivary glands

A

medial and inferior to the mandible

227
Q

Location of the sublingual salivary glands

A

Inferior to the tongue and superior the submandibular glands

228
Q

Composition of saliva

A

99.5% water
0.5% salivary amylase, mucus, and other solutes

229
Q

Types of protein secreted by the saliva

A

Serous secretion
Mucus secretion

230
Q

Enzyme digesting starch secretion

A

Serous secretions

231
Q

Protein secreted by saliva that gives moisture and binding

A

Mucus secretions

232
Q

enzyme responsible for digesting starch

A

Salivary amylase

233
Q

Enzyme responsible for forming bolus

A

Mucin

234
Q

What does the Sympathetic nervous system do in salivary production?

A

increase production of saliva

235
Q

What does the Parasympathetic nervous system do in salivary production

A

decrease production of saliva

236
Q

Normal salivary production per day

A

1000-1500 mL

237
Q

Accessory organs found in the bony sockets of mandible and maxillary

A

Teeth

238
Q

External regions of the teeth

A

Crown
Root
Neck

239
Q

External regions of the teeth found above the gums

A

Crown

240
Q

External regions of the teeth embedded in the socket

A

Root

241
Q

External regions of the teeth found between the crown and the root

A

neck

242
Q

3 layers of material of the teeth

A

Enamel
Dentin
Pulp cavity

243
Q

Layer of the material of the teeth which is the hardest substance in the body

A

Enamel

244
Q

Where can the enamel be found?

A

Usually above the crown

245
Q

Layer of the material of the teeth which is situated majority inferior to the tooth

A

Dentin

246
Q

Layer of the material of the teeth which contains nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatics

A

Pulp cavity

247
Q

2 sets of human teeth

A

Deciduous
Permanent

248
Q

How many deciduous teeth are there?

A

20

249
Q

How many permanent teeth are there?

A

32

250
Q

When are deciduous teeth replaced by permanent teeth?

A

6-12 y/o

251
Q

A type of teeth used to cut food

A

Incisor

252
Q

A type of teeth used to tear food

A

Cuspids (canines)

253
Q

A type of teeth used for crushing and grinding food

A

Premolars

254
Q

A type of teeth with the same function as premolars but is more abundant

A

Molars

255
Q

Number of incisors

A

8; 4 on each side

256
Q

Number of cuspids, canines

A

4; 2 on each side

257
Q

Number of premolars

A

8; 4 on each side

258
Q

Number of molars

A

12; 6 on each side

259
Q

Food mixed with saliva

A

bolus

260
Q

What happens during chemical digestion?

A

Salivary amylase breaks down polysaccharides and broken down into mastose and larger fragments

261
Q

How long does chemical digestion last?

A

Continues in the stomach for about an hour until acid inactivates amylase

262
Q

Stages of swallowing

A

Voluntary
Pharyngeal
Esophageal

263
Q

What happens in voluntary stage of swallowing?

A

Passageway of bolus to oropharynx
Receptors in pharynx stimulate deglutition center in the lower pons and medulla oblongata

264
Q

What happens pharyngeal stage?

A

Movement of bolus from oropharynx to esophagus
Soft palate moves up and epiglottis moves down to prevent aspiration

265
Q

Fastest stage of swallowing

A

Pharyngeal stage

266
Q

What happens during Esophageal stage?

A

Passage of food to your stomach by Peristalsis

267
Q

Funnel-shaped tube that extends from
internal nares to esophagus

A

Pharynx

268
Q

Divisions of the pharynx

A

Nasopharynx
Oropharynx
Laryngopharynx

269
Q

Divisions with functions for both digestive and respiratory

A

Oropharynx and Laryngopharynx

270
Q

Collapsible muscular tube that is located posteriorly in the trachea

A

Esophagus

271
Q

Length of the esophagus

A

25 cm (10 in)

272
Q

Voluntary esophageal sphincter that controls entry of food from oropharynx to esophagus and is voluntary

A

Upper Esophageal Sphincter (UES)

273
Q

Esophageal sphincter responsible for the entry of food to your stomach

A

Lower Esophageal Sphincter

274
Q

What happens when there is an affectation of LES?

A

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease

275
Q

J-shaped enlargement of the GIT

A

Stomach

276
Q

Function of the stomach

A

Mixing chamber and holding reservoir

277
Q

How much food can the stomach accomodate?

