G.O.'s and HPM's

Question 1

What are the 5 Participative Management Philosophies (CLOPP)?

Answer 1

1. Command Accountability
2. Leadership and Innovation
3. Organizational Development
4. Personnel Development
5. Public Responsibility

Question 2

Through participative management and planning philosophies, the Department promotes what at each command level (RAD)?

Answer 2

1. Responsibility
2. Accountability
3. Decision making

Question 3

When shall a commander leave an itinerary?

Answer 3

1. Away during duty hours, and…

2. Not in radio contact, or available by phone.

Question 4

What are the CHP’s Professional Values?

Answer 4

Courage
Honesty
Professionalism

Principles
Respect
Integrity
Determination
Esprit de Corps

Question 5

Who has final discretion in assigning an OIC to supervise uniformed admin. employees (i.e. Vehicle Theft Task Force, Air Ops)?

Answer 5

Division Commander

Question 6

When planning a freeway memorial dedication, within HOW MANY DAYS (minimum) shall the Area Commander send an operations plan, and to whom?

Answer 6

1. 30 days minimum, to…

2. Division Commander

Question 7

When shall supervisors refuse to accept subpoenas for employees?

Answer 7

1. When they are last minute, and…

2. The employee is off-duty; unless the employee has received prior notice

Question 8

Under what circumstances would a commander override a supervisors refusal to accept a last minute subpoena?

Answer 8

1. If the employee’s attendance is deemed critical, and…

2. There’s a belief the employee can be reached

Question 9

While driving a PV, when are employees exempt from paying toll?

Answer 9

1. Responding to/returning from urgent or emergency call
2. Engaged in urgent or emergency response
3. Response directly related to emergency response

Question 10

When driving a State Vehicle, when are employees required to stop and pay toll?

Answer 10

1. When the vehicle is not equipped with a FasTrack, or…

2. The plates are not included in a license plate tolling system.

Question 11

If an employee on State business, but driving their personal vehicle, wishes to dispute toll payment, what shall they do?

Answer 11

Submit a memo concerning the incident to the Commander, who will then forward it to Division

Question 12

If an employee on State business, but driving their personal vehicle, seeks reimbursement for toll payment, what shall they do?

Answer 12

Sumbit a Travel Claim

Question 13

CHP enforcement efforts must be consistent with what?

Answer 13

CHP Organizational Values (R.E.E.F.)

Question 14

ATS 415’s (A415’s) shall not include what (in regards to violators/contacts)?

Answer 14

1. Name
2. Address
3. SSN
4. Or any other unique personal identifying info

Question 15

When a train needs to be stopped, what shall the employee notify dispatch of?

Answer 15

1. Name of railroad
2. Nature of problem
3. Location

Question 16

When an owner of dead livestock can’t be located or notified, and it’s necessary for an employee to store/confine a carcass, who shall immediately be notified?

Answer 16

Secretary of Food and Agriculture

Question 17

In reference to storing/confining dead livestock carcasses (when the owner can’t be notified or located), a notification to who will satisfy the notification requirement to the Secretary of Food and Agriculture?

Answer 17

Appropriate hide and brand inspector

Question 18

In reference to storing/confining dead livestock carcasses (when the owner can’t be notified or located), the employee shall direct removal to what kind of plant?

Answer 18

A reduction works plant

Question 19

Ride-a-longs SHOULD be approved for?

Answer 19

1. Non-uniformed CHP employees
2. Persons considering employment with the CHP
3. Persons currently involved in the Cadet Selection Process
4. Cadets with WRITTEN Academy approval

Question 20

Ride-a-longs MAY be approved for?

Answer 20

1. Members of the public WITH a specific need to observe CHP operations
2. Allied’s, DA’s, judges, politicians, and news media

Question 21

If a CHP employee wants to do a ride-a-long with an Allied agency while ARMED, what is required?

Answer 21

Written approval from CHP Commander FIRST

Question 22

If an Allied Agency employee wants to do a ride-a-long with CHP, what can the CHP commander require?

Answer 22

The Allied Agency employee to be in uniform

Question 23

If an officer has identified a foreseeable hazard, but they have to leave due to a higher priority call, what shall they inform the occupant of the disabled vehicle of first?

Answer 23

1. Officers shall warn the party of the foreseeable hazards

2. Inform them of precautions to lessen their exposure to those hazards

Question 24

In regards to the reporting of highway conditions, Department personnel shall only report what?

Answer 24

1. Existing hazards, or…

2. Potentially hazardous conditions

Question 25

In regards to the reporting of highway conditions, Department personnel shall not publicly comment on conditions when?

Answer 25

Proper analysis would require expertise in highway design and/or maintenance

Question 26

Officers may be required to double up during 0600 hours to 2200 hours under what circumstances (TIO)?

Answer 26

1. Officer safety 2. Training or field orientation 3. Insufficient patrol vehicles

Question 27

Who's approval is required before officers can patrol solo between the hours of 2200 hours to 2400 hours and 0400 hours to 0600 hours?

Answer 27

Division Commander

Question 28

The MVARS policy is to be adhered to by who?

Answer 28

All sworn employees who operate enforcement vehicles equipped with MVARS.

Question 29

MVARS shall be powered on at all times during shift, except when?

Answer 29

In battery life preservation mode

Question 30

What 5 enforcement actions and activities shall be recorded on MVARS in their entirety (PEE-DV)?

Answer 30

1. Pursuits 2. Enforcement contacts; including peds on freeway 3. Emergency response (Code-3) 4. Disabled motorists 5. Vehicle searches (not inventories)

Question 31

While operating MVARS, what 5 things can employees do in REVIEW mode (PRPR-V)?

Answer 31

1. Pause live footage 2. Record 3. Playback 4. Rewind 5. View at a later time

Question 32

While operating MVARS, when is the ability to "review" terminated?

Answer 32

When the disc is ejected

Question 33

While operating MVARS, when it becomes necessary to review RECORDED password protected material, what is required?

Answer 33

Supervisor password

Question 34

Who's approval is required to view "buffer" time between events in the video review, or to burn loop contents via the "define new event" function?

Answer 34

Commissioner

Question 35

In regards to MVARS, when Commissioner approval has been obtained to view "buffer" time or burn loop contents, and the administrative password has been obtained, and the the desired contents have been burned to a DVD, what shall be documented and where shall it be documented?

Answer 35

1. The name and date the recording was obtained from the MVARS unit 2. Documented in the chronological summary portion of the administrative or criminal investigation

Question 36

When a MVARS unit malfunction is observed during PRE-SHIFT check, what shall happen?

Answer 36

1. The OIC/Supervisor shall be notified | 2. The employee shall make a good faith effort to troubleshoot the problem

Question 37

When a MVARS unit malfunction is observed during PRE-SHIFT check, and the employee is unable to correct the problem, what shall happen?

Answer 37

The employee shall choose a DIFFERENT patrol vehicle.

Question 38

When a MVARS unit malfunction is observed DURING SHIFT, what shall happen?

Answer 38

1. The OIC/Supervisor shall be notified though dispatch | 2. The employee shall make an attempt to resolve a MINOR issue

Question 39

When a MVARS unit malfunction is observed DURING SHIFT, and the employee is unable to correct the problem, what shall happen?

Answer 39

The employee shall return to the office AS SOON AS PRACTICAL for a new patrol vehicle

Question 40

How long are CHP 179, MVARS Pre-Shift Checklist, retained for?

Answer 40

Minimum of 2 years

Question 41

When not directly involved, Allied Agency actions shall not be recorded via MVARS unless what?

Answer 41

Expressed permission is given by a CHP supervisor

Question 42

In regards to MVARS, when a citizen asks if the enforcement contact is being recorded, what shall employees advise them of?

Answer 42

Whether or not MVARS is in the RECORD MODE

Question 43

In regards to MVARS, what 8 threshold events can be reviewed?

Answer 43

1. Incidents where employees are severely injured or killed during duties. 2. Use of force by employee, including canine, resulting in death or severe injury to suspect or bystander. 3. In-custody death. 4. PV T/C resulting in severe injury or death (not to employee) when liability appears to be that of CHP. 5. Pursuits. 6. Intentional/accidental discharge of firearm. 7. Intentional/accidental discharge of CEW. 8. Incident generating CHP 268 or STD 270 due to severe injury to anyone.

Question 44

In regards to MVARS, when can non-threshold events be reviewed?

Answer 44

1. Employee responsible for MVARS recording voluntarily agrees. 2. Prior to release of recording outside of CHP for legal request. 3. To prove/disprove specific allegations of misconduct.

Question 45

Who's approval is required to review an MVARS event not covered under policy?

Answer 45

1. Division Commander, with... | 2. Notification to OER

Question 46

During review of MVARS, if a supervisor discovers misconduct NOT rising to the level of AA, what shall happen?

Answer 46

1. Use as training opportunity | 2. Verbally counsel employee

Question 47

During review of MVARS, if a supervisor discovers misconduct NOT rising to the level of AA, BUT the employee has PRIORS, what shall happen?

Answer 47

Provide the employee with written documentation (CHP 100 form)

Question 48

Upon request, an employee entitled to review their MVARS recordings prior to what 6 things?

Answer 48

1. Preparation of written documentation requested or required by the CHP. 2. Preparation of written documentation related to Informal Dispute Resolution. 3. Preparation for administrative interrogations/interviews. 4. Preparation for civil depositions arising from duties. 5. Preparation for testimony in civil/criminal proceedings arising from duties. 6. When an Allied Agency is conducting a criminal misconduct investigation.

Question 49

When is no fee charged for a copy of a MVARS DVD?

Answer 49

Produced for... 1. Criminal subpoena deuces tecum, or... 2. Criminal discovery order

Question 50

When is a fee charged for a copy of a MVARS DVD?

Answer 50

Produced for... 1. Civil subpoena deuces tecum, or... 2. Civil discovery order

Question 51

When a driver is in violation of 12951(a) VC (DL NIP), what shall the officer do?

Answer 51

1. Confirm the DL status through CLETS/NLETS | 2. Take appropriate action if the driver is AWARE of confirmed CLETS/NLETS return.

Question 52

Upon issuing a CHP 215 for 12951(a) VC and subsequently finding out a driver was actually 12500(a) VC, what should the officer do?

Answer 52

Upgrade the CHP 215 to the appropriate section through the established complaint process.

Question 53

Requests for emergency transport are to be screened for what?

Answer 53

1. Validity | 2. Urgency

Question 54

If a request for emergency transport is deemed non-emergency, what shall happen?

Answer 54

The requestor shall be advised and assisted with finding an alternative

Question 55

When officers are engaged in an emergency transport, what shall they be advised of?

Answer 55

The degree of urgency

Question 56

When an emergency transport requires a relay into other Areas, who is responsible for coordinating the relay?

Answer 56

The originating command

Question 57

Can an emergency transport relay from another Area be declined?

Answer 57

No

Question 58

When involved in an emergency transport relay, who shall determine if emergency lights and siren are to be used?

Answer 58

The command accepting the relay

Question 59

Commanders may authorize emergency transport or escorts to continue into adjacent Areas WITHOUT relay when?

Answer 59

1. Units in adjacent Area are unavailable or delayed. 2. Circumstances exist where a relay delay may be life-threatening or excessive. 3. A relay would be inappropriate due to destination proximity. 4. The adjacent Area is notified of the emergency transport or escort.

Question 60

Who is authorized to prepare Special Alert Bulletins?

Answer 60

Threat Assessment Unit (TAU)

Question 61

Are Special Alert Bulletins for public disclosure?

Answer 61

No, they shall be considered sensitive and confidential in nature.

Question 62

When would TAU prepare a Special Alert Bulletin?

Answer 62

When they have identified an individual who may pose a threat to a state official, staff member, or state facility, or has the potential to physically approach an official or staff in an inappropriate manner.

Question 63

Who is authorized to prepare Wanted Bulletins?

Answer 63

Local Area personnel

Question 64

Are Wanted Bulletins for public disclosure?

Answer 64

Yes, they can be.

Question 65

WHO can Wanted Bulletins be distributed to?

Answer 65

1. Allied Agencies, and... | 2. The public, to solicit assistance in locating the person and/or vehicles

Question 66

Who's approval is required to disseminate a Wanted Bulletin?

Answer 66

Area Commander

Question 67

WHY would a local Area prepare and distribute a Wanted Bulletin?

Answer 67

1. They need assistance in developing information regarding a wanted individual 2. An arrest warrant has been issued or a wanted vehicle is still outstanding.

Question 68

In regards to reporting unusual occurrences, who is responsible for making Legislative Notifications?

Answer 68

The appropriate AC will notify the Office of Special Representative.

Question 69

In regards to reporting unusual occurrences, what considerations shall be made if an UNLISTED event is notification worthy?

Answer 69

1. Does occurrence reflect favorably or unfavorably on the CHP? 2. Does occurrence require administrative action at HQ or direction by Executive Management? 3. Does magnitude of incident necessitate the dissemination of information to Allied Agencies, gov't organizations, or media?

Question 70

When serving a search/arrest warrant that requires building entry, who's approval is required?

Answer 70

Division Commander

Question 71

Who's approval is needed to serve search/arrest warrants at the Area level?

Answer 71

1. Area Commander, with... | 2. Division Commander's concurrence

Question 72

Prior to the service of a warrant at the Area level, what must be done?

Answer 72

A critical risk assessment

Question 73

Personnel not assigned to WST may participate in warrant service operations in what capacity?

Answer 73

1. Pre-operational planning | 2. Perimeter control

Question 74

During the service of a warrant, how many officers are required to be in the basic tan uniform?

Answer 74

1

Question 75

All WST operations consist of the following stages (P-BED)?

Answer 75

1. Pre-planning 2. Briefing 3. Execution of operation 4. Debriefing

Question 76

If these factors are found to exist during warrant service pre-planning, the operation should be considered HIGH-RISK (FAV-G)?

Answer 76

1. Location believed to be FORTIFIED. 2. ASSAULT RIFLES believed to be presented potential for use exists. 3. Subjects are known to be VIOLENT; particularly towards LE. 4. Multiple GANG MEMBERS known to be present.

Question 77

If these factors are found to exist during warrant service pre-planning, the operation shall be referred to SWAT (SHEBA-HES)?

Answer 77

1. SUICIDAL individual. 2. HOSTAGE situation. 3. Known presence of EXPLOSIVES. 4. BARRICADED and armed suspects. 5. Attempt to AMBUSH. 6. Chemical HAZARD threat. 7. Para-military EXTREMIST group. 8. Presence of SNIPER(S).

Question 78

WST team leaders shall notify the Area Commander and Comm-Center of what prior to serving a warrant?

Answer 78

1. Date 2. Time 3. Location **Of the warrant service operation

Question 79

When an Allied Agency request the use of local Area personnel to assist with a warrant operation, in what capacity shall they only be allowed to participated?

Answer 79

Outside perimeter containment

Question 80

What are the legal requirements to meet the provisions of "Knock and Notice"?

Answer 80

1. Knock and give notice of presence. 2. Identify as police officers. 3. Explain purpose. 4. Demand entry and wait a REASONABLE amount of time (30 sec. is generally sufficient). 5. Explicit refusal to comply.

Question 81

When is "Knock and Notice" NOT REQUIRED?

Answer 81

When exigent circumstances exist

Question 82

Exigent circumstances = emergency situations requiring swift action to prevent what 3 things?

Answer 82

1. Serious injury or loss of life (officer and/or public). 2. Serious damage to property. 3. Destruction of evidence or property. Escape of suspect(s).

Question 83

When is forcible entry legal during the service of a warrant?

Answer 83

AFTER admittance has been REFUSED

Question 84

What KIND of warrant is required to forcibly enter an unoccupied structure?

Answer 84

A search warrant

Question 85

Service of warrants in a timely manner is required to maintain the suspect(s) right to what?

Answer 85

1. Due process (14th Amendment). | 2. Speedy Trial (6th Amendment).

Question 86

In order to be considered legally valid, a warrant must be served and returned to the court within how many days?

Answer 86

10

Question 87

During MEP's, what are patrol units primarily focused on (PIO-P)?

Answer 87

1. PCF violations 2. Impaired driver's 3. Occupant restraints 4. Prompt response to 11-25's

Question 88

During MEP's, what are the staffing requirements for commands on 10-hour, 9-hour, and 8-hour shifts?

Answer 88

1. 80% egress/ingress days | 2. 70% days in between

Question 89

On what holidays is MEP reporting required and what are the associated enforcement actions (DOS-DOS)?

Answer 89

1. New Year's Day - DUI 2. Memorial Day Weekend - Occupant Restraints 3. Independence Day - Speed 4. Labor Day Weekend - DUI 5. Thanksgiving Weekend - Occupant Restraints 6. Christmas Day - Speed

Question 90

For the New Year's Day MEP report spanning the change in the new year (12/31 to 1/1), what information is required to be included?

Answer 90

1. Name, and... | 2. TIME of the collision

Question 91

Prior to the start of the MEP, Area's are required to send what to Division?

Answer 91

The name of the Area supervisor or designee who is responsible for sending the report.

Question 92

By what time shall Areas send the MEP reports?

Answer 92

0800 hours, EXCEPT on the last day, which shall be sent by 0700 hours.

Question 93

For a consent search to be lawful, what 4 requirements must be met?

Answer 93

1. Consent must be granted FREELY and VOLUNTARILY. 2. Person granting consent must have STANDING over items to be searched. 3. SCOPE or LIMITATION of search must be defined and can't be exceeded. 4. Person granting consent has the right and ability to WITHDRAW consent at ANY TIME.

Question 94

If a probation, parole, or PRCS search turns up NEGATIVE, how shall it be documented?

Answer 94

CHP 415 entry

Question 95

If a probation, parole, or PRCS search turns up POSITIVE, how shall it be documented?

Answer 95

CHP 216 or CHP 202

Question 96

If evidence or contraband is discovered during a vehicle inventory, how shall it be documented?

Answer 96

CHP 216 or CHP 202

Question 97

If illegal items are found during a CONSENT search, how shall it be documented?

Answer 97

CHP 202D, CHP 216, CHP 202

Question 98

Officers shall not REQUEST CONSENT absent what?

Answer 98

1. Reasonable suspicion, or... | 2. Probable cause

Question 99

Upon requesting CONSENT to search, if a person is UNWILLING or UNABLE to sign the CHP 202D, can a consent search still be conducted?

Answer 99

No

Question 100

What CHP form is required to be completed for all INVESTIGATORY CONSENT SEARCHES, regardless if a search was actually conducted?

Answer 100

CHP 202D

Question 101

For searches conducted INCIDENTAL TO AN ARREST, how shall they be documented?

Answer 101

Notation made in associated CHP 216 or CHP 202

Question 102

How shall patdown/frisk searches be documented?

Answer 102

CHP 415

Question 103

When a patdown/frisk search is conducted, and it is documented on the CHP 415, what information is also required to be noted?

Answer 103

1. Name 2. DL or ID # 3. Parole, probation, or PRCS 4. Dispatch log #

Question 104

When a patdown/frisk search is conducted, and it is documented on the CHP 415, but the officer fails to note the dispatch log #, what shall be completed?

Answer 104

CHP 216

Question 105

If a violator initially grants CONSENT, but then withdraws it, under what circumstance is an officer permitted to CONTINUE the search?

Answer 105

PC is developed and/or contraband is discovered PRIOR to consent being withdrawn.

Question 106

If a PC search is conducted and NO contraband is located, what shall be completed (i.e. smell marijuana, conduct search, no marijuana found)?

Answer 106

A CHP 216

Question 107

How ofter are commands required to conduct CHP 202D audits?

Answer 107

Quarterly

Question 108

Following a quarterly CHP 202D audit, HOW shall it be documented, and WHEN is it due?

Answer 108

1. A Memo of Findings | 2. Due NLT the 30th day of the month following the end of the quarter

Question 109

In regards to the Memo of Findings that is completed following a quarterly CHP 202D audit, WHAT information is required to be in it?

Answer 109

1. The TOTAL # of searches PERFORMED, and... | 2. The RATIO of POSITIVE to NEGATIVE findings during the reporting period.

Question 110

Communications with dispatch shall be via radio or MDC unless what (SEEN)?

Answer 110

1. Exigent circumstances exist, and/or poor radio reception, and radio/MDC not practical. 2. EIP tone activated and there's a necessity to communicate with dispatch. 3. Necessity exists to relate/receive confidential information. 4. Supervisor deems it necessary to speak directly to dispatcher or Comm-Center.

Question 111

What is the PRIMARY objective of officers responding to an active shooter incident?

Answer 111

Move to, confront, and STOP the active shooter(s) as quickly as possible.

Question 112

What is the SECONDARY objective of officers responding to an active shooter incident?

Answer 112

Rescue of victims and innocent bystanders, and the treatment and evacuation of injured victims.

Question 113

In regards to attendance at AI hearings, who shall they be limited to?

Answer 113

Person(s) or their agents, who have proper interest in the report.

Question 114

What shall the scope of AI hearings be limited to?

Answer 114

Clarification of report CONTENT

Question 115

Can AI hearings be recorded by persons with proper interest?

Answer 115

No

Question 116

Prior to the COMPLETION of a CHP 555, what is the only information that can be released?

Answer 116

1. Time 2. Date 3. Location 4. Make of vehicle(s) involved 5. Name(s) of vehicle occupants

Question 117

In regards to completed CHP 555's, all requests for data relating to State Highways shall be referred to who?

Answer 117

CalTrans

Question 118

In regards to completed CHP 555's, all requests for data relating to Unincorporated roadways shall be referred to who?

Answer 118

IMD

Question 119

Who may initiate a request for legal interpretation or opinion?

Answer 119

Any command level

Question 120

Can a legal interpretation or opinion request be initiated by the CHP for an agency or individual OUTSIDE of the CHP?

Answer 120

No, those requests have to be routed to the AG's office via the local DA.

Question 121

The original of all correspondence shall be signed in what color ink?

Answer 121

Blue

Question 122

Prompt replies to correspondence are due within how many days?

Answer 122

15 WORKING days

Question 123

In regards to correspondence, CHP 51WP's (Memo) shall only be used for what?