A

4 L

278
Q

4 regions of the stomach

A

Cordia
Fundus
Body
Pylorus

279
Q

Region of the stomach that surrounds the upper opening of the stomach

A

Cordia

280
Q

Location of fundus

A

Superior and to the left of cordia

281
Q

The large central region of the stomach

A

Body

282
Q

Lower part of the stomach leading to the duodenum

A

Pylorus

283
Q

Last passageway of the stomach; connects pylorus to duodenum

A

Pyloric sphincter

284
Q

First part of the small intestine

A

Duodenum

285
Q

This is formed when food in the stomach mixes with gastric juices

A

Chyme

286
Q

Acid responsible in forming Chyme

A

Hydrochloric acid

287
Q

Enzyme responsible for digesting protein

A

Pepsin

288
Q

Enzyme responsible for digestion of fat or triglycerides

A

Gastric lipase

289
Q

What is the orientation of the pylorus?

A

Facing to the right

290
Q

Folds in the stomach

A

Rugae

291
Q

Layer of the stomach wall containing gastric glands lining the gastric pits

A

Mucosa

292
Q

Layer of the stomach wall that are divided into 2 tubular glands

A

Secretory cells

293
Q

Shape of the outer layer of the muscularis in the stomach wall

A

Longitudinal

294
Q

Shape of the middle layer of the muscularis in the stomach wall

A

Circular

295
Q

Shape of the inner layer of the muscularis in the stomach wall

A

Oblique

296
Q

Outermost layer of the stomach wall

A

Serous membrane

297
Q

Extensions of the serous membrane of the stomach

A

Greater Omentum
Mesentery

298
Q

location of the Pancreas

A

behind the stomach
Head: nearer to stomach or duodenum
Tail: nearer to the body of the stomach

299
Q

Largest internal organ

A

Liver

300
Q

Location of liver

A

RUQ below diaphragm

301
Q

Bile production and pathway

A

Bile canaliculi
Bile ducts
Hepatic duct
Gall bladder
Cystic duct
Common bile duct
Duodenum

302
Q

What cells produce bile?

A

Hepatocytes (liver cells)

303
Q

Functional unit of the liver

A

Lobule

304
Q

Functions of Bile

A

Emulsification
Absorption of fats

305
Q

Liver functions

A

Carbs metabolism
Lipid metabolism
Protein metabolism
Excretion of bilirubin
Stores vit ADEK and minerals
Activates vit D

306
Q

Length of SI

A

10 ft long

307
Q

Length of jejunum

A

3 ft

308
Q

Length of Ileum

A

up to 6 ft long

309
Q

Structures of the large intestine

A

Cecum
Colon
Rectum
Anal canal

310
Q

Where is the appendix located?

A

RLQ

311
Q

Lactose is formed by

A

Glucose + galactose

312
Q

Maltose is formed by

A

Glucose + glucose

313
Q

Sucrose is formed by

A

Glucose + fructose

314
Q

Muscle/s that open the mouth

A

External/Lateral pterygoid

315
Q

Function of duodenum

A

Neutralizes acid in food

316
Q

Function of jejunum

A

Absorbs water, protein and nutrients

317
Q

Function of ileum

A

Absorbs bile and intrinsic factor

318
Q

What can be found in the LLQ

A

Descending colon

319
Q

What can be found in the RUQ

A

Gall bladder
Liver
Head of pancreas

320
Q

What can be found at the RLQ

A

Appendix

321
Q

What can be found at the LUQ?

A

Stomach
Tail of pancreas
Spleen

322
Q

What do you call the pain on LUQ accompanied by shoulder pain

A

Kehr’s sign

323
Q

Organs of the urinary system

A

Kidneys
Ureters
Urinary bladder
Urethra

324
Q

Location of the kidneys

A

At the level T12 to L3

325
Q

What kidney is higher?

A

Left

326
Q

Coverings of the kidney

A

Renal capsule
Adipose capsule

327
Q

Triangular regions of tissue inside the renal medulla

A

Medullary pyramids

328
Q

Extensions of cortex-like material inward

A

Renal columns

329
Q

Cup-shaped structures that funnel urine towards the renal pelvis

A

Calyces

330
Q

Functional units of kidneys

A

Nephrons

331
Q

How much of resting CO goes to the kidneys

A

20-25%

332
Q
A

2nd ME (2 decks)

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