Answer 123

Correspondence BETWEEN State agencies

Question 124

In regards to correspondence, CHP Letterhead shall only be used for what?

Answer 124

Correspondence OUTSIDE of State agencies

Question 125

Correspondence to State Legislators shall be coordinated with who?

Answer 125

Office of Special Representative

Question 126

What is Category 1 correspondence?

Answer 126

CHP 51WP (Memo)

Question 127

What is Category 2 correspondence?

Answer 127

CHP Letterhead

Question 128

Departmental correspondence should be prepared in what type face, and what point size?

Answer 128

1. Times New Roman or Arial type face | 2. 12 point size

Question 129

In regards to correspondence, Attachments are used for what?

Answer 129

CHP 51WP's (Memo)

Question 130

In regards to correspondence, Enclosures are used for what?

Answer 130

CHP Letterhead

Question 131

Correspondence directed to ELECTED State officials shall be prepared on what?

Answer 131

CHP Letterhead

Question 132

In regards to correspondence, how shall the signatory's name and title be written (uppercase/lowercase)?

Answer 132

1. The signatory's name shall be in uppercase. | 2. All other words will be in lowercase, with the first letters of main words capitalized.

Question 133

In regards to correspondence, what mail carrier shall be used to send REGULAR and CERTIFIED mail?

Answer 133

United States Postal Service

Question 134

In regards to correspondence, what mail carrier may be used to send NON-TIME SENSITIVE packages?

Answer 134

1. OnTrac, or... | 2. FedEx

Question 135

In regards to correspondence, what mail carrier shall be used to send TIME SENSITIVE packages?

Answer 135

OnTrac

Question 136

Comm-Nets may be used to establish policy for up to how many days?

Answer 136

90 CALENDAR days

Question 137

How many Bargaining Unit contracts does CHP management administer?

Answer 137

12 of the 21

Question 138

Under the Dills Act, REPRESENTED employees (rank and file) have the right to be represented by their exclusive representative regarding what (WHO)?

Answer 138

1. Wages 2. Hours 3. Other terms of employment

Question 139

Under the Dills Act, EXCLUDED employees (supervisors) have the right to be represented regarding what?

Answer 139

All matters related to employment conditions and supervisory employer-employee relations.

Question 140

As far as the Department is concerned, who is covered under POBR?

Answer 140

All employees with the exception of cadets.

Question 141

What is the Weingarten rule?

Answer 141

Establishes the right of a bargaining unit employee to be assisted by a union representative at an investigatory interview to which the employee has been summoned by management, when the employee reasonably believes disciplinary action may result from the interview.

Question 142

A rep. desiring access to a work location must do what when requesting permission to use?

Answer 142

1. State the purpose | 2. Request approval from the Commander within a reasonable amount of time.

Question 143

A rep. must obtain permission from who to engage in business relating to rep. matters during working hours?

Answer 143

Their immediate supervisor

Question 144

The union (rep) may use designated bulletin boards in the office to post materials related to what (BERM)?

Answer 144

1. Notices and results of any official organization committee or meeting. 2. Notices of organization elections and their results. 3. Notices of organization recreational and social events. 4. Notices of other official organization business.

Question 145

What is the rep. required to do with material they post to bulletin boards in the Area?

Answer 145

1. Initial 2. Date 3. Provide a copy to the Commander

Question 146

If doubt exists as to the propriety of the material posted on the employee rep (union) designated bulletin board, who would be contacted?

Answer 146

OER

Question 147

When can a rep. distribute organization literature?

Answer 147

1. Before or after working hours | 2. During meal and rest periods in non-working areas

Question 148

Can state vehicles be used by employees, or reps. while participating in representational or employee organization business?

Answer 148

No

Question 149

When would a rep not have access to, or be allowed to use state telephones for conducting employee relations business?

Answer 149

1. When a fee will be incurred, or... | 2. The use of the telephone would interfere with the operation of the facility or the office

Question 150

Can the State's and the Department's internal mail system be used to distribute employee organization (rep) business?

Answer 150

No

Question 151

What shall be the Commander's primary consideration when determining whether or not approve requests for the use of release time (union time)?

Answer 151

The needs of the command

Question 152

Who has the authority to grant/deny release time (union time).

Answer 152

An employee's supervisor

Question 153

Is an employee entitled to release time (union time) when they leave the work site to meet with an organization rep. on a representational matters?

Answer 153

No

Question 154

Can EXCLUDED employees participate in the handling of grievances or meet and confer sessions on behalf on NON-EXCLUDED employees?

Answer 154

No

Question 155

Can NON-EXCLUDED employees participate in the handling of grievances or meet and confer sessions on behalf on EXCLUDED employees?

Answer 155

No

Question 156

What is considered a REASONABLE amount of release time (union time) to grant to an employee and their rep. to prepare/present a grievance/complaint?

Answer 156

4 hours

Question 157

Who has the authority to limit/extend the amount of release time (union time) granted to an employee and their rep. to prepare/present a grievance/complaint?

Answer 157

Management

Question 158

Is an employee entitled to release time (union time) when their chosen rep. has not been designated by an employee organization?

Answer 158

No

Question 159

Is an employee entitled to release time (union time) when they choose to represent themselves in a grievance/complaint?

Answer 159

No

Question 160

What does a REPRESENTED employee grievance allege?

Answer 160

A violation of the contract (MOU)

Question 161

What does a REPRESENTED employee complaint allege?

Answer 161

A violation of policy or procedures

Question 162

What does an EXCLUDED employee grievance allege?

Answer 162

A violation of statues, regulations, policies or practices.

Question 163

What are the levels of a complaint and who oversees each level?

Answer 163

- Informal Level; immediate supervisor - Level 1; Area Commander - Level 2; Division Commander - Level 3; Commissioner

Question 164

What are the level of a grievance and who oversees each level?

Answer 164

- Informal Level; immediate supervisor - Level 1; Area Commander - Level 2; Division Commander - Level 3; Office of the Commissioner - Level 4; CalHR

Question 165

What elements/information must be included when a formal grievance/complaint is submitted (ASP)?

Answer 165

1. Alleged violation - specific provision or policy violated 2. Statement of the problem 3. Proposed remedy

Question 166

When a grievance has been submitted, and the time limits have been extended upon mutual agreement of all parties, how shall it be documented?

Answer 166

1. In writing, and... | 2. Attached to the grievance and/or responses.

Question 167

When is the Department not obligated to adhere to the provisions of meet and confer?

Answer 167

In emergencies

Question 168

Proposed changes and notices related to meet and confers all be sent to who?

Answer 168

OER

Question 169

The State's Management Relations Program is comprised of what 3 groups?

Answer 169

1. Managers 2. Supervisors 3. Confidential employees

Question 170

Under the Dills Act, do managerial employees have a right to representation?

Answer 170

No

Question 171

What is specialty pay?

Answer 171

A premium pay which is paid on a monthly, rather than a daily basis.

Question 172

What are the only special pay positions?

Answer 172

1. Motorcycle 2. Pilot or flight officer 3. Bilingual 4. Investigator

Question 173

Who's approval must be obtained prior to removing an employee from a specialty pay position?

Answer 173

The appropriate AC

Question 174

If the removal from a specialty pay position is not a result of an adverse action, what documentation shall be provide to the employee?

Answer 174

Documentation advising them of the specific reason(s) for the removal.

Question 175

If a Commander decides to re-assign a specialty pay employee pending the completion of the Specialty Pay Removal File, what shall be given to the employee?

Answer 175

A memo containing the date and location of the temporary re-assignment.

Question 176

When would the removal of an employees specialty pay be processed as an adverse action?

Answer 176

In all incidents where there is an established nexus between an adverse action and a resulting loss of specialty pay.

Question 177

Absent an adverse action, what type of file is prepared to substantiate the removal of an employee's specialty pay?

Answer 177

A Special Pay Removal File

Question 178

REPRESENTED and EXCLUDED employees removed for cause from a specialty pay position WITHOUT an adverse action, may appeal the decision through what process?

Answer 178

Grievance

Question 179

Employees removed for cause from a specialty pay position WITH an adverse action, may appeal the decision through what process?

Answer 179

SPB appeal

Question 180

When is an employee's removal from a specialty pay position not appealable?

Answer 180

When its part of an operational necessity (i.e. a reduction or elimination of motorcycle or aircraft)

Question 181

Who plays the most important role in any successful substance testing program?

Answer 181

The first-line supervisor

Question 182

For the substance test to be effective, each supervisor must ensure what (DMV-C)?

Answer 182

1. Reasonable suspicion is supported by proper DOCUMENTATION. 2. The sample is properly COLLECTED. 3. The chain of custody is MAINTAINED. 4. The employee's rights are not VIOLATED.

Question 183

According to the substance testing policy, what role do managers serve?

Answer 183

They serve as the confirming official

Question 184

What elements are critical to the success of the substance testing policy (the 6 C's)?

Answer 184

1. Consistency 2. Confirmation 3. Collection of sample 4. Chain of custody 5. Control of quality 6. Contracts

Question 185

What is the 4th Amendment?

Answer 185

Search and seizure

Question 186

What is the 5th Amendment?

Answer 186

Self-incrimination

Question 187

What is the 14th Amendment?

Answer 187

Due process

Question 188

Employee's serving in what kind of positions shall be subject to substance testing when it is supported by reasonable suspicion?

Answer 188

Sensitive

Question 189

When would an employee not be subject to disciplinary action if they are asked, but refuse, to voluntarily submit to a substance abuse test?

Answer 189

When reasonable suspicion does not exist.

Question 190

What is a sensitive position?

Answer 190

Any peace officer, and any other position in which drug or alcohol affected performance could clearly endanger the health and safety of others.

Question 191

How many sensitive positions are there?

Answer 191

14

Question 192

Can employee's in non-sensitive positions be ordered to submit to substance abuse testing?

Answer 192

No

Question 193

Circumstances, observation, and/or witness statements leading to a determination of substance abuse shall be documented in what?

Answer 193

Reasonable Suspicion Report

Question 194

In regards to substance abuse testing, reasonable suspicion is the good faith belief based on what?

Answer 194

1. Specific articulable facts or evidence that an employee may have violated the substance abuse policy, and... 2. Substance testing could reveal evidence in support of a violation.

Question 195

In regards to substance abuse testing, reasonable suspicion exists only after what?

Answer 195

1. The confirming official has also considered the facts and/or evidence, and... 2. Agrees that they constitute a finding of reasonable suspicion.

Question 196

In regards to substance abuse, and non-uniformed employees, under what circumstance would a criminal arrest/investigation report be used to SUPPORT an administrative investigation?

Answer 196

When the incident described in the report resulted in a conviction.

Question 197

Can an employee be ordered to submit to a substance abuse test based solely on the receipt of an anonymous tip?

Answer 197

No

Question 198

In regards to substance abuse, what is a reliable informant; according to CalHR?

Answer 198

A peace officer who is willing to publicly testify on behalf of management.

Question 199

In regards to substance abuse, is management required to disclose to the suspected employee, the name of the reliable informant?

Answer 199

Yes. The employee is entitled to know who the informant is, what the informant said, and they must be given the opportunity to respond to this part of the determination of reasonable suspicion.

Question 200

In regards to substance abuse, what is the role of the confirming official (APE-C)?

Answer 200

1. CONSIDER the fact and/or evidence and agree whether or not they support reasonable suspicion. 2. ENSURE accurate and proper application of the rules. 3. PROVIDE guidance and direction. 4. AUTHORIZE the substance test.

Question 201

In regards to substance abuse, can the confirming official be the suspected employee's immediate supervisor or the person who made the initial observation leading to reasonable suspicion?

Answer 201

No

Question 202

In regards to substance abuse, when does the testing process begin?

Answer 202

After the confirming official has authorized a chemical test.

Question 203

In regards to substance abuse, what test is the suspected employee required to submit to if they are suspected of being a combo?

Answer 203

Both breath and urine

Question 204

In regards to substance abuse, how much urine shall be collected?

Answer 204

1. At least 60 milliliters (approximately 2 fluid ounces) | 2. Split into 2 containers

Question 205

In regards to substance abuse, within how many hours of collecting the sample shall the command make notification to the Substance Testing Coordinator at OIA?

Answer 205

48 hours

Question 206

In regards to substance abuse, how shall the Substance Testing Coordinator at OIA be notified a sample was collected?

Answer 206

1. By email or fax **The original memo shall be sent through channels

Question 207

In regards to substance abuse, upon analysis of the collected sample, who are the results communicated to?

Answer 207

MRO

Question 208

In regards to substance abuse, how long are NEGATIVE samples retained for?

Answer 208

3 weeks

Question 209

In regards to substance abuse, how long, and at what temperature, are POSITIVE samples retained for?

Answer 209

1. At least 1 year | 2. -20 degrees

Question 210

How many substance abuse kits shall be maintained at the Area office at all times?

Answer 210

2

Question 211

In regards to substance abuse, what "pay status" should the suspected employee be placed on for the remainder of the shift on the day of the test or refusal to take the test?

Answer 211

Dock

Question 212

In regards to substance abuse, how long should the suspected employee remain on "dock" status?

Answer 212

1. Until the results of the test are known, and/or... | 2. A decision is made regarding administrative action.

Question 213

In regards to substance abuse, if only alcohol is suspected, when should the employee be returned to full duty?

Answer 213

The following day, if they are completely recovered from the effects.

Question 214

In regards to substance abuse, what powers and requests are immediately suspended?

Answer 214

1. Peace officer powers | 2. Secondary employment requests

Question 215

In regards to substance abuse, upon the collection of a sample, what shall the the supervisor provide to the suspected employee?

Answer 215

A memo explaining the supervisors role and the employee's rights relative to the substance test.

Question 216

In regards to substance abuse, if the suspected employee's sample returns negative, and there is no other cause for action, they shall immediately be returned to what?

Answer 216

Full duty

Question 217

In regards to substance abuse, if the suspected employee's sample returns negative, and there is no other cause for action, their dock time on the day of the test shall be adjusted to what?

Answer 217

Paid status

Question 218

In regards to substance abuse, who makes the final determination of a test result?

Answer 218

MRO

Question 219

In regards to substance abuse, are negative test results and all other associated paperwork maintained with the suspected employees personnel folder?

Answer 219

No **Unless the employee requests otherwise.

Question 220

In regards to substance abuse, within how many hours should the employee be provided with documentation outlining the observations leading to reasonable suspicion?

Answer 220

48 hours

Question 221

In regards to substance abuse, what CHP form is used for the Reasonable Suspicion Report?

Answer 221

CHP 202X, Workplace Substance Abuse Investigation/Voluntary Testing Report

Question 222

In regards to substance abuse, upon receiving the CHP 202X (Reasonable Suspicion Report), what shall the confirming official do?

Answer 222

1. Review the report | 2. Sign the report; indicates concurrence with the determination of reasonable suspicion

Question 223

In regards to substance abuse, when shall a Reasonable Suspicion Report be completed?

Answer 223

Whenever a determination of reasonable suspicion of workplace substance abuse leads to substance testing.

Question 224

In regards to substance abuse, if a criminal investigation is conducted, does a Reasonable Suspicion Report have to be completed?

Answer 224

Yes

Question 225

In regards to substance abuse, under what circumstance would a CHP 202X, indicating negative results, be retained in the suspected employee's personnel file?

Answer 225

None

Question 226

In regards to substance abuse, is a CHP 202X required to be completed when an employee voluntarily submits to a test?

Answer 226

Yes

Question 227

In regards to substance abuse, if an employee voluntarily submits to a test, but refuses to, or is unable to, sign the CHP 202X, can a sample still be collected?

Answer 227

Yes, but a notation shall be made in the signature box.

Question 228

In regards to substance abuse, within how many hours of a qualifying collision, is a departmental commercial driver required to submit to an ALCOHOL test?

Answer 228

2 hours

Question 229

In regards to substance abuse, within how many hours of a qualifying collision, is a departmental commercial driver required to submit to a DRUG test?

Answer 229

32 hours

Question 230

Who's concurrence is required before a commander can initiate an internal investigation?

Answer 230

Division

Question 231

What are the 4 possible outcomes of an administrative investigation (RAM-N)?

Answer 231

1. Adverse Action 2. Rejection during probation 3. Miscellaneous investigation 4. Non-punitive termination

Question 232

What are the 6 possible outcomes of an Adverse Action (RIDD-SF)?

Answer 232

1. Formal written reprimand 2. Suspension 3. Reduction in salary 4. Demotion 5. Involuntary transfer 6. Dismissal

Question 233

The Department shall only investigate allegations of misconduct when what?

Answer 233

There is a nexus between the act(s) and the individuals employment with the Department.

Question 234

What constitutes an automatic resignation as a result of an employee being AWOL?

Answer 234

An unapproved absence of 5 consecutive WORKING days or more.

Question 235

On what document is the Bazemore Admonition required?

Answer 235

MOD's which or counseling or remedial in nature

Question 236

What is a Coleman Hearing?

Answer 236

The process by which an employee who has resigned (by being AWOL), has the opportunity to present information to an impartial and uninvolved departmental member.

Question 237

What documents are considered "closing documentation"?

Answer 237

1. Notice of Adverse Action 2. MOD 3. MOF 4. CHP 2

Question 238

What is GC 19572?

Answer 238

The authority and specific charging sections for taking adverse action against an employee.

Question 239

What is the Lybarger Admonishment?

Answer 239

Admonishment given in administrative interrogations which advise the subjects they do not have the right to refuse to answer questions.

Question 240

What is the purpose of a MOC?

Answer 240

To formally document supervisory counseling pertaining to misconduct, behavior, or poor performance.

Question 241

What is the purpose of a MOD?

Answer 241

To formally document supervisory counseling pertaining to misconduct, behavior, or poor performance, and to provide specific direction to preclude a recurrence.

Question 242

What is the purpose of a MOE?

Answer 242

To formally explain the expectations for conduct or performance.

Question 243

What is the purpose of a MOF?

Answer 243

To document the findings of a miscellaneous investigation or citizen's complaint. **It is used when the employee is exonerated or misconduct or when substantiated misconduct is not severe enough to warrant a more severe action such as a MOD.

Question 244

What constitutes "minor" discipline?

Answer 244

1. A penalty consisting of 1-5 working days, or... | 2. An equivalent step reduction

Question 245

What is a Pre-disciplinary hearing process (aka Skelly hearing)?

Answer 245

The process afforded to an employee (PRIOR to the penalty being imposed), and their rep, where they have the right to present material for which a notice of AA or RDP was served.

Question 246

The "preponderance of evidence" standard is also known as what?

Answer 246

The standard of 51%

Question 247

What are the 2 actions associated with progressive discipline (PC)?

Answer 247

1. Preventative actions | 2. Corrective actions

Question 248

In regards to progressive discipline, what is the primary difference between formal and informal counseling?

Answer 248

Documentation

Question 249

In regards to progressive discipline, if the employee does not have a monthly evaluation form, how shall a formal counseling session be documented?

Answer 249

On a MOC

Question 250

In regards to internal investigations, what rank shall the assigned primary investigator be?

Answer 250

At least one rank higher than the highest ranking employee involved **Unless otherwise approved by the Division Commander or the appropriate AC.

Question 251

Within how many days shall the internal investigation be forwarded to OIA?

Answer 251

60 days from the date the Area became aware of the misconduct.

Question 252

What are the 2 accepted methods for conducting an employee involved criminal investigation?

Answer 252

1. Concurrent | 2. Consecutive

Question 253

When the department runs a concurrent investigation, what does that mean?

Answer 253

The criminal investigation is conducted simultaneously with the administrative investigation; by separate investigators.

Question 254

When the department runs a consecutive investigation, what does that mean?

Answer 254

The criminal investigation is completed and a decision is made by the prosecuting authority prior to initiating the administrative investigation.

Question 255

Allegations involving potential criminal misconduct by a non-uniformed employee shall be administratively investigated under what circumstances (MNF)?

Answer 255

1. Criminal misconduct could lead to a FELONY conviction. 2. Criminal misconduct constituting a MISDEMEANOR involving MORAL turpitude. 3. Criminal misconduct where the employee has established a NEXUS to the Department.

Question 256

If a departmental employee is requested to be interviewed by an agency regarding a civil rights investigation, what 3 guidelines shall apply?

Answer 256

1. Decision to consent to interview is at the discretion of the employee. 2. If the interview is conducted on state time, a departmental supervisor shall be present. 3. Interviews conducted on state time shall be tape recorded.

Question 257

In regards to internal investigations, who has investigative responsibility when the employee is assigned to a special assignment (i.e. task force)?

Answer 257

CHP commander

Question 258

In regards to internal investigations, who has investigative responsibility when the employee is assigned out on a temporary assignment (i.e. protective service detail)?

Answer 258

Permanent CHP commander

Question 259

In regards to internal investigations, who has investigative responsibility when the investigation involves multiple employees in multiple commands?

Answer 259

1. The command with the employees associated with the most severe allegations, or... 2. The command with the greatest number of employees involved.

Question 260

Normally, how long from the date of misconduct discovery does the department have to investigate, conclude, and notify the employee of the proposed disciplinary action?

Answer 260

1 year

Question 261

When may an internal investigation of an employee be re-opened beyond the 1 year time frame?

Answer 261

1. Significant new evidence that is likely to affect the outcome of the investigation, and one of the following exists: a. The evidence could not reasonably have been discovered without resorting to extraordinary measures. b. The evidence resulted from the employee's pre-disciplinary hearing response or procedure.

Question 262

When would the 3 year time limit apply to an internal investigation?

Answer 262

When it includes financial crimes (i.e. fraud, embezzlement, falsification of records).

Question 263

In regards to a rejection during probation, when does an employee have to be served with a notice of RDP?

Answer 263

Prior to the last day of the probationary period.

Question 264

When an employee is placed on a department-initiated leave of absence, who shall the commander NOTIFY?

Answer 264

CalHR

Question 265

If a department-initiated leave of absence extends past 30 calendar days, who's APPROVAL IS REQUIRED FIRST?

Answer 265

CalHR

Question 266

When an employee is placed on a leave of absence WITHOUT pay, what is required to happen with the investigation?

Answer 266

It must be completed, reviewed, and the employee must be served with the notice of AA within 15 CALENDAR days.

Question 267

How many hours notice must be given to an employee when terminating a department-initiated leave of absence?

Answer 267

48 hours

Question 268

Before a commander removes an employee's peace officer powers, who's approval is needed?

Answer 268

The appropriate AC

Question 269

Before a commander reinstates an employee's peace officer powers, who's approval is needed?

Answer 269

The appropriate AC

Question 270

What CHP form shall not be included in an internal investigation as an EXHIBIT?

Answer 270

CHP 268, Potential Civil Litigation Report

Question 271

In regards to internal investigations, who's approval is required when a commander believes the use of a polygraph test or VSA is necessary?

Answer 271

Commissioner

Question 272

How long shall administrative investigation evidence be retained for?

Answer 272

5 years

Question 273

In regards to evidence related to administrative investigations, what shall be annotated on the CHP 36?

Answer 273

The date of destruction

Question 274

An employees locker can be searched under what 4 conditions?

Answer 274

1. Employee is present 2. Employee gives consent 3. A valid search warrant is obtained 4. Employee has been notified a search will be conducted

Question 275

During internal investigation interviews, are DEPARTMENTAL witness statements required to be RECORDED?

Answer 275

Yes

Question 276

During internal investigation interviews, are NON-DEPARTMENTAL witness statements required to be RECORDED?

Answer 276

No, but they should be, unless they object

Question 277

In regards to internal investigations, who's approval is needed prior to surreptitiously recording a departmental employee?

Answer 277

OIA

Question 278

In regards to internal investigations, when can an employee be surreptitiously recorded?

Answer 278

During a CRIMINAL investigation

Question 279

In regards to administrative investigations, who's approval is needed to video record interrogations?

Answer 279

Commissioner

Question 280

How shall all interviews and/or administrative interrogations be documented?

Answer 280

1. Summarized in a memo, or... | 2. Transcribed

Question 281

In regards to administrative investigations, in what case shall the employee's interrogation be transcribed in its entirety?

Answer 281

Dismissals

Question 282

If a discussion is necessary, but the employee refuses to participate in an investigative INTERVIEW, what shall happen?

Answer 282

The employee shall be made to participate in an INTERROGATION.

Question 283

In regards to internal investigations, when is an employee not compelled to provide a statement or answer questions?

Answer 283

When the investigation is criminal in nature

Question 284

What is a CHP 8A form?

Answer 284

Criminal Interrogation Record

Question 285

What is a CHP 8 form?

Answer 285

Administrative Interrogation Record

Question 286

Can a criminal investigator participate in/attend an administrative interrogation?

Answer 286

No

Question 287

Can an administrative investigator participate in/attend a criminal interrogation?

Answer 287

Yes

Question 288

Prior to an employee being subject to additional administrative interrogations, what shall the employee be provided with?

Answer 288

Copies of recordings from previous administrative interrogations.

Question 289

The Notice of Administrative Interrogation shall include what 4 things?

Answer 289

1. Nature/scope of interrogation 2. Rank, name, and command of all interrogators 3. Date, time, and location of interrogation 4. Right to representation

Question 290

What is considered a reasonable amount of notice (time) to give an employee prior to an administrative interrogation?

Answer 290

24 hours

Question 291

In regards to internal investigations, when is marital privilege NOT applicable?

Answer 291

When both employee's are uniformed members of the Department.

Question 292

In regards to administrative investigations, within how many days of the investigation being approved shall the employee be served with the closing correspondence?

Answer 292

30 days

Question 293

The Division Commander is the final level of approval for an AA with a penalty of what?

Answer 293

1. Formal written reprimand | 2. 1-5 day suspension, or equivalent monthly step reduction

Question 294

The respective AC is the final level of approval for an AA with a penalty of what?

Answer 294

1. 6-20 day suspension, or equivalent monthly step reduction | 2. Removal from specialty pay position

Question 295

The Deputy Commissioner or Commissioner is the final level of approval for an AA with a penalty of what?

Answer 295

1. Dismissal 2. Demotion 3. 20+ day suspension, or equivalent monthly step reduction 4. Rejection during probation 5. Non-punitive termination

Question 296

What is the effective date of an AA?

Answer 296

NLT 25 CALENDAR days after the date of service of the notice.

Question 297

Suspensions in excess of how many days shall be coordinated with OIA and the Commissioner?

Answer 297

42 days

Question 298

When do suspension times begin and end?

Answer 298

Start: At the start of the employee's shift End: 1 minute before the shift start time on the 1st day after the suspension

Question 299

An employee must have how many working days in a monthly pay period for it to be considered a qualifying pay period?

Answer 299

11+ WORKING days

Question 300

An employee must have how many working days in a monthly pay period to qualify for paid medical benefits?

Answer 300

1 WORKING day

Question 301

FLSA exempt employees (managers), shall not be subject to a disciplinary action suspension in less than full week increments unless what?

Answer 301

There is a violation of a major safety rule

Question 302

What is the effective date of an AA for all managerial employees?

Answer 302

NLT 20 CALENDAR days after the date of service of the notice

Question 303

For uniformed employees (except managers), an AA with a penalty of dismissal, non-punitive termination, or RDP, shall become effective at 1700 hours on what date?

Answer 303

10 BUSINESS days after the last day of the PDH period

Question 304

For managerial employees, an AA with a penalty of dismissal, non-punitive termination, or RDP, shall become effective at 1700 hours on what date?

Answer 304

10 CALENDAR days after the last day of the PDH period

Question 305

An AA with a penalty of demotion, shall become effective at 1700 hours on what date?

Answer 305

At least 15 CALENDAR days after the last day of the PDH period

Question 306

While the effective date of an AA with a penalty of demotion is normally at least 15 CALENDAR days after the last day of the PDH period, it can be earlier. In the event it is earlier, it shall not be any earlier than what?

Answer 306

5 BUSINESS days after the last day of the PDH period

Question 307

What is the effective date of an AA with a chosen penalty of a step reduction?

Answer 307

A minimum of 25 CALENDAR days from the date of service of the notice

Question 308

How much state time is an employee and their rep. granted to review the administrative investigation file and prepare a PDH response?

Answer 308

4 hours

Question 309

In regards to administrative investigations, if the service of the closing correspondence will exceed how many days, who shall be contacted?

Answer 309

1. If service will exceed 29 WORKING days | 2. OIA shall be contacted

Question 310

All administrative investigation shall be destroyed after how long?

Answer 310

5 years; from the date the employee was served with the Notice of Adverse Action or the closing documentation.

Question 311

Internal investigations which resulted in a formal written reprimand shall be retained for how long?

Answer 311

1. 5 years, however... 2. The copy in the personnel folder shall be removed after 3 years; from the date the employee was served with the Notice of Adverse Action or the closing documentation.

Question 312

In regards to an administrative investigation, if closing/corrective documentation is rescinded, but an employee's GC 3306 response is attached, what shall happen to the GC 3306 response?

Answer 312

It shall be returned to the employee upon destruction of the originally issued closing/corrective documentation.

Question 313

At minimum, who shall serve as the PDH officer?

Answer 313

Assistant Chief

Question 314

For RDP's, how long can an employee's probationary period be extended to allow for for the PDH period?

Answer 314

5 days

Question 315

In what form may an employee request a PDH hearing?

Answer 315

1. Orally, or... | 2. In writing

Question 316

If the employee requested a PDH hearing ORALLY, within how many days shall the PDH officer respond in writing?

Answer 316

7 CALENDAR days

Question 317

If the employee requested a PDH hearing in WRITING, within how many days shall the PDH officer respond in writing?

Answer 317

14 CALENDAR days

Question 318

The request to use leave credits to satisfy a suspension shall be submitted by what date?

Answer 318

Any time prior to the conclusion of the PDH period.

Question 319

When appealing an AA, an employee must submit an appeal to SPB within how many days?

Answer 319

NLT 30 CALENDAR days after the effective date of the Notice of Adverse Action.

Question 320

When appealing an RDP, an employee must submit an appeal to SPB within how many days?

Answer 320

NLT 15 CALENDAR days after the effective date of the rejection.

Question 321

When appealing minor discipline (written reprimand), an employee must submit an appeal to OIA within how many days after receiving the PDH officer's decision?

Answer 321

NLT 14 CALENDAR days after the date the PDH officer's decision was received.

Question 322

In regards to the appeal of written reprimands, if the employee in not satisfied with the PDH officer's decision, who is the next level of appeal?

Answer 322

Commissioner

Question 323

If an employee separates from the Department during an administrative investigation, the file shall be converted to what?

Answer 323

A miscellaneous investigation

Question 324

If an employee begins short term military leave prior to the completion of an administrative investigation, or prior to the service of the notice or closing documentation, what shall happen?

Answer 324

They shall be provided with a memo advising that the 1-year time frame for completion and service has been tolled.

Question 325

If an employee disability retires prior to the completion of an administrative investigation, what shall happen?

Answer 325

The investigation shall be completed and the employee shall be served with the Notice of Adverse Action.

Question 326

If an employee resigns while an administrative investigation is pending, what shall the commander provide them with?

Answer 326

A Response to Voluntary Resignation

Question 327

When computing seniority points, in what increments are they granted, and what dates are used for computing?

Answer 327

1. 1/4 point for each full year served in the rank | 2. Computed from the date of appointment to the date of the written examination

Question 328

For non-uniformed employment vacancies, how long shall commands advertise them for, and how long are they valid?

Answer 328

1. Advertise for a minimum of 10 BUSINESS days | 2. Valid for 120 days from the posting date

Question 329

An applicant who discloses illegal drug use within how many years of submitting an application SHALL BE DISQUALIFIED?

Answer 329

2 years

Question 330

For sensitive classifications, an applicant who discloses illegal use of hard drugs within how many years of submitting an application SHOULD BE VIEWED AS A SIGNIFICANT CONCERN?

Answer 330

5 years

Question 331

Retired annuitants can work up to how many hours per year?

Answer 331

960 hours

Question 332

A former uniformed employee must apply for reinstatement within how many years of separation?

Answer 332

3 years

Question 333

How shall a uniformed employee request a permissive reinstatement?

Answer 333

In WRITING to the Commissioner

Question 334

How shall a non-uniformed employee request a permissive reinstatement?

Answer 334

1. In person or in writing, to... | 2. The hiring command where the vacancy exists

Question 335

If an employee who disability retired is no longer disabled, and wishes to reinstate, what is the only requirement?

Answer 335

They must be at least 6 months less than the age of mandatory retirement.

Question 336

Typically, how much advance notice is the Department required to give an employee who is subject to a mandatory transfer?

Answer 336

60 days

Question 337

An employee who is subject to a mandatory transfer may waive the 60 day advance notice requirement by doing what?

Answer 337

Writing the Commissioner

Question 338

The maximum travel distance for commanders using a state vehicle shall not exceed what?

Answer 338

70 miles

Question 339

The maximum travel distance for non-command employees using a state vehicle shall not exceed what?

Answer 339

50 miles

Question 340

Salary payment or reimbursement for expenses cannot take place until an employee does what?

Answer 340

Has taken and subscribed to the Oath or Declaration (Oath of Allegiance or Declaration of Permission to Work).

Question 341

Who is authorized to administer the Oath of Allegiance or Declaration of Permission to Work?

Answer 341

1. Uniformed sergeants and above, and... | 2. Non-uniformed commanders/designees

Question 342

Who may receive 2 step raises at the same time?

Answer 342

Managerial employees, when they are required to relocate more than 50 miles upon promotion.

Question 343

What is the normal anniversary date for a merit salary adjustment?

Answer 343

The 1st day of the pay period following the completion of 12 pay periods of qualifying service

Question 344

What is the anniversary date of a merit salary adjusted for an employee who has had their salary reduced by AA?

Answer 344

The normal MSA date

Question 345

When a commander denies an employee's MSA, what shall be proved to the employee?

Answer 345

A memo detailing why and explaining their right to appeal

Question 346

When a merit salary adjustment is denied by the commander, the decision will not normally be reconsidered before what time period?

Answer 346

3 months have passed

Question 347

When a merit salary is denied, what happens to the anniversary date?

Answer 347

A new one is established 12 months after the effective date of the increase

Question 348

A merit salary adjustment denial is appealed through what process?

Answer 348

Grievance

Question 349

When do 6 month probationary employees receive their written appraisals?

Answer 349

2, 4, and 6 months

Question 350

When do 12 month probationary employees receive their written appraisals?

Answer 350

4, 8, and 12 months

Question 351

How many hours must a 6 month probationary employee complete?

Answer 351

840 hours

Question 352

How many hours must a 12 month probationary employee complete?

Answer 352

1680 hours

Question 353

What are the 4 types of discretionary leave (AIR-T)?

Answer 353

1. Regular leave of absence 2. Adoption leave 3. Temporary leave of absence 4. Informal leave

Question 354

What are the 7 types of non-discretionary leave?

Answer 354

1. Pregnancy/parental leave 2. Veteran's educational leave 3. Military leave 4. Spousal military leave 5. FMLA/CFRA 6. NDI 7. SDI

Question 355

When a commander is absent from the command for an extended period of time, the position will be considered for refill after how long?

Answer 355

6 continuous months

Question 356

Who shall complete REFRESHER training?

Answer 356

Uniformed employees who return after an approved leave of absence of 12 months to 2 years.

Question 357

Who shall complete REINSTATEMENT training?

Answer 357

Uniformed employees who return after an approved leave of absence of over 2 years.

Question 358

Who has the power to grant un unpaid leave of absence for up to 1 year?

Answer 358

Commissioner

Question 359

Can sick leave credits be used prior to the effective date of leave?

Answer 359

1. Not unless the leave is for medical reasons, and... | 2. It's substantiated by a doctors note.

Question 360

The appointing power can approve a leave of absence without pay for the adoption of a child for a period not to exceed how long?

Answer 360

1 year

Question 361

The maximum length of time for TEMPORARY leave is how long?

Answer 361

30 days

Question 362

The maximum length of time for INFORMAL leave is how long?

Answer 362

10 or 11 days depending on the length of the pay period.

Question 363

The maximum length of time for pregnancy/parental leave is how long?

Answer 363

1 year

Question 364

When a female employee becomes pregnant, what is she required to do?

Answer 364

Provide her commander with a statement from her doctor regarding her ability to perform limited or full duty.

Question 365

To be eligible for veteran's educational leave, how many credit hours must an employee enroll in each school year?

Answer 365

10

Question 366

How long is short-term military leave?

Answer 366

6 months or less

Question 367

An employee who is on short-term or long-term military leave is entitled to pay for up to how long?

Answer 367

The first 30 CALENDAR days of leave

Question 368

How long is long-term military leave?

Answer 368

More than 6 months, but not exceeding 5 years.

Question 369

How shall an AWOL notice be sent to the employee's last known address?

Answer 369

By OVERNIGHT mail

Question 370

In regards to AWOL notices, when they are sent WITHIN CA, service is effective after how many CALENDAR days of the postmark?

Answer 370

5

Question 371

In regards to AWOL notices, when they are sent OUTSIDE CA, service is effective after how many CALENDAR days of the postmark?

Answer 371

10

Question 372

In regards to AWOL notices, when they are sent OUTSIDE the USA, service is effective after how many CALENDAR days of the postmark?

Answer 372

20

Question 373

If an employee IS SERVED with an AWOL notice, within how many days of the service are they required to request reinstatement from CalHR?

Answer 373

15

Question 374

If an employee was NEVER served with an AWOL notice, within how many days of the effective date of separation are they required to request reinstatement from CalHR?

Answer 374

90

Question 375

When an employee is DISCHARGED, when must they be paid for their wages?

Answer 375

At the time of separation

Question 376

When an employee VOLUNTARILY RESIGNS, when must they be paid for their wages?

Answer 376

Within 72 hours from the date of separation.

Question 377

Peace officers who separate from the Department for reasons other than retirement, can only maintain DMV confidentiality of their home address for how long?

Answer 377

3 years following their date of separation

Question 378

If a recommendation against rehire or averse comments are contained in an exit interview, what shall the employee be entitled to do?

Answer 378

1. Read and sign the memo, and... | 2. Respond within 30 days.

Question 379

How long does the Department have to recoup an overpayment?

Answer 379

3 years

Question 380

What is the mandatory uniformed retirement age?

Answer 380

60 years

Question 381

The recoupable amount for overpayments must not exceed what?

Answer 381

25% of the employee's monthly net disposable earnings

Question 382

What are the collections methods an employee can use to satisfy an overpayment (PUP)?

Answer 382

1. Payroll deduction 2. Personal check/cash payment 3. Use of leave credits

Question 383

To be eligible to DONATE to another employee for catastrophic leave, the donating employee must have a MINIMUM balance of how much PAID leave?

Answer 383

80 hours

Question 384

Use of catastrophic leave may not exceed how long for any one illness/injury?

Answer 384

12 CONTINUOUS months

Question 385

Use of catastrophic leave may not exceed how long for a NATURAL DISASTER?

Answer 385

1. 3 CONTINUOUS months, unless... | 2. Extended another 3 months by the appropriate AC.

Question 386

Per GC 3306, how many days does an employee have to respond in writing to any adverse comment being placed in their personnel file?

Answer 386

30 days

Question 387

In the event a CHP 2 was previously issued for something that has turned into a "Request for Adverse Action", what shall happen to the CHP 2?

Answer 387

1. It shall be rescinded and destroyed, and... | 2. The employee shall be notified in writing

Question 388

Can 4800.5 credits be used tentatively while a case decision is pending at SCIF?

Answer 388

Yes

Question 389

An employee, who is a military veteran and has a military disability rating of 30% or more, is entitled to how many ADDITIONAL hours of sick leave to deal with appointments related to their disability?

Answer 389

96 hours

Question 390

In regards to bereavement leave, under what circumstances would an employee be entitled to up to 2 additional days of sick leave?

Answer 390

When they have to go out of state for the death

Question 391

Who is authorized to sign the STD. 634?

Answer 391

Lieutenants and above

Question 392

When an employee elects to enroll in the sick leave/vacation leave program, how long do they have to wait before they can enroll in the annual leave program?

Answer 392

24 months

Question 393

Commanders shall REVIEW the vacation/annual leave balances for their employees on what date?

Answer 393

June 1 of each year

Question 394

On which date will the commanders NOTIFY their employees they have to burn down their excess vacation/annual leave hours?

Answer 394

January 1 of each year

Question 395

Sergeants in what sized commands, utilize "on call" rather than "standby" status?

Answer 395

2 or 3 sergeant commands

Question 396

Who's approval is needed to place an employee on ATO?

Answer 396

Commissioner

Question 397

During a state of emergency, how much ATO can be granted to an employee?

Answer 397

5 days

Question 398

When paid ATO exceeds 5 WORKING days, who's approval is needed?

Answer 398

1. Commissioner, and... | 2. CalHR

Question 399

How much ORGAN DONOR time is an employee entitled to?

Answer 399

Up to 30 WORKING days in any 1-year.

Question 400

How much BONE MARROW donor time is an employee entitled to?

Answer 400

Up to 5 WORKING days in any 1-year.

Question 401

How many hours of leave are employees entitled to use per calendar year to ATTEND family or school related activities their child is involved in?

Answer 401

At least 20 hours

Question 402

Up to how many hours of leave are employees entitled to use per calendar year to PARTICIPATE in activities at their child's school?

Answer 402

1. Up to 40 hours per CALENDAR YEAR, but... | 2. Not more than 8 hours per MONTH

Question 403

Up to how many hours of leave are employees entitled to per calendar year for MENTORING leave?

Answer 403

Up to 40 hours, provided they have used an equal amount of their own time.

Question 404

If an employee can't vote outside of working hours, how much work time may they be granted to vote?

Answer 404

2 hours max.

Question 405

When en employee is granted work time to vote, can they go vote DURING their shift?

Answer 405

No. **The time is granted at the beginning or end of the regular shift.

Question 406

At least how many days BEFORE the statewide election shall commanders post the employee's rights to vote on work time on the office bulletin board?

Answer 406

10 days

Question 407

How much advance notice does an employee have to give the commander if they plan on voting on work time?

Answer 407

2 days

Question 408

Supplemental pay warrants (covering unpaid wages), are normally issued within how many days after the end of the pay period?

Answer 408

14 WORKING days

Question 409

On the CHP 71, Attendance Report, how do managerial employees indicate their work week?

Answer 409

By marking the end of their work weeks with red lines

Question 410

The decision to implement the AWW is at who's discretion?

Answer 410

1. Area Commander, with... | 2. Division concurrence

Question 411

In order to implement the AWW, a passing vote of at least what % is required?

Answer 411

67%

Question 412

When the pay period ends on a normal work day, the commander/designee may release pay warrants when?

Answer 412

1. On that day either at 1500 hours, or... | 2. After the employee has completed all work hours

Question 413

When the pay period ends on a weekend, or holiday, the commander/designee may release pay warrants when?

Answer 413

On the last preceding normal work day

Question 414

How long are citizen complaints retained for?

Answer 414

5 years

Question 415

How long are miscellaneous investigations retained for?

Answer 415

3 years

Question 416

How long are grievances retained for at the affected command?

Answer 416

3 years

Question 417

A MANAGER who possesses a B.A. is eligible to receive how much more money?

Answer 417

$100.00

Question 418

A MANAGER who possesses a M.A. is eligible to receive how much more money?

Answer 418

$200.00

Question 419

Who is considered a Category 1 motorcycle rider?

Answer 419

Presently capable of performing motorcycle enforcement duties

Question 420

Who is considered a Category 2 motorcycle rider?

Answer 420

1. On a 1 year probationary status, and... | 2. Assigned a CMTO for 30 day working period.

Question 421

To qualify for swing shift differential pay, how many hours, and between what times, does an employee have to work?

Answer 421

1. 4+ hours | 2. Between 1800 hours and 0100 hours

Question 422

To qualify for grave yard differential pay, how many hours, and between what times, does an employee have to work?

Answer 422

1. 4+ hours | 2. Between 2300 hours and 0600 hours

Question 423

Per FMLA and CFRA requirements, how many weeks of unpaid job protected paid leave is an employee entitled to?

Answer 423

12 weeks

Question 424

When an employee submits a request for FMLA/ CFRA leave, within how many days of receiving the request, shall the supervisor provide them with a CHP 738, notice of Eligibility and Rights and Responsibilities?

Answer 424

5 BUSINESS days

Question 425

For a FMLA/ CFRA leave request for a foreseeable event, how much advance notice must an employee provide their supervisor?

Answer 425

30 days

Question 426

What are the month and hour requirements for an employee to be eligible for FMLA/CFRA leave?

Answer 426

1. Employee must have worked at least 12 months of state service, and... 2. Worked at least 1,250 hrs immediately before the date the FMLA/CFRA leave is to start

Question 427

Is paid leave due to job related injuries (4800.5) counted toward satisfying the 1,250 hours worked requirement?

Answer 427

No

Question 428

Up to how much time is an employee allowed to take for baby bonding leave, and within what time period must it be taken?

Answer 428

1. Up to 12 weeks of leave | 2. Within the 1st year of the babies birth

Question 429

In regards to baby bonding leave, what is the minimum duration of leave an employee is allowed to take at one time?

Answer 429

2 weeks

Question 430

In regards to baby bonding leave, if an employee requests, they must be permitted to, take a leave of at least what?

Answer 430

1 day, but less than 2 weeks; at least twice during the 12 week period

Question 431

An employee who is on an AWW schedule, who is also on FMLA/ CFRA leave for 30+ continuous days, must revert back to what schedule?

Answer 431

Monday - Friday, 8-hour shift

Question 432

An employee is entitled to take up to how many weeks of FMLA leave during a single 12 month period for military caregiver leave?

Answer 432

A combined total of 26 WORK weeks

Question 433

What are the 3 classifications of citizens complaints?

Answer 433

1. Category 1 2. Category 2 3. Other

Question 434

"Other" complaints include what types of complaints (DCRF)?

Answer 434

1. Departmental 2. Citation validity 3. Rescinded 4. Frivolous

Question 435

"Non- Complaints" include what type of complaints (VOOT)?

Answer 435

1. Traffic 2. Vehicle storage/ impound validity 3. Other agency 4. Off duty conduct

Question 436

What are the 5 complaint findings, in order of severity (SUUDE)?

Answer 436

1. Sustained 2. Unintentional error 3. Undetermined / No finding 4. Departmental 5. Exonerated

Question 437

All complaints shall be acknowledged by correspondences within how many days?

Answer 437

5 BUSINESS days

Question 438

In regards to receiving citizens complaints, when is interim correspondences not required?

Answer 438

1. When the complainant original contacts the department in person, and... 2. The requisite information was provided at that time

Question 439

When shall the complainant be requested to return the CHP 240B or CHP 240D?

Answer 439

Within 10 BUSINESS days

Question 440

When a complainant makes a claim of monetary damages what forms shall they be provided with?

Answer 440

1. CHP 287, Claims of 1,000 or less, or... | 2. Board Of Control Tort Claim

Question 441

Normally, within how many days should a regular complaint be completed?

Answer 441

60 days

Question 442

Normally, within days should a Legislative complaint be completed?

Answer 442

30 days

Question 443

When is a Chronological Log required in a COMPLAINT?

Answer 443

Category 1 investigation

Question 444

If during a citizens complaint a supervisor wants to record an INTERVIEW with an employee, outside the scope of a formal administrative interrogation, what is required?

Answer 444

Employee consent FIRST

Question 445

During a citizens complaint investigation, why would it be necessary to exam the employee's complaint history?

Answer 445

To determine the existence of previous complaints which would be relevant to the current investigation.

Question 446

If an employee's complaint history reveals certain trends which is used in determining the findings of the current complaint, where should it be documented?

Answer 446

In the "findings" section

Question 447

When shall closing correspondence be sent to a complainant?

Answer 447

After the investigation has been approved at the appropriate level.

Question 448

Closing correspondence shall be sent to the complainant within how many days of the investigation being approved?

Answer 448

30 CALENDAR days

Question 449

In regards to citizens complaints, when shall commanders take corrective action against employees.

Answer 449

When employee was in error, whether it was intentional or not.

Question 450

In regards to citizens complaints, corrective action shall be in one of which 4 forms ?

Answer 450

1. Request AA 2. CHP 2 (censurable) 3. MOD 4. MOF

Question 451

Generally, area commanders are the final approval authority for what category of citizen complaints?

Answer 451

Category 2

Question 452

The employee should be provided with the opportunity to review the citizens complaint investigation in its entirety, EXCEPT for what portion?

Answer 452

The list of exhibits

Question 453

Up to what point can a compliant investigation be amended?

Answer 453

Any time prior to discussion and review with the employee

Question 454

If a complaint investigation needs to be amended AFTER it has been designated as final and complete, how shall any changes be documented?

Answer 454

1. Changes made by memo, and... | 2. New CHP 240 shall be generated with the "amended box" checked

Question 455

If a complaint investigation has been amended, when is new closing correspondence required to be sent to the citizen?

Answer 455

When the finding has been changed in a substantive manner.

Question 456

In regards to citizen complaint investigations, what is the Information File?

Answer 456

A catalogue of complainants who have demonstrated a propensity towards the filing of frivolous, spurious, or suspicious complaints.

Question 457

Who conducts the complaint investigation if the complainant disagrees with, and appeals the findings of the initial investigation?

Answer 457

The succeeding (next) level of command.

Question 458

In regards to the EAP program, Magellan Healthcare is required by law to release information under what circumstances (SHAC)?

Answer 458

1. When records are lawfully subpoenaed. 2. When an individual expresses a desire to harm themself or another person. 3. If child or elder abuse is suspected. 4. If the individual confesses to a crime.

Question 459

In regards to EAP, how many sessions is an employee entitled to?

Answer 459

7 sessions; per problem, per fiscal year.

Question 460

In regards to the Peer Support Program, confidentiality will be maintained except in what circumstances (CSH)?

Answer 460

1. Employee misconduct constitutes criminal activity. 2. Peer Support volunteer is subpoenaed to testify concerning information shared by the employee. 3. When employee expresses desire to harm themself.

Question 461

Commanders make recommendations for an employee's participation in the Peer Support program based on what?

Answer 461

1. Job performance 2. Observed interpersonal skills 3. Maturity 4. Judgment 5. Personal and professional credibility

Question 462

A Critical Incident Stress Debriefing (CISD) should be scheduled within how many hours of a critical event?

Answer 462

24-72 hours

Question 463

What is the only situation where an employee's attendance is mandatory at a Critical Incident Stress Debriefing?

Answer 463

When the employee was involved in a shooting.

Question 464

Within how many hours of a shooting incident shall the commander refer the involved employee(s) to a Critical Incident Stress Debriefing?

Answer 464

72 hours

Question 465

What does the mandatory portion of the Wellness Program require commanders to do?

Answer 465

1. SUPPORT the concepts of wellness, health, and fitness | 2. DISSEMINATE wellness information to all employees.

Question 466

What does the discretionary portion of the Wellness Program allow commanders to do?

Answer 466

COORDINATE wellness activities for all employees within their command.

Question 467

How often does the Command Occupational Safety Committee meet?

Answer 467

Quarterly

Question 468

Who assigns preventability when it comes to occupational injuries/illnesses, and and recordable vehicle collisions?

Answer 468

Commander

Question 469

The assignment of preventability may be appealed to who for REVIEW only?

Answer 469

Command Occupational Safety Committee

Question 470

In regards to command occupational safety practices, after what PREVENTABLE events shall a commander meet with an employee (HIC)?

Answer 470

1. Collisions 2. Injury/illness 3. Hazardous exposure

Question 471

An injury/illness/collision which occurs during an employee's temporary assignment, shall be charged to who, UNLESS what?

Answer 471

1. Temporary command, unless... | 2. The assignment is for a civil disturbance

Question 472

An injury/illness/collision which occurs during a civil disturbance, shall be charged to who?

Answer 472

Permanent command

Question 473

An injury/illness/collision which occurs while an employee is temporarily assigned to and/or under the direct supervision of an entity other than the Department, shall be charged to who?

Answer 473

Appropriate AC

Question 474

An injury/illness/collision which occurs while an employee is traveling to or from a temporary assignment, shall be charged to who?

Answer 474

Permanent command

Question 475

Within how many days is a command required to respond to a complaint letter received from the Division of Occupational Safety and Health?

Answer 475

14 CALENDAR days

Question 476

How long is a copy of the complaint letter from the Division of Occupational Safety and Health, and the commands response, required to be posted in a prominent location in the office?

Answer 476

3 days minimum

Question 477

How many hours of COMMENTARY driving are uniformed employees required to have per year?

Answer 477

1 hour

Question 478

What are the 3 categories of methods for controlling hazardous exposure to potentially hazardous conditions and substances (ACE)?

Answer 478

1. Engineering controls 2. Administrative controls 3. Control of PPE

Question 479

What is a record only injury/illness?

Answer 479

Does not require first-aid or medical treatment.

Question 480

What is a first-aid injury/illness?

Answer 480

Involves one time medical treatment.

Question 481

What is a non-disabling injury/illness?

Answer 481

Requires more than first aid, or may require more than one-time medical care, but the employee is able to return to work (full or light duty), following the date of injury/illness.

Question 482

What is a disabling injury/illness?

Answer 482

The employee is unable to return to work following the date of the injury/illness.

Question 483

What is a serious injury/illness?

Answer 483

Requires overnight hospital care other than for observation, a lengthy disability status, or disability retirement.

Question 484

What is a recurrence of an injury/illness?

Answer 484

The injury/illness does not have a new, clearly defined incident to cause a flare-up. **A spontaneous reappearance of a prior condition.

Question 485

What is an aggravation of an injury/illness?

Answer 485

The injury/illness has an identifiable new incident which caused the flare-up. **Shall be processed as a new injury.

Question 486

Whenever an employee is off-duty as a result of a psychological reason, to include stress, what shall happen?

Answer 486

Peace officer powers shall be revoked

Question 487

How often shall commanders CONTACT SCIF to review the status of those cases where an employee has been placed off-duty?

Answer 487

Monthly

Question 488

How often shall commanders REPORT their injury case management activity TO DIVISION?

Answer 488

Quarterly

Question 489

How often, and by which date, shall commanders submit CHP 121D's, Injury/Illness Case Status Report, to Division?

Answer 489

1. Monthly | 2. By the 10th of each month

Question 490

HOW, and UNDER WHAT CIRCUMSTANCES, would a commander be required to notify the appropriate AC, of an illness/injury to an employee.

Answer 490

1. Via Comm-Net, when... | 2. An employee has been off-duty as a result of an occupational injury/illness for 30+ CALENDAR days

Question 491

How shall all CHP 121 packets be sent to State Fund?

Answer 491

Via fax

Question 492

In the event of death, or serious injury/illness to an employee, who shall the commander immediately notify?

Answer 492

1. Division, and... | 2. Appropriate AC

Question 493

In the event of death, or serious injury/illness to an employee, within how many HOURS shall the commander send a MIS-Web message to the appropriate AC and DRU?

Answer 493

24 hours

Question 494

In the event of death, or serious injury/illness to an employee, within how many HOURS shall the Department of Industrial Relations, Division of Occupational Safety and Health, be notified?

Answer 494

8 hours

Question 495

When an APPLICANT sustains an injury/illness, who is responsible for initiating and routing the CHP 121?

Answer 495

The supervisor managing the application process.

Question 496

Within how many days of injuries/illnesses shall the Cal OSHA Log be updated?

Answer 496

6 WORKING days

Question 497

The commander shall review and sign the CHP 121 packet within how many days?

Answer 497

3 days

Question 498

The employee shall review and sign the CHP 121 packet within how many hours?

Answer 498

24 hours

Question 499

The commander shall forward the CHP 121 packet to State Fund within how many days?

Answer 499

5 days

Question 500

Within how many days of the initial notification or any status change, shall the employee's CHP 442, Individual Accident, Injury and Safety Recognition Record, be updated?

Answer 500

3 days

Question 501

A SCIF 3301, Employee's Claim for Worker's Compensation Benefits, shall be initiated and provided to an employee within 24 hours of a notification of an alleged injury/illness, unless what?

Answer 501

Injury is record only or first aid only.

Question 502

How many physicians can an employee pre-designate with a CH 242?

Answer 502

1

Question 503

In regards to an employee pre-designating a physician, what limitations are set on the selected physician?

Answer 503

1. Physician must have previously provided medical treatment to the employee 2. Physician must currently retain their permanent medical file

Question 504

Who can initiate a fitness for duty examination on an employee?

Answer 504

1. The Department | 2. State Fund

Question 505

Prior to a commander initiating a fitness for duty examination, who's approval is required?

Answer 505

Appropriate AC

Question 506

When an employee is on limited duty, what are they prohibited from doing?

Answer 506

1. Wearing a uniform 2. Displaying a badge 3. Operating an enforcement vehicle

Question 507

In TOTAL, a limited duty assignment shall not exceed how long?

Answer 507

2 years

Question 508

Commanders may authorize limited duty for up to how long?

Answer 508

1 year

Question 509

Who's authorization is required to request an extension of limited duty beyond 1-year?

Answer 509

CalHR

Question 510

Who shall not be approved for a limited duty assignment?

Answer 510

1. Employees who have attained the minimum retirement age 2. Employees who have depleted available leave credits 3. Employees who are awaiting a disability retirement

Question 511

When an employee refuses to perform a medically approved and Department-ordered limited duty assignment, what shall the commander do?

Answer 511

1. Remove the employee from pay status, and... | 2. Initiate action to terminate employment

Question 512

If an employee is given an Options Letter, how long should they normally be given to review the letter?

Answer 512

No more than 14 days

Question 513

In regards to job-actions, what is a wildcat strike?

Answer 513

Less than statewide participation

Question 514

What shall affected area commanders maintain during a labor strife?

Answer 514

A daily record of chronological events associated with the labor dispute.

Question 515

In regards to job-actions, if an employee says they are too sick to go to the doctor to obtain a medical verification, what may the commander do?

Answer 515

Have the employee transported to a state doctor via ambulance; with the appropriate AC's concurrence

Question 516

In regards to job-actions, if an employee refuses to submit to a doctor's examination, based on religions grounds, they shall be advised of what?

Answer 516

Their claim is invalid; unless they already have an affidavit on file with SPB

Question 517

What job-action is constitutionally protected?

Answer 517

Picketing

Question 518

In regards to job-actions, the use of what employees is most desirable when filling the void left by striking employees?

Answer 518

1. Confidential 2. Supervisory 3. Managerial

Question 519

While the CHP 14, Leadership Development Plan, is optional, when shall it be discussed with supervisors and managers?

Answer 519

During the annual performance evaluation

Question 520

How many Critical Tasks have been identified as essential to performing the job of an officer?

Answer 520

8

Question 521

The annual performance appraisal shall be completed within how many days of the employee's anniversary date?

Answer 521

60 days

Question 522

In regards to performance appraisals, probationary reports shall be completed within how many days of what?

Answer 522

Within 10 days of the end of 4 months, 8 months, and 12 months.

Question 523

When is a CHP 100 NOT required to be completed?

Answer 523

1. Employee is off for the entire month | 2. The employee is a trainee in FTEP

Question 524

In regards to the CHP 100, all road patrol officers shall be evaluated in what Critical Tasks?

Answer 524

1-7

Question 525

In regards to the CHP 100, when are supervisor comments mandatory?

Answer 525

Ratings of "excellent" or "needs improvement".

Question 526

Under what circumstances would an employees annual performance appraisal period be EXTENDED 3 additional months after returning to work?

Answer 526

When they have been off work for 30+ consecutive WORKING days.

Question 527

How many Critical Tasks have been identified as essential to performing the job of a sergeant?

Answer 527

10

Question 528

Regardless of anniversary date, what is a sergeants performance appraisal evaluation period?

Answer 528

Jan 1 - December 31 of the preceding calendar year

Question 529

Who's responsibility is it to initiate a CHP 131, Promotional Development Assessment?

Answer 529

A sergeants, during the annual evaluation process.

Question 530

In regards to the CHP 112, all sergeants shall be evaluated in what Critical Tasks?

Answer 530

1-7

Question 531

When the commander identifies training needs for a probationary sergeant, what shall be prepared?

Answer 531

A Career Development Plan

Question 532

In regards to probationary sergeants, when their final probationary CHP 118S is completed within 90 days of the end of the calendar year, the probationary CHP 118S can be attached to the annual performance appraisal with what comment?

Answer 532

"No change in performance".

Question 533

The CHP 131, Promotional Development Assessment, is used to assess what?

Answer 533

A sergeant's readiness for promotion to Lieutenant.

Question 534

If a sergeant requests to complete a CHP 131, Promotional Development Assessment, within how many days shall they return it to the "rater"?

Answer 534

5 WORKING days

Question 535

How many Critical Tasks have been identified as essential to performing the job of a manager?

Answer 535

10

Question 536

Regardless of anniversary date, what is a managers performance appraisal evaluation period?

Answer 536

Jan 1 - December 31 of the preceding calendar year

Question 537

In regards to performance appraisals for managers, is one required to be done when they transfer?

Answer 537

Yes

Question 538

In regards to performance appraisals for managers, is one required to be done if the manager transfers within 3 months of receiving their annual performance appraisal?

Answer 538

No

Question 539

In regards to performance appraisals for managers, is an appraisal required to be done if it is within 3 months of having received a transfer appraisal?

Answer 539

No

Question 540

When is an area required to have an "alternate" FTEP coordinator?

Answer 540

When they have been assigned 2+ trainees

Question 541

Who shall the Area Commander immediately notify when they initiate a RDP of a trainee?

Answer 541

1. Division Commander, and... | 2. Statewide FTEP coordinator

Question 542

A minimum of how many hours of training shall be provided to the trainee per FTEP phase?

Answer 542

187 hours

Question 543

At the conclusion of the 4 FTEP training phases, a trainee shall have been provided a minimum of how many training hours?

Answer 543

600 hours

Question 544

Typically, how long are trainee EXTENSION periods during FTEP?

Answer 544

2 weeks

Question 545

Generally, who's approval is needed for ONE trainee EXTENSION period during FTEP?

Answer 545

Commander

Question 546

Generally, who's approval is needed for ADDITIONAL trainee EXTENSION periods during FTEP?

Answer 546

Division Commander

Question 547

During FTEP, a trainee's dispatch sit-along shall occur prior to what?

Answer 547

Starting Phase 4

Question 548

During FTEP, how many ride-a-longs shall the FTEP sergeant(s) perform?

Answer 548

At least one

Question 549

During FTEP, when is a manager required to interview the trainee?

Answer 549

At the end of the 1st and 3rd phases of training.

Question 550

Every FTO shall possess what?

Answer 550

1. POST basic certificate 2. 1 year of patrol experience 3. FTO basic course completion 4. Supervisor's recommendation 5. Crisis Intervention Behavioral training

Question 551

In what 3 ways can a trainee separate from the Department during FTEP (RAR)?

Answer 551

1. Adverse action; appealable through SPB. 2. RDP 3. Resignation

Question 552

Before accepting a trainee's resignation during FTEP, the trainee should normally be given how much time to re-consider?

Answer 552

48 hours

Question 553

In regards to the EEO policy, how many protected groups are there, and what are they (GRANDMA C GRRMMPSS)?

Answer 553

18 1. Gender (+2 for Gender ID and Gender Expression) 2. Race 3. Age 4. National Origin 5. Disability 6. Marital Status 7. Ancestry 8. Color 9. Genetic info 10. Religion 11. Retaliation 12. Medical condition 13. Military or Veteran status 14. Political affiliation 15. Sex 16. Sexual Orientation

Question 554

Define sexual harassment.

Answer 554

1. Unsolicited and unwelcome advances, requests for sexual favors, and... 2. Other verbal, physical, or visual conduct of a sexual nature.

Question 555

What are the 2 types of sexual harassment?

Answer 555

1. Quid pro quo | 2. Hostile work environment

Question 556

Sexual harassment is measured by what?

Answer 556

The reasonable person standard

Question 557

In regards to the EEO policy, in order for conduct to be determined to have created an intimidating, host, or offensive work environment, what 3 criteria must exist?

Answer 557

1. The behavior must be of a sexual nature 2. The behavior must be unwelcome 3. The behavior must be severe/pervasive enough to create hostile, intimidating, or offensive work environment

Question 558

Within how many months of promotion are supervisors and managers required to complete sexual harassment training?

Answer 558

6 months

Question 559

How did the California Fair Employment and Housing Act broaden the definition of a disability?

Answer 559

They specified the disability required a limitation of a major life activity, but not necessarily a substantial limitation.

Question 560

Federal and State law prohibit the Department from making inquiries into an applicant's medical status/history prior to when?

Answer 560

Prior to making a conditional offer of employment.

Question 561

In regards to the EEO policy, commanders are required to consider using applicants from what list when filling applicable non-uniformed positions?

Answer 561

LEAP lists

Question 562

A service animal can only be what?

Answer 562

1. A canine, or... | 2. Miniature horse

Question 563

A service animal does NOT include what?

Answer 563

Dogs or miniature horses that provide minimal protection, emotional support, or other comfort.

Question 564

When determining if a service animal is for a disability, or for emotional support, what is the key determining difference?

Answer 564

Whether the animal has been trained to perform a task and/or a function.

Question 565

CA law requires officers in any criminal or quasi-criminal investigation to make a good-faith effort to provide an interpreter without delay for a person with a hearing impairment, UNLESS what?

Answer 565

The individual with the hearing impairment affirmatively indicates they do not need or cannot use an interpreter.

Question 566

Under what circumstances can a reasonable accommodation request be denied?

Answer 566

1. When the request would cause an undue hardship on the operation of departmental programs, or... 2. It can be shown the person would pose a direct threat to the health and/or safety of themselves or others

Question 567

In regards to the EEO policy, what purpose does an EEO COUNSELOR serve?

Answer 567

1. Intake and potential resolution, of... | 2. INFORMAL discrimination complaints

Question 568

In regards to the EEO policy, what purpose does an EEO INVESTIGATOR serve?

Answer 568

1. Inquiring into, and reporting the finding of facts, of... | 2. FORMAL discrimination complaints

Question 569

In regards to EEO complaints, who are the STATE agencies designated to accept complaints?

Answer 569

1. Department of Fair Employment and Housing (DFEH) | 2. Department of Industrial Relations (DIR)

Question 570

In regards to EEO complaints, who are the FEDERAL agencies designated to accept complaints?

Answer 570

1. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) | 2. Department of Labor

Question 571

In regards to EEO investigations, the EEO investigator shall be what rank?

Answer 571

At least 1 rank higher than any alleged-discriminatory employee.

Question 572

A discrimination complaint must be filed with the EEOC within how many DAYS of the last discriminatory act?

Answer 572

300 days

Question 573

A discrimination complaint must be filed with the Department of Labor within how many DAYS of the last discriminatory act; UNLESS extended by who?

Answer 573

1. Within 180 days, unless... | 2. Extended by the Deputy Assistant Secretary

Question 574

For those covered under the Rehabilitation of Veteran's Act, a discrimination complaint must be filed with the Department of Labor within how many DAYS of the last discriminatory act?

Answer 574

300 days

Question 575

A discrimination complaint must be filed with the DFEH within how many DAYS of the last discriminatory act, or termination?

Answer 575

365 days

Question 576

A discrimination complaint must be filed with the DIR within how many DAYS of the last discriminatory act?

Answer 576

180 days

Question 577

For those who allege retaliation against victims of DV or sexual assault, a discrimination complaint must be filed with the DIR within how many YEARS of the alleged violation?

Answer 577

1 year

Question 578

For those who allege they are being paid less than an employee of the opposite sex doing the same job, a discrimination complaint must be filed with the DIR within how many YEARS of the alleged violation?

Answer 578

2 years

Question 579

If a complainant becomes aware an act was discriminatory after all timelines have expired, the external compliance agency will do what?

Answer 579

Allow an additional 90 days to file a complaint.

Question 580

In regards to the discrimination complaint process, can an employee file BOTH a grievance and a complaint FOR the SAME violation?

Answer 580

No, they shall use one or the other procedure.

Question 581

What are the 2 distinct levels of the INTERNAL discrimination complaint process?

Answer 581

1. Informal level (EEO counselors) | 2. Formal level (EEO investigators)

Question 582

At the INFORMAL level, the complainant has how many months from the last date of incident, to contact an EEO counselor?

Answer 582

11 months

Question 583

In regards to a discrimination complaint, when can the complainant NOT be assured their anonymity will be kept?

Answer 583

When the complaint involves allegations of an egregious nature.

Question 584

What is the only circumstance where anonymity CAN be maintained during the EEO complaint process?

Answer 584

When an informal EEO complaint is resolved by an EEO COUNSELOR at the lowest possible level.

Question 585

If an employee is not satisfied with the results of an EEO COUNSELOR'S inquiry at the INFORMAL level, within how many days of the results are they required to appeal to the Division Commander?

Answer 585

10 WORKING days

Question 586

An employee who alleges discrimination as the motive for an AA or RDP must file an appeal directly with who?

Answer 586

SPB

Question 587

An employee who alleges DISCRIMINATION in AA's must file an appeal with SPB within how many days of what?

Answer 587

30 CALENDAR days after service of the Notice of Adverse Action

Question 588

An employee who alleges DISCRIMINATION in RDP's must file an appeal with SPB within how many days of what?

Answer 588

15 CALENDAR days of the effective date of RDP

Question 589

When investigating discrimination complaints filed directly through the EEOC/DFEH, when the complainant is NOT a CHP employee, who's permission must be obtained to contact the complainant?

Answer 589

OEEO

Question 590

The "title page" of an EEO investigation must contain what 3 elements?

Answer 590

1. Equal Employment Opportunity Investigation 2. Applicable case numbers (Division and EEO #'s) 3. The word "CONFIDENTIAL"

Question 591

In regards to discrimination complaints, to establish a prima facie case of retaliation, the employee must show what 3 things (PAL)?

Answer 591

1. Employee engaged in protected activity 2. The employer subjected employee to an "adverse action" 3. A causal link exists between the protected activity and "adverse action" **EEOC defines "adverse action" as: an action taken to try and keep someone from opposing a discrimination practice, or from participating in an employment discrimination proceeding.

Question 592

In regards to the EEO policy, how often does the Department conduct language surveys?

Answer 592

Every 2 years (even numbered)

Question 593

Who has the authority to approve IN-state travel and related expenses for their employees?

Answer 593

Division Commander

Question 594

Who has the authority to approve OUT of state travel, BORDERING state travel, and NON-departmental conference travel along with related expenses?

Answer 594

Deputy Commissioner

Question 595

With the exception of short-term rentals, all travel arrangements shall be booked through who?

Answer 595

Concur Travel - CalTravel Store

Question 596

What system shall employees use to request travel advances and submit travel claims?

Answer 596

CalATERS

Question 597

What is defined as short-term travel?

Answer 597

Travel of less than 24 hours to 30 days

Question 598

What is defined as long-term travel?

Answer 598

Travel of 31+ days

Question 599

Per diem will not be allowed within how many miles of an employee's home location (HQ)?

Answer 599

50 miles

Question 600

Travel advance requests shall not exceed expenses for how many days?

Answer 600

30 days

Question 601

Travel advances shall not be requested for expenses less than what amount?

Answer 601

$25

Question 602

Travel advances shall be submitted within how many days minimum and maximum of travel?

Answer 602

1. At least 2 days prior to, but... | 2. No earlier than 2 weeks prior to

Question 603

Employee's shall clear (provide verification for) their travel advances within how many days after their travel?

Answer 603

10 CALENDAR days

Question 604

For employee's with state-sponsored charge cards, within how many days of receiving the bill, shall they pay the bill in full?

Answer 604

30 days

Question 605

Generally, all original receipts shall be furnished when seeking reimbursement over what amount?

Answer 605

$25

Question 606

All original receipts shall be furnished when seeking reimbursement for continuous parking fees over what amount?

Answer 606

$10

Question 607

All original receipts shall be furnished when seeking reimbursement for telephone, fax, or other business charges related to state business over what amount?

Answer 607

$5

Question 608

All original receipts shall be furnished when seeking reimbursement for bridge and road tolls, streetcar, ferry, etc., fees over what amount?

Answer 608

$10

Question 609

Can an employee use AirBnB to book short-term lodging?

Answer 609

Yes

Question 610

Can an employee use Expedia, Travelocity, and/or Priceline to book short-term lodging?

Answer 610

No

Question 611

When is an employee entitled to an incidental allowance while traveling?

Answer 611

For each full 24-hour period

Question 612

When shall employee's not claim lunch or incidentals on travel?

Answer 612

When travel is less than 24 hours

Question 613

When an employee who is traveling on state business gets sick, up to how many sick days can a commander approve?

Answer 613

3 days max

Question 614

When may an employee claim additional OT meals?

Answer 614

For each additional 6-hour period.

Question 615

How many OT meals can be claimed in a 24-hour period?

Answer 615

3 max

Question 616

Under what circumstances would an employee be authorized to book a rental car for state related travel?

Answer 616

1. When automobile travel is essential, and... | 2. A state vehicle is not available

Question 617

While employees are generally not entitled to per diem (meal and lodging) expenses while they are in 50 miles of their home location (HQ), under what circumstances would they be entitled to one?

Answer 617

When they're required to remain on duty at a specific location during a declared emergency.

Question 618

Employee's who qualify for relocation status may claim relocation per diem allowances for a maximum of how many days?

Answer 618

60 days

Question 619

Generally, all INVOICES must be sent to FMS (HQ) within how many days of receipt?

Answer 619

3 days

Question 620

The Department does not automatically refund payments of how much, unless what?

Answer 620

1. $5 or less, unless... | 2. The customer requests a refund in WRITING

Question 621

Victims Compensation and Government Claims Board (VCGCB) forms are for claims against the Department in EXCESS of what monetary amount?

Answer 621

$1000

Question 622

When a citizen submits a Victims Compensation and Government Claims Board (VCGCB) form for claims against the Department in excess of $1000, what shall the area prepare and submit to ORM?

Answer 622

A CHP 268, Potential Civil Litigation Report

Question 623

Within how many months of the date of incident shall a citizen file a Victims Compensation and Government Claims Board (VCGCB) claim against the Department?

Answer 623

Within 6 months of the date of incident

Question 624

When a person is filing a claim against the Department for $1000 or less, what form shall they be provided with?

Answer 624

CHP 287, Claims of $1000 or less

Question 625

For property damage claims, when a citizen files a CHP 287, Claims of $1000 or less, against the Department, how many estimates should they normally be requested to provide for substantiation?

Answer 625

2

Question 626

Within how many months of the date of incident should a citizen file a CHP 287, Claims of $1000 or less, against the Department?

Answer 626

Within 6 months of the date of incident **Under certain circumstances, the time frame may be extended for up to a year.

Question 627

What is the Expedited Claim Settlement Program?

Answer 627

A program that entitles local Areas to swiftly mitigate claims of $1000 or less when the Department is clearly liable for the damages.

Question 628

Although the Area has the authority to approve them, claims eligible for the Expedited Claim Settlement Program will be processed through who during normal business hours?

Answer 628

ORM

Question 629

A check issued to a citizen as a result of the Expedited Claim Settlement Program shall be provided to them within how many hours of it being issued?

Answer 629

As soon as practical, but in no case later than 24 hours.

Question 630

When properly served at the Area level, certified copies of records shall be provided within how many days after the receipt of a subpoena for any CRIMINAL action.

Answer 630

5 days

Question 631

When properly served at the Area level, certified copies of records shall be provided within how many days after the receipt of a subpoena for any CIVIL action.

Answer 631

15 days

Question 632

Records that contain personal or confidential information are not to be placed in waste receptacles for normal trash pickup unless they are what?

Answer 632

Cross-shredded

Question 633

What must the Department do when personal or confidential material is destroyed by a private company?

Answer 633

Witness the destruction

Question 634

If arrest logs are PRA'd, how many weeks of arrests shall be turned over?

Answer 634

1 week

Question 635

In regards to PRA's, IF exempt records are WITHHELD, OR information is REDACTED, HOW and WHAT shall the requestor be notified of?

Answer 635

1. Notified in WRITING, of... | 2. The LEGAL BASIS why their request want not fulfilled in its entirety

Question 636

How can a member of the public submit a PRA request?

Answer 636

1. In writing 2. Over the phone 3. In person

Question 637

Who shall fill out the CHP 370C, Public Records Act Request?

Answer 637

Departmental employee

Question 638

What information can the department NOT request from the requestor when they submit a PRA?

Answer 638

1. Name | 2. ID

Question 639

What PRA requests do not need prior approval from ORM before fulfilling?

Answer 639

Arrest logs

Question 640

PRA's shall be responded to/fulfilled within how many days of receiving the request?

Answer 640

10 CALENDAR days

Question 641

In regards to PRA's, in certain circumstances, the Department can extend the the 10-day response/fulfillment requirement by how many additional days?

Answer 641

14 additional days **The extension letter shall be sent within the initial 10-day requirement.

Question 642

When a report is released to an arrestee at an Area office, what information shall be redacted?

Answer 642

1. Home address of victims and witnesses | 2. Telephone numbers of victims and witnesses

Question 643

WHEN is a juvenile arrest report releasable by PRA, and WHAT is it limited to?

Answer 643

1. If they're 14+ years old and have committed a SERIOUS felony 2. Juveniles name and alleged offense(s)

Question 644

Water heaters shall be set at a maximum of what?

Answer 644

105 degrees

Question 645

Interior air (HVAC) shall not be heated above what?

Answer 645

68 degrees

Question 646

Interior air (HVAC) shall not be cooled below what?

Answer 646

78 degrees

Question 647

An earthquake ABOVE what magnitude, within how many MILES of the epicenter, requires an inspection of what at the Area?

Answer 647

1. An earthquake 4.0 and above 2. Within 50 miles of the epicenter 3. Inspection of all lines, tanks, and monitoring systems for leaks and damage

Question 648

In cases involving the return of asset forfeiture funds, interest shall only be disbursed to the litigant under what circumstances?

Answer 648

1. Upon their request, or... | 2. Upon order of the court or local DA

Question 649

In regards to DUI reimbursement/cost recovery, what is a driver's maximum liability?

Answer 649

$12,000

Question 650

Within how many days of receiving the BAC results/conviction information, shall the Area forward the CHP 735, Incident Response Reimbursement Statement, to FMS?

Answer 650

10 BUSINESS days

Question 651

The Department is required to pay invoices within how many days of receipt from the vendor?

Answer 651

45 days

Question 652

When shall a CHP 262, Travel Expense Claim, be submitted instead of an employee using CalATERS?

Answer 652

1. Employee is assigned to a resident post or other office with no internet connectivity. 2. Employee is in transition between commands. 3. Internet connectivity issues exist due to power outages and/or other natural disasters. 4. Employee is requesting reimbursement for relocation costs.

Question 653

In regards to classified materials, who determines the classification level?

Answer 653

1. Owner, or.. 2. Author, or... 3. Originator

Question 654

In regards to classified materials, what are the classification levels (CLeTSS)?

Answer 654

1. Law Enforcement Sensitive 2. Confidential 3. Sensitive 4. Secret 5. Top Secret

Question 655

What shall PETTY CASH funds be used for?

Answer 655

For "minor" purchases (up to $50, excluding tax), necessary for the daily operation of the command.

Question 656

The total "CHANGE FUND" shall be limited to what?

Answer 656

$100

Question 657

The "PETTY CASH" fund shall be limited to what?

Answer 657

$200

Question 658

PETTY CASH purchases shall be limited to what dollar amount?

Answer 658

$50

Question 659

When a shortage of the Area's cash fund is discovered, within how many days of discovery shall FMS be notified?

Answer 659

1 BUSINESS day

Question 660

In regards to the Cal-Card program, the approving official shall not be who?

Answer 660

The card-holder

Question 661

In regards to the Cal-Card program, the loss/theft of the card must be reported within how many HOURS so the Department's LIABILITY is LIMITED to HOW MUCH?

Answer 661

1. Reported within 48 hours, to... | 2. Limit the Department's liability to $50

Question 662

The Cal-Card program is the primary method for obtaining what?

Answer 662

1. Office | 2. Janitorial supplies

Question 663

In regards to the supply requisition schedule, EMERGENCY REQUISITIONS require who's prior approval?

Answer 663

Appropriate AC

Question 664

In regards to the acquisition of items valued at less that $5000, how many price QUOTES are required to be obtained from RESPONSIBLE suppliers?

Answer 664

2

Question 665

Departmental owned equipment is classified under what 3 categories?

Answer 665

1. Major 2. Sensitive 3. Minor

Question 666

In regards to departmental owned equipment, what is considered "MAJOR" equipment?

Answer 666

$5000 or MORE in value

Question 667

In regards to departmental owned equipment, what is considered "SENSITIVE" equipment?

Answer 667

1. A value of LESS than $5000, and... | 2. Requiring stringent accountability controls

Question 668

In regards to departmental owned equipment, what is considered "MINOR" equipment?

Answer 668

1. A value of LESS than $5000, and... | 2. NOT requiring stringent accountability controls

Question 669

In regards to departmental owned equipment, "MAJOR" and "SENSITIVE" equipment have what assigned to them for accountability/tracking controls?

Answer 669

CHP numbered decals

Question 670

In regards to departmental owned equipment, "MINOR" equipment has what assigned to it for accountability/tracking controls?

Answer 670

CHP unnumbered decals

Question 671

In regards to departmental owned equipment, "TAGS" are assigned to what for accountability/tracking controls?

Answer 671

1. Items that have a normal useful life of 4 years, and... | 2. Have a unit acquisition cost of AT LEAST $500

Question 672

How often is a commander required to conduct a physical inventory of all vehicles and equipment in their command?

Answer 672

Annually

Question 673

At the completion of an annual inventory, how shall a commander certify all items were inventoried?

Answer 673

CHP 51 (memo) to Division

Question 674

Missing/lost/stolen "R" numbered equipment shall be reported how often, to whom, and for how many consecutive inventory reporting cycles?

Answer 674

1. Reported quarterly, to... 2. Appropriate AC, for... 3. 5 consecutive inventory reporting cycles

Question 675

Missing/lost/stolen "regular" numbered equipment shall be reported to whom, and for how many consecutive inventory reporting cycles?

Answer 675

1. Reported to the appropriate AC, for... | 2. 3 consecutive inventory reporting cycles

Question 676

Within how many days shall an Area's annual physical inventory be completed?

Answer 676

60 days

Question 677

When changes are made to an Area's inventory, who shall be notified and how shall they be notified?

Answer 677

1. FMS, ICU shall be notified of changes, by... | 2. A CHP 266, Credit Memo

Question 678

At who's discretion is it to allow an employee to reimburse the Department for equipment that is lost or damaged?

Answer 678

Commander

Question 679

When an employee has to prepare a memo describing the state equipment that was lost or damaged, what shall not be disclosed in the memo?

Answer 679

1. Employee's name | 2. ID#

Question 680

When an employee or the commander prepares a memo outlining either the circumstances surrounding the loss or theft of state owned equipment, or a description of the item, within how many days of notification of the incident shall it be prepared?

Answer 680

5 BUSINESS days

Question 681

An Area's SHELF SUPPLY of forms shall not exceed how long?

Answer 681

6 months

Question 682

If an Area receives a shipment of new forms from HQ, forms OLDER THAN HOW LONG shall be destroyed?

Answer 682

1 year

Question 683

Who shall commands use as the PRIMARY shipping carrier for small parcels?

Answer 683

UPS; if they're unavailable, FedEx can be used.

Question 684

When can a local common carrier be used to ship departmental freight?

Answer 684

1. When it falls outside of UPS or FedEx requirements, and... 2. It cannot be shipped via departmental transportation (CHP truck)

Question 685

Can a command keep a supply of temporary BADGES on hand?

Answer 685

No

Question 686

As far as command inspections go, typically what is the scope of all inspections?

Answer 686

1. Typically, at least 10% of each item/category, with a minimum of 10 items/categories per process shall be inspected. 2. If discrepancies are found, and additional 10%, or 10 items/categories shall be inspected. 3. If more discrepancies are found, a full inventory shall be conducted.

Question 687

According to the Command Inspection manual, who is authorized to conduct an AUDIT?

Answer 687

A trained auditor

Question 688

According to the Command Inspection manual, who is authorized to conduct an INSPECTION?

Answer 688

Any member of the Department

Question 689

At minimum, how many CHAPTER INSPECTIONS shall be conducted each calendar year?

Answer 689

2

Question 690

The evidence/property room shall be secured with a what?

Answer 690

Deadbolt

Question 691

The 2 PILLARS of community outreach are what (PP)?

Answer 691

1. Community partnerships | 2. Problem solving

Question 692

The 5 PRINCIPALS of community outreach are (CRIPP)?

Answer 692

1. Responsibility 2. Public support 3. Communication 4. Problem solving 5. Identification of traffic safety problems

Question 693

The application of what 5 things can be used to impact potential problems with traffic safety problems (4 E's and a P)?

Answer 693

1. Enforcement 2. Education 3. Engineering 4. Expectations 5. Partnerships

Question 694

In regards to community outreach, what are the 3 levels of developing trust with community residents (FOI)?

Answer 694

1. Formally 2. On the working level 3. Informally

Question 695

In regards to community outreach, commanders are responsible for what?

Answer 695

Taking the initiative to develop, implement, and support viable community outreach/public relations programs.

Question 696

Who's prior approval does an employee need to participate in parades, community organization celebrations, or advocacy events while on-duty?

Answer 696

Commander

Question 697

Who's prior approval is needed to wear the uniforms, equipment, or any recognizable portions thereof, to any event while off-duty?

Answer 697

Commissioner

Question 698

The Right Turn Program is designed to reach what age group?

Answer 698

Middle school students, ages 11 to 14.

Question 699

The Smart Start Program is designed to reach who?

Answer 699

Teenagers, ages 15-19, and their parents.

Question 700

What are the limitations on the creation of supplemental CHP 415's?

Answer 700

1. No limitation on the number of supplemental documents that can be created, but... 2. The total number of hours cannot exceed 24 hours

Question 701

A minimum of how many minutes may be taken off and charged to CTO?

Answer 701

15 minutes

Question 702

A minimum of how many minutes may be charged to "dock"?

Answer 702

6 minutes

Question 703

A minimum of how many minutes may be charged to "AWOL"?

Answer 703

6 minutes

Question 704

Informal Time Off can only be burned in increments of what?

Answer 704

4 hours

Question 705

The OT "total Activity" must equal, within how many minutes, the OT minus standby, call back, and reimbursable non-worked hours?

Answer 705

5 minutes

Question 706

All commands shall conduct or participate in how many emergency preparedness drills annually?

Answer 706

At least 2

Question 707

What are the 3 types of emergency proclamations?

Answer 707

1. Local emergency 2. State of emergency 3. War emergency

Question 708

According to OES, what are the 5 levels of emergency response (FLORS)?

Answer 708

1. Field response level 2. Local government level 3. Operational area level 4. Regional level 5. State level

Question 709

What does NIMS stand for?

Answer 709

National Incident Management System

Question 710

What does SEMS stand for?

Answer 710

Standardized Emergency Management System

Question 711

NIMS and SEMS require the use of what at the field response level for all incidents?

Answer 711

ICS

Question 712

What should be the maximum the "span-of-control" for CHP ICS operations be?

Answer 712

1 to 8 (1 sergeant to 8 officers)

Question 713

As a rule, what is the "optimum" span-of-control for CH ICS operations?

Answer 713

1 to 5 (1 sergeant to 5 officers)

Question 714

What are the 5 basic ICS functions (FLOP-C)?

Answer 714

1. Finance 2. Logistics 3. Operations 4. Planning and intelligence 5. Command

Question 715

Outside of approved mutual aid requests for assistance, what calls shall CHP personnel respond to?

Answer 715

1. Officer needs assistance | 2. Emergency traffic assistance

Question 716

When would it be necessary to initiate a tactical alert?

Answer 716

When one command needs to alert other commands that an event is occurring, or may occur, which may exceed the originating command's resources.

Question 717

Who may initiate a tactical alert?

Answer 717

1. On-duty supervisor, or... | 2. OIC

Question 718

What are the 5 types of plans the Departments uses to prepare for, respond to, and mitigate anticipated or actual emergency incidents?

Answer 718

1. EOP 2. IAP 3. OP 4. 72-hour self sufficient operations plan 5. EAP

Question 719

In regards to emergency and event planning, what is an EOP used for?

Answer 719

Preparedness documented intended to be read and understood PRIOR to an emergency incident.

Question 720

In regards to emergency and event planning, what is an IAP used for?

Answer 720

Written or verbal plan determined necessary by the IC to mitigate an EXISTING emergency incident.

Question 721

In regards to emergency and event planning, what is an OP used for?

Answer 721

Used for one SCHEDULED or ANTICIPATED event requiring non-routine deployment of CHP personnel.

Question 722

In regards to emergency and event planning, what is a 72-hour self sufficient operations plan used for?

Answer 722

Works under the assumption that operational assistance will not be available for 72 hours following a major disaster.

Question 723

In regards to emergency and event planning, what is an EAP used for?

Answer 723

A facility-specific plan designed to assist employees with planning for and responding to an emergency AT THEIR HEADQUARTERS.

Question 724

In regards to emergency incident reporting and documentation, when would it be appropriate to complete an after action MEMO?

Answer 724

1. CHP personnel respond to an emergency incident within their Division, or... 2. Division/Area commander participates in an emergency exercise.

Question 725

In regards to emergency incident reporting and documentation, when would it be appropriate to complete an after action REPORT?

Answer 725

At the conclusion of a tactical alert

Question 726

Within how many days of the conclusion of a localized emergency operation shall the after action MEMO be submitted to Division?

Answer 726

30 CALENDAR days

Question 727

Within how many days of the conclusion of a tactical alert shall the after action REPORT be submitted to Division?

Answer 727

60 CALENDAR days

Question 728

In regards to emergency incident reporting and documentation, an after action MEMO shall be divided into what 3 sections (FOI)?

Answer 728

1. Incident summary 2. Financial summary 3. Operational critique

Question 729

A mobile field force is comprised of how many personnel?

Answer 729

1. A minimum of 52 people, and... | 2. 14 general purpose patrol vehicles

Question 730

When are agencies allowed to exceed the minimum number of 52 people to form a mobile field force?

Answer 730

When it's agreed up DURING the request process

Question 731

Generally, what percentage of available on-duty personnel will accommodate a mutual aid request?

Answer 731

50%

Question 732

In regards to civil disturbances, when deployed in a tactical formation, the STANDARD holding position of the baton should be what?

Answer 732

The long extended holding position

Question 733

In regards to civil disturbances, when confronting PASSIVE RESISTERS, generally, the standard holding position of the baton should be what?

Answer 733

1. Secured in the ring, or... | 2. Basic tuck position

Question 734

In regards to civil disturbances, when confronting ACTIVE RESISTERS, generally, the standard holding position of the baton should be what?

Answer 734

The long extended holding position

Question 735

In regards to civil disturbances, prior to utilizing pain compliance through control holds to disentangle demonstrators, what shall be given?

Answer 735

A lawful order to disperse

Question 736

In regards to civil disturbances, when confronting ASSAULTIVE RESISTERS, generally, the standard holding position of the baton should be what?

Answer 736

The long extended holding position

Question 737

In regards to tactical formations and mobile tactics, a SQUAD is normally comprised of what?

Answer 737

1. 1 sergeant | 2. 11 officers

Question 738

In regards to tactical formations and mobile tactics, a PLATOON is normally comprised of what?

Answer 738

1. 2-3 squads | 2. 1 lieutenant

Question 739

In regards to tactical formations and mobile tactics, a COMPANY is normally comprised of what?

Answer 739

1. Minimum of 4 squads 2. 2 lieutenants 3. 1 commander

Question 740

In regards to tactical formations and mobile tactics, a BATTALION is normally comprised of what?

Answer 740

1. 2+ companies 2. 1 commander 3. 1 assistant chief or higher

Question 741

What are the 5 tactical formations (SEL-CC)?

Answer 741

1. Column of files 2. Line formation 3. Encirclement 4. Separation 5. Crossbow

Question 742

During a civil disturbance, if a person between the ages of 12-17 is NOT arrested, but in the company of an adult who is, what may happen to them?

Answer 742

They may be released to a responsible adult provided the parent or guardian gives WRITTEN consent.

Question 743

During a civil disturbance, if a person under the age of 12 is NOT arrested, but in the company of an adult who is, what shall happen to them?

Answer 743

The shall be transported to a CPS facility or released to a CPS agency rep.

Question 744

What training is required to be completed before a person can perform the duties of a grenadier during a civil disturbance?

Answer 744

1. Chemical Agents/Specialty Munitions Familiarization course, and... 2. Annual Grenadier Training Course

Question 745

If chemical agents and/or specialty weapons are deployed during a civil disturbance, how shall it be documented?

Answer 745

1. In the after-action report/memo, and... | 2. On all applicable departmental forms/programs

Question 746

The primary mission of the SRT is what?

Answer 746

To maintain safety and security for all, including those expressing their 1st Amendment rights.

Question 747

Each SRT should strive for a response time of what, to get to their pre-determined staging area?

Answer 747

2 hours

Question 748

SRT will normally be comprised of what?

Answer 748

1. 5 squads 2. 1 grenadier squad 3. Support squad

Question 749

For employees interested in joining SRT, who shall they submit a memo to?

Answer 749

Area commander

Question 750

Assignments to, and removal from SRT, will be at who's discretion?

Answer 750

Division commander

Question 751

Selection as an SRT grenadier requires who's approval and/or recommendation?

Answer 751

1. Area commander 2. Grenadier sergeant 3. SRT and Division commanders

Question 752

SRT grenadiers are authorized to deploy what specialty weapons?

Answer 752

1. 12-gauge shotgun with kinetic energy munitions 2. 37mm launcher 3. 40mm launcher 4. Tactical smoke

Question 753

When, and against whom, are target specific (i.e. 12-gauge shotgun with kinetic energy munitions and 40mm launcher) specialty weapons, authorized to be used?

Answer 753

1. Only authorized to be deployed against a DIRECT THREAT, when... 2. Grenadier has a clear unobstructed target and is reasonably sure innocent bystanders will not be struck.

Question 754

During a SRT deployment, who's approval is needed prior to deploying chemical agents?

Answer 754

On-scene SRT manager, unless deadly force is authorized.

Question 755

In regards to SRT, an Disentanglement Team is comprised of what?

Answer 755

1. 1 team leader; sergeant 2. 7 team members; officers 3. 3 alternates; 1 sergeant and 2 officers

Question 756

What are the 3 basic types of evidence?

Answer 756

1. Testimonial 2. Documentary 3. Physical

Question 757

Controlled substances (related to a single case), in excess of what, may be destroyed without a court order?

Answer 757

10 pounds

Question 758

In regards to evidence, packages containing controlled substances and money shall be sealed with what?

Answer 758

Blue sensitive item serialized evidence tape strips

Question 759

When evidence is booked incorrectly, what shall the evidence officer do upon returning it to the booking officer?

Answer 759

Send an email with instructions to the booking officer and their supervisor

Question 760

When booking evidence that requires the use of blue sensitive item serialized evidence tape strips, where shall the tapes serial number be noted?

Answer 760

In the evidence management software system

Question 761

Drugs with a street value of what amount, or greater, shall not be stored in a temporary storage locker?

Answer 761

$10,000

Question 762

How shall nylon tie, flex-cuffs, be looped through semi-automatic firearms when they are booked into evidence?

Answer 762

Looped through the magazine well and out through the ejection port.

Question 763

How shall nylon tie, flex-cuffs, be looped through revolvers when they are booked into evidence?

Answer 763

Looped through the cylinder and trigger guard.

Question 764

What 6 purposes does a CHP 36 serve?

Answer 764

1. Record 2. Receipt 3. Report 4. Notice 5. Declaration 6. Affidavit

Question 765

CHP 36 forms shall be retained for how long?

Answer 765

The life of the evidence, plus 5 years.

Question 766

The DOJ APS system is primarily used for what?

Answer 766

Tracking stolen, lost, and found serialized property.

Question 767

The DOJ AFS system is used for what?

Answer 767

Tracking all FIREARMS and CEW's coming into the possession of the Department, whether found, seized as evidence, or held for safekeeping.

Question 768

The case status on misdemeanor/infraction evidence shall be checked when?

Answer 768

After 6 months

Question 769

The case status on felony evidence shall be checked when?

Answer 769

1 year after booking, and every year thereafter

Question 770

In the event the appropriate prosecutor declines to file a case, the evidence shall be disposed of how many days after the date of arrest?

Answer 770

90 days

Question 771

Within how many days of receiving the adjudication records, shall the court officer forward them to the evidence officer?

Answer 771

2 days

Question 772

In the event a suspect is NOT known, there is no reasonable chance they'll be identified, and no further investigation will be conducted, what may happen to the associated case evidence?

Answer 772

It may be disposed of with the concurrence of the investigating officer and a supervisor.

Question 773

In regards to cases pending adjudication, when the case involves an offense which is punishable by death, or involves the embezzlement of public money or falsification of public documents, how long shall the evidence be held for?

Answer 773

Indefinitely

Question 774

In regards to cases pending adjudication, when the case involves felony sexual offenses, how long shall the evidence be held for?

Answer 774

10 years

Question 775

In regards to cases pending adjudication, when the case involves offenses punishable by imprisonment for 8+ years, how long shall the evidence be held for?

Answer 775

6 years

Question 776

In regards to cases pending adjudication, when the case involves 386 PC felonies (theft and abuse of elders), how long shall the evidence be held for?

Answer 776

5 years

Question 777

In regards to cases pending adjudication, when the case involves offenses punishable by imprisonment in state prison, how long shall the evidence be held for?

Answer 777

3 years

Question 778

In regards to cases pending adjudication, when the case involves misdemeanor/infractions offenses (except 647.6 PC and 729 BP), how long shall the evidence be held for?

Answer 778

1 year

Question 779

How long shall evidence from threshold incidents be retained for?

Answer 779

At least 10 years

Question 780

In regards to adjudicated cases, felony evidence shall continue to be held for how many days, until the period of appeals has expired?

Answer 780

90 days

Question 781

In regards to adjudicated cases, misdemeanor evidence shall continue to be held for how many days, until the period of appeals has expired?

Answer 781

60 days

Question 782

In regards to adjudicated cases, evidence from juvenile cases shall continue to be held for how many days, until the period of appeals has expired?

Answer 782

90 days

Question 783

In regards to evidence, what are the 8 approved methods of evidence disposal?

Answer 783

1. Return to owner/finder 2. Recycle 3. Sale or auction 4. Departmental use 5. Donations to charity 6. Destruction 7. Discard; items of little or no value 8. Other claims of ownership; civil, pawn, insurance company

Question 784

All firearms shall be held locally for how many days prior to disposal?

Answer 784

180 days

Question 785

Lost/found property shall be held for how many days prior to disposal?

Answer 785

90 days

Question 786

Property, with a KNOWN owner, shall be held for how many days prior to disposal?

Answer 786

60 days

Question 787

In regards to found property, if the value of the property is LESS than $250 and remains unclaimed after 90 days, what may happen?

Answer 787

It may be given to the finder.

Question 788

In regards to found property, if the value of the property is MORE than $250 and remains unclaimed after 90 days, what must happen?

Answer 788

1. The evidence officer must place an ad describing the property in a local newspaper for 1 day. 2. If the item is still unclaimed after 7 days from the date of public notice, it shall be given to the finder after payment for the ad cost.

Question 789

How long is the Department required to hold property if the owner informs us they cannot pick up the property within the 60 day time frame?

Answer 789

An additional 10 months (totaling, but NOT exceeding 12 months).

Question 790

What is required prior to the destruction of controlled substances?

Answer 790

A court order

Question 791

If the Department confiscated someones firearm per a 5150 WI hold, and the person is released from the facility and informs the Department of their desire to retrieve their firearm, how long does the Department have to file a petition with the court for a hearing to determine whether the return of the the firearm would be likely to result in endangering the person or others?

Answer 791

30 days

Question 792

Weapons seized out of DV incidents shall be held for at least how long?

Answer 792

48 hours

Question 793

With the exception of cases where the Department believes returning a firearm to a DV suspect would likely endanger the victim or person reporting the assault or threat, firearms sized out of DV incidents shall be returned to the owner within how many days of the seizure?

Answer 793

5 BUSINESS days

Question 794

In the event the Department wants to appeal a court ordered release of a weapon (for crimes not related to 5150 WI), within how many days of learning of the owners intention to retrieve the weapon, shall the commander request a hearing/appeal with the judge who issued the order?

Answer 794

10 days

Question 795

INSPECTIONS of the property (evidence) system shall be conducted how often?

Answer 795

Quarterly

Question 796

How many unscheduled (unannounced) inspections of the property (evidence) system shall the commander conduct per calendar year?

Answer 796

At least one

Question 797

INVENTORIES of the property (evidence) system shall be conducted how often?

Answer 797

Annually

Question 798

When shall a property (evidence) INVENTORY be conducted?

Answer 798

1. Change of command 2. Change of property officer(s) 3. Any time there is doubt as to the integrity of the system

Question 799

In addition to conducting a 100% INVENTORY, whenever a change of property (evidence) officer(s) occurs, what shall happen?

Answer 799

The locks shall be changed

Question 800

When a vehicle is towed for evidence, and a CHP 36 is completed, how, and where, shall the "chain of custody" portion of the CHP 36 form be placed?

Answer 800

1. It shall be placed in a plastic CHP evidence bag, and... | 2. Placed in a conspicuous location within the vehicle

Question 801

When a vehicle is towed for evidence, within how many hours shall the evidence officer notify the local DA of the impound?

Answer 801

72 hours

Question 802

In addition to notifying the local DA of an evidence vehicle impound within 72 hours, what else shall the DA be notified of?

Answer 802

Whether there was an in-custody arrest or no arrest made

Question 803

When a vehicle impounded for evidence is no longer needed as evidence, how shall the Department notify the R/O or L/O?

Answer 803

1. In writing, by... | 2. CERTIFIED mail, return receipt requested

Question 804

In regards to DUI, what are the 3 phases of detection and evaluation of drivers?

Answer 804

1. Phase one - vehicle in motion 2. Phase two - personal contact 3. Phase three - pre arrest screening

Question 805

What the the 3 standardized FST's?

Answer 805

1. HGN 2. Walk and Turn 3. One-leg stand

Question 806

When using the 3 standardized FST's to evaluate a driver, what is the reliability rate for identifying drivers "at or above" the legal BAC limit?

Answer 806

90%

Question 807

How many validated clues are there in HGN?

Answer 807

6

Question 808

How many validated clues are there in the Walk and Turn?

Answer 808

8

Question 809

How many validated clues are there in the One-leg stand?

Answer 809

4

Question 810

When a subject is arrested for an alcohol or drug DUI, and an Admin Per Se (APS) action is not applicable (i.e. BAC below .08 if the are 21+ years old, and/or the subject submits to a chemical test), what are the only things that should be forwarded to the DMV?

Answer 810

1. 1st and 2nd page of the DS 367 or DS 367M, | 2. Copy of the relevant report

Question 811

When a subject is arrested for an alcohol or drug DUI, and an Admin Per Se (APS) action is not applicable (i.e. BAC below .08 if the are 21+ years old, and/or the subject submits to a chemical test), what happens to the CA DL and/or the pink copy of the DS 367 or DS 367M?

Answer 811

1. The DL shall not be confiscated | 2. The pink copy shall not be served

Question 812

When an officer contacts a commercial driver with a BAC of .01, but less than .04, what shall they do?

Answer 812

1. Issue the driver a CHP 215 for 34506.3 CVC 2. Order the driver out-of-service for 24-hours 3. Make a notation in the log book

Question 813

When do Admin Per Se requirements apply to commercial drivers?

Answer 813

BAC of .04 or greater.

Question 814

What is 23136 CVC?

Answer 814

It's unlawful for a person under the age of 21, who has a BAC of .01 or greater (measured by a PAS or other chemical test), to drive a vehicle.

Question 815

What is 23140 CVC?

Answer 815

It's unlawful for a person under the age of 21, who has a BAC of .05+ (measured by a PAS or other chemical test), to drive a vehicle.

Question 816

What is 23154 CVC?

Answer 816

It's unlawful for a person on DUI probation, who has a BAC of .01+ (measured by PAS or other chemical test), to drive a vehicle.

Question 817

CVC's 23136, 23140, and 23154, are punishable as what?

Answer 817

Infractions

Question 818

CVC's 23136, 23140, and 23154, shall only be enforced when the violations are corroborated by what?

Answer 818

1. PAS, or... | 2. Chemical test

Question 819

40300.5 CVC is not applicable to what violations?

Answer 819

1. CVC 23136 2. CVC 23140 3. CVC 23154

Question 820

What is 23550 CVC?

Answer 820

Makes a CONVICTION for 23152 CVC punishable as a felony, IF the offense occurs within 10 years of 3+ DUI related convictions.

Question 821

What is 23550.5 CVC?

Answer 821

Makes a DUI conviction occurring within 10 years of a PRIOR FELONY DUI conviction, or anytime after a specified vehicular manslaughter conviction, punishable as a FELONY.

Question 822

While 40300.5 CVC applies to 21200 CVC (bicycle DUI), what does NOT apply in this situation?

Answer 822

13353 CVC, Refusal of chemical tests.

Question 823

What is 21200 CVC?

Answer 823

Bicycle DUI

Question 824

In regards to APS hearings, chemical test results shall be forwarded to the DMV within how many days of receipt?

Answer 824

15 CALENDAR days

Question 825

In regards to APS, are CA DL's confiscated when the driver is arrested for a drug DUI?

Answer 825

No

Question 826

When are PAS accuracy checks conducted?

Answer 826

1. Every 10 calendar days, or... 2. 150 tests **Whichever comes first

Question 827

Prior to conducting a sobriety checkpoint, within how many weeks of the event shall the Area submit the operations plan to Division?

Answer 827

1 week

Question 828

While operating a checkpoint, employees shall wear what while in public view?

Answer 828

1. Full uniform, including... | 2. Campaign hat

Question 829

Sobriety checkpoints should normally run for how many hours?

Answer 829

4-6

Question 830

At the completion of each sobriety checkpoint, within how many hours are Areas required to send the applicable paperwork to Division?

Answer 830

48 hours

Question 831

In regards to sobriety checkpoints, how many hours PRIOR TO the operation are Areas required to provide a printed news release?

Answer 831

48 hours

Question 832

In regards to sobriety checkpoints, specific checkpoint locations shall not be released sooner than how many hours prior to the operation?

Answer 832

2 hours

Question 833

In regards to sobriety checkpoints, how many warning signs shall be used when setting up the operation?

Answer 833

At least 6

Question 834

In regards to Boating Under the Influence arrests, a CHP officer's probable cause to arrest a subject may be based solely on what?

Answer 834

Information obtained from a commissioned, warrant, or petty officer of the US Coast Guard who directly observed the offense.

Question 835

What 4 modes does the Explorer Program simultaneously operate in (SOFT)?

Answer 835

1. Training 2. Operational support 3. Fundraising 4. Social

Question 836

Level 1 Explorer training is comprised of what?

Answer 836

48-hour curriculum conducted at the area level; required for ride-a-longs.

Question 837

Level 2 Explorer training is comprised of what?

Answer 837

16-hour block dedicated to CPR and first-aid, at the area level.

Question 838

Level 3 Explorer training is comprised of what?

Answer 838

7-day, live-in Academy; held annually during the summer.

Question 839

Level 4 Explorer training is comprised of what?

Answer 839

6-day, live-in Academy; designed as the final component in preparation for Explorers transitioning to Cadet.

Question 840

Donations received by the Explorer post shall be deposited into the post account within how many hours of receipt?

Answer 840

72 hours

Question 841

In regards to the Explorer Program, what position does the Area Commander hold in the organizational chart?

Answer 841

The commander chairs the Advisory Committee for the post.

Question 842

In regards to the Explorer Program, the Area Commander is responsible for appointing who?

Answer 842

1. A post coordinator, and... | 2. A post advisor

Question 843

In regards to the Explorer Program, the Area shall have how many post advisors?

Answer 843

1

Question 844

In regards to the Explorer Program, the post coordinator shall be at least what rank?

Answer 844

Sergeant or above

Question 845

In regards to the Explorer Program, who can serve as Associate Post Advisors?

Answer 845

Anyone approved by the Area Commander, who is at least 21 years old, and who has registered with Learning for Life.

Question 846

In regards to the Explorer Program, what are the requirements to be an Explorer?

Answer 846

1. 15-21 years old; age out at 21 2. No felony arrests or convictions 3. Minimum 2.0 GPA 4. In good standing with work, family, and school

Question 847

In regards to the Explorer Program, what are the limits on a suspension and who's concurrence is needed?

Answer 847

1. The concurrence of the Area commander is needed | 2. The suspension shall not exceed 6 months

Question 848

In regards to the Explorer Program, who's authorization is needed for the disbursement of funds in excess of $1,000?

Answer 848

Area Commander

Question 849

In regards to the Explorer Program, who's authorization is needed for the disbursement of funds in excess of $5,000?

Answer 849

Division Commander

Question 850

In regards to the Explorer Program, who's authorization is needed for the disbursement of funds in excess of $10,000?

Answer 850

Board of Directors

Question 851

In regards to the Explorer Program, what are the advisor requirements when taking the Explorers on trips or outings?

Answer 851

1. 2 leaders, at least 21 years or older, are required on all trips or outings. 2. If male and female Explorers are present, the advisors shall be male and female.

Question 852

In regards to the Explorer program, who's authorization is needed to take the Explorers on LOCAL trips or outings within the Division?

Answer 852

Area Commander

Question 853

In regards to the Explorer program, who's authorization is needed to take the Explorers on out-of-state trips or outings?

Answer 853

1. The appropriate AC, and... | 2. Commissioner

Question 854

In regards to the Explorer Program, what shall be obtained prior to conducting travel UNDER 500 miles?

Answer 854

A Learning for Life LOCAL outing permit

Question 855

In regards to the Explorer Program, what shall be obtained prior to conducting travel OVER 500 miles?

Answer 855

A NATIONAL outing permit

Question 856

In regards to the Explorer Program, Explorers shall not operate marked patrol vehicles in public view unless what?

Answer 856

1. It's during authorized competitions, and... | 2. Prior approval has been approved through the Board of Directors

Question 857

In regards to the Explorer Program, uniform inspections shall be conducted how often?

Answer 857

Annually

Question 858

What court case has been used to establish the legal standard regarding the use of force?

Answer 858

Graham vs. Connor

Question 859

According to Graham vs. Connor, "the reasonableness of a particular use of force..." must be judged from what?

Answer 859

"...The perspective of a reasonable officer on the scene, rather than with the 20/20 vision on hindsight..."

Question 860

An officer is authorized to use deadly force when?

Answer 860

1. Defend themselves or other from an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury. 2. Apprehension of a person reasonably believed to have committed a felony involving the use or threatened use of deadly force; except for a vehicle ADW. 3. Apprehension of a person who has committed a vehicle ADW and it's reasonably believed it resulted in serious injury or death.

Question 861

What are the 7 use of force options (BALD-PEC)?

Answer 861

1. Control holds 2. Aerosol subject restraint 3. Baton 4. Electronic control device (CEW) 5. Less-lethal shotgun 6. Personal weapons 7. Deadly force

Question 862

Whenever a firearm, baton, aerosol subject restraint, personal weapon, or other defensive instrument is used in an enforcement situation, what CHP document shall be completed?

Answer 862

A CHP 268, Potential Civil Litigation Report

Question 863

When the use of a control hold or handcuffs on an individual results in an apparent, complaint, or subsequent claim, of injury, what CHP document shall be completed?

Answer 863

A CHP 268, Potential Civil Litigation Report

Question 864

When high-risk or felony procedures are used and the subject is later found to be an innocent party, what CHP document shall be completed?

Answer 864

A CHP 268, Potential Civil Litigation Report

Question 865

Under what 2 circumstances would an officers be justified in placing their finger on the trigger of their firearm when displayed?

Answer 865

1. When actually firing the firearm | 2. When the firearm is pointed at an identified target and the use of deadly force is justified

Question 866

When is an officer justified in firing warning shots?

Answer 866

1. Under the same circumstances where the use of deadly force is justified, and... 2. It's not likely to endanger innocent persons

Question 867

The departmental shooting policy shall be reviewed when, and by who?

Answer 867

1. Quarterly | 2. By everyone at the rank of sergeant and below

Question 868

When conducting a standard enforcement stop, the desired minimum stopping behind the violators vehicle is what?

Answer 868

10 feet

Question 869

When conducting a felony enforcement stop, the desired minimum stopping behind the violators vehicle is what?

Answer 869

30 feet

Question 870

21055 CVC grants operators of authorized emergency vehicles exemptions to the rules of the road when the vehicle displays a red light visible to the front and the siren is activated as reasonably necessary in conjunction with one or more of what 4 things?

Answer 870

1. Response to an emergency call 2. While engaged in rescue operations 3. In the immediate pursuit of an actual or suspected violator of the law 4. In response to, but not returning from, a fire alarm.

Question 871

What are the 6 legal intervention/forcible stop options?

Answer 871

1. Channelization 2. Roadblocks 3. Ramming/PIT 4. Hollow-spike strip 5. Boxing-in 6. Use of firearms

Question 872

The departmental pursuit policy shall be reviewed when, and by who?

Answer 872

1. Quarterly | 2. By everyone at the rank of sergeant and below

Question 873

How is the firearm displayed, and what is the finger placement during a "HIGH RISK" stop?

Answer 873

1. Firearms displayed at the "LOW READY" position | 2. Finger OFF the trigger

Question 874

How is the firearm displayed, and what is the finger placement during a "FELONY" stop?

Answer 874

1. Firearms displayed at the "READY" position, pointed at the subject 2. Finger OFF the trigger

Question 875

During officer safety training and certification exercises, the commander shall ensure the ratio of instructors to officers is what?

Answer 875

1 to 10 (1 instructor to 10 officers)

Question 876

What are the 2 approved methods of misdemeanor control holds?

Answer 876

1. Twist lock | 2. Bent wrist

Question 877

What are the 2 approved arrest techniques for misdemeanors?

Answer 877

1. Standing/kneeling twist lock | 2. Bent wrist

Question 878

What are the 2 approved arrest techniques for felonies?

Answer 878

1. Kneeling twist lock | 2. Prone hand switch or step over

Question 879

In the rare event a stip/body cavity search is required, what shall be obtained PRIOR to conducting?

Answer 879

WRITTEN authorization from the on-duty supervisor

Question 880

What is the optimal deployment range for the less-lethal shotgun?

Answer 880

5-60 feet

Question 881

The ECD/CEW holster shall only be placed on the duty belt in what one of two places?

Answer 881

1. On support side | 2. On primary side, IN FRONT OF primary duty pistol holster

Question 882

What is the optimum deployment range for the ECD/CEW?

Answer 882

7-15 feet

Question 883

What is the maximum effective deployment range for the ECD/CEW?

Answer 883

25 feet

Question 884

What is the minimum effective deployment range for the ECD/CEW?

Answer 884

0 inches

Question 885

ECD's/CEW's shall be downloaded how often, and the records shall be retained for how long?

Answer 885

1. ECD's/CEW's shall be downloaded each month | 2. Records shall be retained for the life of the device PLUS 10 years

Question 886

In regards to K-9 officers, when utilizing a "dual purpose" K-9, at minimum, how many verbal warning should be given prior to releasing the K-9?

Answer 886

2

Question 887

In regards to K-9 officers, when utilizing a "dual purpose" K-9 to locate a juvenile suspect, who's approval is required to be obtained PRIOR utilizing the K-9?

Answer 887

1. The field supervisor, and/or... | 2. The K-9 team supervisor

Question 888

In regards to the firearm policy, what are officers required to have when traveling in marked patrol vehicles, regardless of destination or attire?

Answer 888

Their primary firearm

Question 889

Under what circumstances would an officer be authorized to only carry their secondary weapon in lieu of their primary firearm.

Answer 889

When they are traveling to, during, and returning from court in civilian attire, in a privately owned vehicle.

Question 890

When authorized to fly arm, what shall uniformed employees carry in conjunction with their badge?

Answer 890

1. Their ID card with "POLICE" printed on the front | 2. DL

Question 891

Uniformed employees who have to fly armed are prohibited from consuming alcohol for how many hours prior to flying?

Answer 891

8 hours

Question 892

Prior to flying armed, uniformed employees shall obtain what from the TSA?

Answer 892

2 alphanumeric identifiers (1 for departure and 1 for return)

Question 893

In regards to shooting qualification and training, how many primary firearm shoots shall uniformed employees have per year?

Answer 893

12

Question 894

In regards to shooting qualification and training, of the 12 required annual shoots, how many are required to be conducted during the hours of darkness?

Answer 894

2

Question 895

In regards to shooting qualification and training, of the 12 required annual shoots, how many are required to incorporate tactical movement during the shoot?

Answer 895

1

Question 896

For employees who have been involved in shooting incidents, what are they required to obtain prior to retuning to full duty?

Answer 896

A qualifying score on the TOQC - Primary Firearm

Question 897

Uniformed employees are required to qualify with the primary firearm how often?

Answer 897

Annually

Question 898

How many SHOTGUN rounds shall be fired by officers and sergeants QUARTERLY?

Answer 898

18

Question 899

Sergeants and officers are required to qualify with the SHOTGUN how often?

Answer 899

2 times per year

Question 900

How many RIFLE rounds shall be fired by officers and sergeants QUARTERLY?

Answer 900

60

Question 901

Sergeants and officers are required to qualify with the RIFLE how often?

Answer 901

2 times per year

Question 902

In regards to shooting qualification and training, how many rifle practice shoots shall be held per year?

Answer 902

1. At least 2, with... | 2. 1 being required to happen during the hours of darkness

Question 903

While employees who are off duty for 3+ months may be exempt from making up all required shoots, what shall they complete prior to returning to duty?

Answer 903

A qualification course with a qualifying score

Question 904

An employee shall not expend over how many rounds in any single training session?

Answer 904

100

Question 905

Black bottom magazines shall be used in how many training sessions per year?

Answer 905

At least 1

Question 906

Each command shall maintain a spare supply of duty magazines equal to what % of the uniformed command?

Answer 906

5%

Question 907

How often shall departmental pistols be completely disassembled by the Area's certified weapons inspection officer?

Answer 907

Once yearly

Question 908

Approximately how long after the Area's certified weapons inspection officer completely disassembles the pistol, shall second "field strip" inspection take place?

Answer 908

Approximately 6 months after

Question 909

Departmental shotguns shall be inspected and cleaned how often?

Answer 909

Quarterly

Question 910

Departmental rifles shall be inspected and cleaned how often?

Answer 910

Quarterly

Question 911

In regards to carrying personally owned rifled magazines while on-duty, how many can an employee carry and what is the round capacity?

Answer 911

1. An employee can carry up to 2 magazines | 2. 20-round capacity

Question 912

In regards to "modified training firearms", how are they distinctively marked?

Answer 912

1. Grips painted red | 2. Barrel ends are painted red

Question 913

In regards to "modified training shotguns", how are they distinctively marked?

Answer 913

1. Butt stock painted red | 2. Fore-end are painted red

Question 914

Who may be authorized to purchase their primary firearm upon separation from the Department?

Answer 914

1. Those who retire honorably after 120 months of service | 2. Those who disability retire (unrelated to mental or emotional disorder)

Question 915

Within how many days of their effective retirement date shall an employee inform the Department of their intention to purchase their primary firearm?

Answer 915

30 CALENDAR days

Question 916

Within how many days of a line of duty death, shall the spouse/domestic partner of the deceased, inform the Area commander in writing of their desire to purchase the primary firearm?

Answer 916

30 days

Question 917

How many less-lethal rounds shall be fired by employees annually?

Answer 917

2

Question 918

When using Non-Lethal Training Ammunition during scenarios, a minimum of how many training instructors shall be present?

Answer 918

2

Question 919

In regards to the motor program, an employee is not eligible for motor training if their most recent CHP 118 or CHP 118S reflects what?

Answer 919

A rating of substandard in any critical task

Question 920

In regards to the motor program, applicants who fail to complete the training program (motor school) due to lack of riding skills must wait a minimum of how long before returning?

Answer 920

6 months

Question 921

In regards to the motor program, commanders are discouraged from sending applicant back to motor school after how many unsuccessful attempts?

Answer 921

3

Question 922

In regards to the motor program, candidates will be denied training if their weight (in full uniform) exceeds what?

Answer 922

The motorcycle manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of any motorcycle currently used by the Department.

Question 923

In regards to the motor program, mow many pounds must candidates be able to properly lift?

Answer 923

Approximately 700-850 pounds

Question 924

In regards to the motor program, while candidates are sitting astride on the motorcycle, they must be able to back the motorcycle up what?

Answer 924

A 6% grade for a distance of at least 3 feet

Question 925

In regards to the motor program, what is a Category 1 rider?

Answer 925

One who is presently capable of performing motorcycle enforcement duty.

Question 926

In regards to the motor program, what is a Category 2 rider?

Answer 926

One who is on a 1-year probationary period; will be assigned a CMTO for a 240-hour training period upon completing motor school.

Question 927

In regards to the motor program, what is a Category 3 rider?

Answer 927

One who does not meet riding standards or physical requirements; shall not be assigned to motorcycle enforcement duty.

Question 928

In regards to the motor program, when does a Category 2 rider attain Category 1 status?

Answer 928

When they are assigned to permanent motorcycle and have worked a minimum of 1,680 hours during the 1-year probationary period.

Question 929

In regards to the motor program, new riders should complete their 240-hours CMTO training within how many days after graduating motor school?

Answer 929

Within 60 days from the first day of the pay period following completion of motor school.

Question 930

In regards to the motor program, when new riders with previous departmental riding time are authorized to have their 240-hour CMTO period shortened, the new CMTO period shall not be less than how many hours?

Answer 930

160 hours

Question 931

In regards to the motor program, what are the 4 ways of rider can be removed from motorcycle duty?

Answer 931

1. Voluntary 2. Involuntary 3. Temporary re-assignment 4. Motorcycle reduction

Question 932

In regards to the the motor program, within how many days of a collision involving a departmental motorcycle shall the applicable reports be forwarded to the Academy?

Answer 932

10 days

Question 933

In regards to the motor program, the sergeant and/or lieutenant shall inspect the motorcycles at a minimum of what?

Answer 933

Once per month

Question 934

In regards to the motor program, Area Commanders shall conduct a physical inspection of what, when what takes place?

Answer 934

1. The employee's storage facility (garage), whenever... 2. A rider is newly assigned, or... 3. A change of residence is made

Question 935

In regards to the motor program, at least how many days shall pass between the next required inspection by a supervisor?

Answer 935

20 days

Question 936

The maximum travel distance from residence to work for non-command employees using a state motorcycle shall not exceed what?

Answer 936

50 miles

Question 937

In regards to the motor program, Areas shall have how many CMTO's?

Answer 937

At least 1

Question 938

In regards to the Senior Volunteer Program, when volunteer's are suspended, what are the limitations?

Answer 938

They shall not be suspended for more than 10 WORK days

Question 939

In regards to the flag policy, when may flags be flown 24 hours a day?

Answer 939

1. When they are properly illuminated during the hours of darkness, and... 2. The office is occupied

Question 940

In addition to the Colors (US Flag) and the CA State flag, what other flags may be displayed at departmental facilities?

Answer 940

1. CHP flag 2. POW/MIA flag 3. Service flag (Blue Star flag)

Question 941

What is the only authorized flag that can be used at the scene of a line-of-duty death?

Answer 941

The 5 x 7 1/2 foot cotton California "Bear" Flag

Question 942

In regards to the flag policy, no more than how many flags shall be flown on a single staff at one time?

Answer 942

4

Question 943

In regards to the flag policy, what does a ceremonial hand salute to the flag consist of?

Answer 943

Raising the right hand slowly (four second count)

Question 944

In regards to the flag policy, what does a traditional hand salute to the flag consist of?

Answer 944

Raising the right hand quickly and firmly

Question 945

How many California State Flags are commanders authorized to requisition and maintain for use at the scene of a line-of-duty deaths ?

Answer 945

Maximum of 3

Question 946

If the line-of-duty death involves an officer from an allied agency, who's approval shall be obtained before draping the body with a California State Flag?

Answer 946

From the command element of the fallen officer's agency

Question 947

In the event of a death in the immediate family of a departmental employee, a total of how many uniformed/non-uniformed employees may attend the funeral on state time with approval from the commander?

Answer 947

4 uniformed/non-uniformed

Question 948

Within how many hours of a line of duty death shall the Area commander complete a CHP 162A, Peace Officer Funeral Worksheet, and forward it to the Academy and the Commissioner's Office?

Answer 948

Within 24 hours hours of the notification fo death

Question 949

What are the 4 types of work uniforms authorized to be worn?

Answer 949

1. Formal 2. Work 3. Utility 4. Cold Weather

Question 950

All employees, regardless of rank, shall maintain what type(s) of work uniform(s)?

Answer 950

1. Formal uniform | 2. Long sleeved utility uniform

Question 951

When the green jacket is worn, what shall be worn in conjunction with it?

Answer 951

1. Long sleeved shirt | 2. Tie

Question 952

When operating patrol vehicles, what uniform item are employees to have readily available within the patrol vehicle?

Answer 952

The campaign hat (felt or straw)

Question 953

Under what 3 circumstances shall the campaign hat be worn?

Answer 953

1. Attending official functions 2. Performing traffic control or crowd control duties 3. On the grounds or within the confines of the State Capitol.

Question 954

As far as the accouterment portion of the uniform policy, what pins is the left pocket flap of the uniform shirt solely reserved for?

Answer 954

1. Medal of Valor 2. Officer of the Year 3. US Flag 4. US Military Flag 5. Other special pin as determined by the Commissioner

Question 955

As far as the accouterment portion of the uniform policy, how many pins can be worn on the right pocket at any one time?

Answer 955

No more than 3

Question 956

In regards to the uniform policy, what are the earring requirements for female employees in civilian attire?

Answer 956

1. Only 2 allowed; one in each earlobe 2. Stud type only 3. Solid color 4. Not over 4.0 millimeters

Question 957

In regards to the uniform policy, what cannot be used to cover tattoos?

Answer 957

1. Fabric sleeves | 2. Non-adhesive coverings

Question 958

Whether the body armor is state-issued or privately owned, is shall be outfitted with a minimum of how many ballistic panels??

Answer 958

4

Question 959

In regards to the uniform policy, body armor shall be worn under what 3 circumstances?

Answer 959

1. Personnel assigned to field enforcement duties 2. Personnel who operate a marked patrol vehicle in uniform 3. Personnel participating in "live-fire" weapons training

Question 960

In regards to the uniform policy, body armor is NOT required to be worn under what 4 circumstances?

Answer 960

1. Area special duty OTHER THAN primary front counter officer 2. HQ or Division staff positions 3. Comm. center and TMC center personnel 4. Commanders; except when doing enforcement or driving marked patrol vehicle

Question 961

Within how many days after an incident involving an employee's soft body armor, shall the commander send the required report to the Office of Legal Affairs?

Answer 961

1. As soon as practical, but... | 2. NLT 10 WORKING days after

Question 962

When wearing the green jacket, all equipment on the duty belt may be removed at who's discretion.

Answer 962

Area Commander

Question 963

In regards to the uniform policy, anytime socks are visible, what are the requirements?

Answer 963

1. Shall be solid-colored | 2. Shall be royal blue, navy blue, or black in color

Question 964

In regards to the uniform policy, do service stripes go on the left or right sleeve?

Answer 964

Left

Question 965

In regards to the uniform policy, when tribute of mourning ribbons are worn, when shall they be removed?

Answer 965

The next calendar day following the funeral services.

Question 966

The tribute of mourning ribbon shall be worn across the the face of the badge under what 4 conditions?

Answer 966

1. Departmental employee killed in the line of duty 2. All line of duty deaths within CA 3. At all freeway dedications 4. As otherwise directed by the Commissioner

Question 967

In regards to the uniform policy, when shall the high-visibility reflective safety vest be worn?

Answer 967

1. While actively engaged in traffic control duties at the scene of a stabilized highway closure or obstructed roadway. 2. While actively engaged in the investigation of a crime, collision, or other high-profiled incident (after scene stabilization) close enough to the right of way of an active traffic lane so as to constitute a hazard. 3. When outside of a patrol vehicle while engaged in traffic control duties at a COZEEP/MAZEEP. 4. As directed by the on-scene commander during activation of ICS, when officer safety and/or ID would be enhanced by wearing the vest

Question 968

In regards to the uniform policy, if a scarf is worn, what color shall it be?

Answer 968

1. Navy blue | 2. Without design

Question 969

In regards to the uniform policy, a scarf may be worn with what?

Answer 969

1. Blue patrol jacket 2. Leather motorcycle jacket 3. Cold weather parka 4. Cold weather jumpsuit

Question 970

In regards to the uniform policy, when can employees wear the baseball cap?

Answer 970

1. With rainwear | 2. Only when the rain jacket hood is up

Question 971

In regards to the uniform policy, who is authorized to wear the brass buckle trouser belt?

Answer 971

1. HQ 2. Division 3. Special Duty

Question 972

When lining up for a uniform inspection, officers shall arrange themselves in what order?

Answer 972

1. In descending order, according to height | 2. Tallest to the right of each rank

Question 973

When lining up for a uniform inspection, what shall be the maximum number of officers lined up per rank?

Answer 973

9

Question 974

When lining up for a uniform inspection, how many spaces shall be between the employees when they're lined up?

Answer 974

2

Question 975

Being that vehicles carried as cargo are considered property when being towed, how shall they be documented on the CHP 180 in the event they are towed in conjunctions with another vehicle?

Answer 975

The license number, VIN, and description shall be documented in the "Remarks" section of the CHP 180.

Question 976

When an amendment needs to be made to a CHP 180, how shall it be documented?

Answer 976

1. A brief memo describing the reason for the amendment | 2. Prepared and attached to the CHP 180

Question 977

A "Notice of Stored Vehicle" shall be mailed or personally served to the R/O or L/O within how many hours of the tow?

Answer 977

48 hours

Question 978

In regards to towed vehicles, a post-storage hearing shall be conducted within how many hours of the request from the R/O or L/O?

Answer 978

48 hours

Question 979

In regards to towed vehicles, how may a R/O or L/O request a post-storage hearing?

Answer 979

1. In writing 2. In person 3. By telephone

Question 980

When there is reason to believe that a vehicle/component theft has been falsely reported, what shall the commander do?

Answer 980

Notify the appropriate insurance carrier IN WRITING within 30 days.

Question 981

Who can accept vehicle/component theft reports over the phone?

Answer 981

Uniformed personnel ONLY

Question 982

If a report of a stolen vehicle is received via telephone, and the "possible stolen vehicle" is broadcasted, after how many hours shall it be cancelled if no physical stolen report is taken?

Answer 982

6 hours

Question 983

Upon establishing a suspense system for stolen vehicle or component reports, when shall the theft victim be contacted to see if their vehicle or component has been recovered?

Answer 983

1. After 3 days of the date of the theft report, and... | 2. After 60 days of the date of the theft report

Question 984

When a stolen vehicle or component is recovered, within how many hours shall the reporting party be advised of the recovery?

Answer 984

24 hours

Question 985

When lost or stolen plates are recovered, how long shall the Department hold them before turning them over to the DMV?

Answer 985

30 days

Question 986

When a vehicle is impounded for 14602.6 CVC or another impound section, at it is not released early (after a post-storage hearing), what shall be completed?

Answer 986

1. A CHP 422B, Vehicle Storage Hearing Report, shall be completed, and... 2. The reason for the non-release shall be included in the "Summary of Finding"

Question 987

When a vehicle is towed, within how many days of the date on the notice is the R/O or L/O required to request a hearing, if they want one?

Answer 987

Within 10 days of the date on the notice

Question 988

If a storage/impound is determined to be valid, but the R/O or L/O wishes to appeal the decision by filing a claim, what are their options?

Answer 988

1. CHP 287, Claim of Less Than $1000 | 2. VCGCB, Claim in Excess of $1000

Question 989

If a storage/impound is determined to be valid, but the R/O or L/O wishes to appeal the decision by filing a claim, how much time from the date of the tow do they have to file the claim?

Answer 989

6 months

Question 990

In regards to evidence impounds, during what period of time is the Department responsible for the tow charges?

Answer 990

From the date of the seizure, to the day the charges are filed.

Question 991

In regards to evidence impounds, in the event the DA refuses to pay their portion of the fees, what shall the commander advise the DA of?

Answer 991

The commander shall advise the DA the Department will not accept financial responsibility and the case will become a civil matter between the storage facility owner and the county.

Question 992

In regards to the evidence impounds, when the contract allotment is running low, Areas can request up to how much more?

Answer 992

Up to an additional 30% above the total contract amount

Question 993

In regards to evidence impound reimbursement, when an Area sends an invoice to has sought reimbursement from a defendant and they are routing the invoice to HQ (FMS), what shall be marked on the CHP 180 and all applicable invoices?

Answer 993

"535.05" shall be marked in red in on the top right-hand corner of each document.

Question 994

In regards to school bus collision investigations, what 3 items must be contained in the special condition box?

Answer 994

1. School bus category 2. Type of school bus 3. Number of pupils on board

Question 995

Within how many hours of knowledge of a fatal, severe, or visible injury school bus collision, shall the Area prepare a detailed Comm-Net message?

Answer 995

24 hours

Question 996

When shall enforcement of CA registration renewal commence?

Answer 996

The day following expiration

Question 997

Vehicles should NOT be stopped solely for failure to display year-round registration indicia until when?

Answer 997

The beginning of the 2nd month following the month of the registration.

Question 998

What are the 3 types of fees collected for the registration of commercial motor vehicles?

Answer 998

1. Basic registration 2. Vehicle license fee 3. Weights fees

Question 999

In regards to commercial enforcement, enforcement action shall not be taken against military vehicles operating in convoys unless what?

Answer 999

The violation is such that other users of the highways are endangered

Question 1000

In regards commercial vehicle inspections, how many inspection levels are there?

Answer 1000

1. Level 1 through Level 5, and... | 2. Farm Labor Vehicle inspections

Question 1001

In regards to commercial vehicle inspections, vehicles passing what level of inspection(s) are eligible for a CVSA decal?

Answer 1001

1. Level 1, and... | 2. Level 5

Question 1002

In regards to commercial vehicle inspections, vehicles passing what level of inspection are eligible for a CHP-FLV decal?

Answer 1002

Farm Labor Vehicle inspection

Question 1003

In regards to commercial vehicle inspections, what does a Level 1 inspection entail?

Answer 1003

North American Standard Inspection

Question 1004

In regards to commercial vehicle inspections, what does a Level 2 inspection entail?

Answer 1004

Walk Around Driver/Vehicle Inspection

Question 1005

In regards to commercial vehicle inspections, what does a Level 3 inspection entail?

Answer 1005

Driver-Only Inspection

Question 1006

In regards to commercial vehicle inspections, what does a Level 4 inspection entail?

Answer 1006

Special Inspections

Question 1007

In regards to commercial vehicle inspections, what does a Level 5 inspection entail?

Answer 1007

Vehicle-Only Inspections (driver NOT present)

Question 1008

In regards to commercial vehicle enforcement facilities (CVEF's), what are the 5 categories of facilities?

Answer 1008

1. Class A 2. Class B 3. Class C 4. Class D 5. Mini-site

Question 1009

In regards to commercial vehicle enforcement facilities (CVEF's), what facilities are staffed 24/7?

Answer 1009

1. Class A, and... | 2. Class B

Question 1010

In regards to commercial vehicle enforcement facilities (CVEF's), how are Class C and Class D facilities staffed?

Answer 1010

Generally, less than 24/7

Question 1011

In regards to vehicle size and weight requirements, the total outside width of any vehicle shall not exceed what?

Answer 1011

102 inches

Question 1012

In regards to vehicle size and weight requirements, when a vehicle has pneumatic tires, its total width shall not exceed what?

Answer 1012

108 inches

Question 1013

In regards to vehicle size and weight requirements, when a vehicle is carrying loads of certain loosely piled bulk agriculture products crated, baled, boxed, or sacked, the total width shall not exceed what?

Answer 1013

120 inches

Question 1014

In regards to vehicle size and weight requirements, a vehicles height shall not exceed what?

Answer 1014

14 feet measured from the surface upon which it stands

Question 1015

In regards to vehicle size and weight requirements, a single vehicle's length shall not exceed what?

Answer 1015

40 feet

Question 1016

In regards to vehicle size and weight requirements, a combination vehicle's length shall not exceed what?

Answer 1016

65 feet

Question 1017

In regards to vehicle size and weight requirements, booms, masts, machinery, and other equipment, shall not exceed what?

Answer 1017

3 feet to the front of a vehicle

Question 1018

In regards to the transportation permits, when is a pilot car required?

Answer 1018

1. When a vehicle or load is more than 12 feet in width, and... 2. Its move is permitted under a permit issued by CalTrans.

Question 1019

In regards to HAZMAT incidents, within how many hours of the incident shall the County Health Officer and the Board of Supervisors be notified?

Answer 1019

72 hours

Question 1020

In regards to HAZMAT incidents, the Department is obligated to remain at the scene until what?

Answer 1020

All emergency operations are completed

Question 1021

In regards to HAZMAT incidents, within how many days of the conclusion of the incident shall the Area submit the completed CHP 407E to Division?

Answer 1021

10 days

Question 1022

Under what circumstances would it be appropriate for an officer to deny the media access to scene?

Answer 1022

1. Declared a crime scene 2. Unrestricted access may interfere with emergency operations 3. Incident involves the collision of a military aircraft and the federal military authorities have declared the scene a disaster site

Question 1023

How often are patrol vehicle speedometers calibrated?

Answer 1023

1. Every 90 days, or... | 2. 30,000 miles

Question 1024

Within how many hours of a shooting incident shall the involved employee(s) attend a Critical Incident Stress Debriefing?

Answer 1024

72 hours

Question 1025

In regards to enforcement documents, when would an officer be authorized to use the parental notification program?

Answer 1025

When violations are committed by persons under 14 years old as pedestrians or bicycle/scooter related.

Question 1026

In regards to enforcement documents, when a CHP 215 is issued out of an allied agency turnover warrant arrest, what special code shall be used?

Answer 1026

110

Question 1027

In regards to enforcement documents, when would an officer be justified as marking a correctible violation as "non-correctible"?

Answer 1027

1. Evidence of fraud or persistent neglect 2. Violation presents immediate safety hazard 3. Violator does not agree to, or can't promptly correct violation

Question 1028

In regards tot enforcement documents, who is not required to sign the CHP 215?

Answer 1028

1. Verified diplomatic agents, and... | 2. Consular officers, including staff and family

Question 1029

In regards to enforcement documents, why would an officer request to have a CHP 215 DISMISSED (as opposed to voided)?

Answer 1029

The citation has already been ISSUED

Question 1030

In regards to enforcement documents, why would an officer request to have a CHP 215 VOIDED (as opposed to dismissed)?

Answer 1030

The citation has NOT been issued

Question 1031

In regards to enforcement documents, if an officer has issued a CHP 267, Notice of Parking-Registration Violation, but now wants to cancel it, within how many days of issuance shall they inform the commander?

Answer 1031

21 days

Question 1032

What are the 3 levels of appeal for a citizen who wants to appeal the CHP 287, Notice of Parking-Registration Violation?

Answer 1032

1st - Initial review by citation processing agency 2nd - If dissatisfied with initial review, may request an administrative hearing 3rd - If dissatisfied with administrative hearing, may request a trial de novo in superior court

Question 1033

In regards to mutual aid requests, what are the 4 levels of activation (from smallest to largest; LORS):

Answer 1033

1. Local (cities) 2. Operational areas (counties) 3. Regional (2+ counties) 4. State

Question 1034

Who's approval is needed before CHP resources are committed to a mutual aid request?

Answer 1034

Commissioner

Question 1035

When an incorporated city is embroiled in a job action (strike), and CHP assistance is requested, CHP response will be limited to what?

Answer 1035

1. Life-saving, or... | 2. Property protection

Question 1036

Under what circumstances would CHP personnel respond to mutual aid requests in National Parks?

Answer 1036

None **Local and State law enforcement personnel are prohibited from assisting in mutual aid situations because of a complete lack of authority.

Question 1037

If requested by the governing body of a newly incorporated city, the CHP will continue to provide traffic law enforcement services without reimbursement for how long?

Answer 1037

1. Through the remainder of the final year of incorporation, or... 2. Until the establishment of a police department

Question 1038

In regards to providing traffic law enforcement services to newly incorporated cities, generally, services will not be provided for a period longer than what?

Answer 1038

12 months from the date of incorporation

Question 1039

In regards to interstate mutual assistance, the CHP has reciprocal assistance agreements with who?

Answer 1039

1. Oregon State Police 2. Nevada Highway Patrol 3. Arizona Department of Public Safety

Question 1040

In regards to interstate mutual assistance, all assistance rendered voluntarily or in response to a request, shall be limited to what distance?

Answer 1040

An area within 50 statute miles of any point along the common border.

Question 1041

What does the Fresh Pursuits Act do?

Answer 1041

It extends peace officer authority to officers from other states when in "fresh pursuit" of a fleeing FELON.

Question 1042

What does the Interstate Mutual Assistance Agreement do?

Answer 1042

Convey's limited peace officer authority to officers acting outside of their state, but WITHIN 50 stature miles of the state border while: 1. Responding to a request for services initiated by an agency participating in the IMAA. 2. Responding to an incident requiring immediate LE action or other emergency action.

Question 1043

In regards to the Interstate Mutual Assistance Agreement or the Fresh Pursuits Act, what are the 2 means by which a suspect who is physically located in one state may be returned to another state to face criminal charges?

Answer 1043

1. Voluntarily (suspect NOT in custody) | 2. Per the state's "Extradition Acts" (suspect IN custody)

Question 1044

While the Fresh Pursuits Acts only covers fleeing FELONS, what permits officers to pursue MISDEMEANOR violations into neighboring states?

Answer 1044

The Interstate Mutual Assistance Agreement (50 statute mile max.).

Question 1045

Under the Interstate Mutual Assistance Agreement, CHP officers may conduct MISDEMEANOR FOLLOW-UP within 50 statute miles of the border as long as they ESTABLISH WHAT?

Answer 1045

Follow-up is being conducted in a TIMELY manner

Question 1046

In regards to the Interstate Mutual Assistance Agreement or the Fresh Pursuits Act, when are DUI implied consent provisions applicable?

Answer 1046

Only when the suspect is placed under lawful arrest (confiscate CA DL too).

Question 1047

What are the 4 categories of federal jurisdiction (PEP-C)?

Answer 1047

1. Exclusive 2. Partial 3. Concurrent 4. Proprietary

Question 1048

In regards to EXCLUSIVE federal jurisdictional matters, what has the state retained the right to do?

Answer 1048

Serve criminal and civil processes

Question 1049

All national FORESTS fall under what category of federal jurisdiction?

Answer 1049

Concurrent

Question 1050

Under what federal jurisdiction category is the CHP obligated to provided its full range of services?

Answer 1050

Proprietary

Question 1051

Under what circumstances would the Department enforce Fish and Game Codes on Indian reservations/rancherias?

Answer 1051

When the violators are non-Indians

Question 1052

In circumstances where CHP mutual aid is requested by an exclusive or partial jurisdiction federal agency, what must happen before officers go out on patrol and take enforcement actions?

Answer 1052

Officers shall be deputized as U.S. Marshals

Question 1053

Diplomatic AGENTS and their families are exempt and/or immune from what?

Answer 1053

1. Exempt from arrest or detention | 2. Immune from all criminal (most civil) prosecution by the host state.

Question 1054

Consular OFFICERS are immune from what?

Answer 1054

Immune from arrest or detention (except felonies), when prosecution arises from OFFICIAL ACTS

Question 1055

Consular EMPLOYEES are immune from what?

Answer 1055

Immunity ONLY for official acts. **They may be arrested or detained.

Question 1056

Diplomatic AGENTS and consular OFFICERS are immune from arrest or detention, UNLESS what?

Answer 1056

1. They have no ID, and... | 2. The detention is to verify their diplomatic status

Question 1057

In regards to enforcement action taken against an identified diplomatic and/or immunity claimant, a photocopy of the enforcement document or arrest report shall be sent to who and within how long after issuance?

Answer 1057

1. AC Field 2. Within 48 hours of issuance; via email **Whether or not claim was verified.

Question 1058

When a foreign national is arrested or detained, after how long is the officer required to contact their embassy?

Answer 1058

If the arrest or detention exceeds 2 hours

Question 1059

What are the 5 options an officer has when taking appropriate enforcement action against a violator?

Answer 1059

1. Physical Arrest 2. CHP 215, Notice to Appear 3. CHP 281, Notice to Correct Violation 4. CHP 214, Written Warning 5. Verbal Warning

Question 1060

In regards to traffic enforcement, who's approval is required to monitor traffic from the center median?

Answer 1060

Division

Question 1061

An arrestee is entitled to how many phone calls within how many hours of arrest?

Answer 1061

1. 3 phone calls | 2. Within 3 hours of arrest

Question 1062

In addition to the 3 phone calls within 3 hours they are entitled to, how many additional phone calls is an arrestee entitled to, and within what time frame, if they are ID'd as the custodial parent with responsibility of a minor child?

Answer 1062

1. 2 additional phone calls for the purposes of arranging child care 2. Given immediately upon request or as soon as practical

Question 1063

In regards to the custody and arrest of minors, the custody of minors shall be handled is what manner?

Answer 1063

1. The manner which least restricts the minor's freedom of movement 2. Provided such disposition is compatible with the best interests of the minor and the community

Question 1064

In regards to the custody and arrest of minors, the place of appearance specified on the CHP 215 shall be what?

Answer 1064

"Before the juvenile court, a juvenile court referee, or a juvenile hearing officer within the county in which the offense charged is alleged to have been committed..."

Question 1065

A MINOR is entitled to how many phone calls within how many hours of arrest?

Answer 1065

1. 2 phone calls | 2. Within 1 hour of arrest (to parent, relative, employer, or attorney)

Question 1066

Secure and non-secure detention of a minor in a LAW ENFORCEMENT FACILITY shall not exceed how long?

Answer 1066

6 hours

Question 1067

A minor shall not be present in an ADULT DETENTION FACILITY or JAIL from a continuous period exceeding what?

Answer 1067

2 hours

Question 1068

If an arrested minor will NOT be interviewed, when shall officers advise them of their constitutional rights (Miranda).

Answer 1068

Just prior to their release to a jail facility or parent

Question 1069

In regards to arrests by private persons, when accepting custody of a person, is an officer required to first establish probable cause?

Answer 1069

No

Question 1070

When a person is arrested, but released from custody without being formally charged with an offense, what shall they be issued?

Answer 1070

CHP 103

Question 1071

What document are CHP supervisors required to have in their possession while on duty?

Answer 1071

CHP 103

Question 1072

In regards to minors with provisional DL's, when they're driving outside of the provisions and have a SIGNED note, what are the 5 circumstances they are allowed to drive under (SEE-MI)?

Answer 1072

1. Medical necessity 2. School or school-authorized activity 3. Employment necessity 4. Immediate need of family member 5. Emancipated minor

Question 1073

What are the stopping/citing guidelines for Prima Facie speed limits?

Answer 1073

1. 10+ MPH above: shall stop 2. 5-9 MPH above: should stop 3. 1-4 MPH above: may stop

Question 1074

What are the stopping/citing guidelines for Absolute speed limits?

Answer 1074

1. 5+ MPH above: shall stop | 2. 1-4 MPH above: may stop

Question 1075

What are the stopping/citing guidelines for slow moving vehicles (in other than right-hand lane)?

Answer 1075

1. 10+ MPH below normal flow: shall stop 2. 5-9 MPH below normal flow: should stop 3. 1-4 MPH below normal flow: may stop

Question 1076

The deployment of Primary Collision Factor Vehicle's shall be focused on what?

Answer 1076

1. Roadways with high fatal/injury collisions. 2. Roadways where traditional strategies have proven ineffective. 3. Roadways warranting supplemental and/or selective enforcement.

Question 1077

The use of UNMARKED vehicles for the purpose of apprehending 23109 CVC violations requires who's approval?

Answer 1077

Commissioner

Question 1078

Patrol vehicles should only be used in lieu of ambulances in emergencies under what circumstances?

Answer 1078

1. When time is of the utmost importance, and... | 2. Where the patient does not object

Question 1079

Zero and low-emission vehicles are issued how many decals?

Answer 1079

3, white "clean air" decals

Question 1080

Hybrid vehicles are issued how many decals?

Answer 1080

4

Question 1081

Children under the age of 2 shall be properly secured in a rear-facing child passenger restraint system unless what?

Answer 1081

1. The child weighs 40+ pounds, or... | 2. The child is 40+ inches tall

Question 1082

When a person is being transported in the back of a pick-up truck during a police supervised parade, the speed of the truck shall not exceed what?

Answer 1082

8 MPH

Question 1083

When an officer issues a CHP 215 out of a collision, what shall be written/marked on the citation?

Answer 1083

1. "Issued per CVC Section 40600" | 2. Check "AI" box

Question 1084

What is an Emergency Protective Order?

Answer 1084

A court order prepared by an officer and issued by a judge, whether or not the superior court is in session when there is an immediate and present danger of domestic violence to a victim.

Question 1085

What is a Restraining Order?

Answer 1085

An order issued by the court during normal business hours.

Question 1086

Weapons seized pursuant to a DV investigation shall be held a minimum of how long, but released within how many days of the subject receiving the Law Enforcement Gun Release Application approval?

Answer 1086

1. Held a minimum of 48 hours, but... | 2. Released within 5 BUSINESS days of the subject receiving the LEGRA approval

Question 1087

Court protective or restraining orders shall be entered into the DOJ Domestic Violence Restraining Order System within how many days after issuance?

Answer 1087

1 BUSINESS day

Question 1088

Within how many hours of service of a protective order is the subject required to relinquish possession or control of any firearms?

Answer 1088

1. Immediately if they're in their possession, or... | 2. Within 24 hours if they're not in their possession

Question 1089

When does an Emergency Protective Order expire?

Answer 1089

1. NLT the close of judicial business on the 5th COURT day, or... 2. The 7th CALENDAR day following the day of issuance

Question 1090

What is the only court order that will be both issued and served by a CHP officer?

Answer 1090

An Emergency Protective Order

Question 1091

In regards to child abuse/child neglect investigations, within how many hours is the CHP required to forward the DOJ report to the Local County Designated Agency (LCDA)?

Answer 1091

36 hours

Question 1092

Within how many hours of locating/finding a missing person, shall the CHP notify the AG's office via MUPS?

Answer 1092

Immediately

Question 1093

Within how many hours of accepting a report of a missing person under the age of 21 or at risk, shall the CHP notify the DOJ for inclusion into the Violent Crime information Center and the NCIC databases?

Answer 1093

2 hours

Question 1094

Within how many hours of taking a preliminary missing persons report, shall the CHP forward a copy of the CJIS 8568 to the appropriate law enforcement agencies (location where reported missing and location of residence)?

Answer 1094

24 hours

Question 1095

Within how many hours of the MUPS entry, shall the CHP ascertain whether the local law enforcement agency has established their own MUPS record?

Answer 1095

24 hours

Question 1096

Within how many days of initiating a missing child investigation, shall the CHP inform, in writing and with a photograph, the school district, other educational agency, or private school in which the child is enrolled, that the child is missing?

Answer 1096

10 days

Question 1097

When is a law enforcement entity allowed to provide information to the public about a person required to register as a sex offender, by whatever means the entity deems appropriate?

Answer 1097

When its necessary to ensure public safety

Question 1098

The CHP may not post on an internet website any info ID'ing an individual as a person required to register as a sex offender unless what?

Answer 1098

There is an outstanding warrant for that persons arrest

Question 1099

Who shall be notified of any investigation involving an unintentional or self-inflicted gunshot wound involving a victim 18 years old or younger?

Answer 1099

The California Department of Public Health

Question 1100

What is the AMBER Alert criteria?

Answer 1100

1. Confirmation an abduction has occurred 2. Victim is 17yo or younger, or they have a physical/mental disability 3. Victim is in imminent danger of serious bodily injury/death 4. There's info available, if disseminated to the public, could assist in the safe recovery of the victim

Question 1101

What is the BLUE Alert criteria?

Answer 1101

1. Officer has been killed, seriously injured, or assaulted with a deadly weapon and the suspect has fled 2. Investigating agency has determined suspect poses an imminent threat to public or there LE's 3. Description of suspect's vehicle or license plate is available for broadcast 4. Dissemination of info may help avert further harm or accelerate apprehension of the suspect

Question 1102

What is the SILVER Alert criteria?

Answer 1102

1. Missing person is 65yo or older, developmentally disabled, or cognitively impaired 2. Investigating agency has utilized all available local resources 3. Investigating agency believes disappearance is inexplicable or suspicious 4. Investigating agency believes person is in danger because of health, age, mental or physical disability, etc., and/or the person they're with is dangerous. 5. There's info available, if disseminated to the public, could assist in the safe recovery of the victim

Question 1103

What is the YELLOW Alert criteria?

Answer 1103

1. Person has been killed or suffered serious bodily injury as a result of hit and run 2. Indication suggesting suspect has fled the scene utilizing the state highway system or is likely to be observed by the public on the state highway system 3. Investigating agency has additional information concerning the suspect or the suspect's vehicle (i.e. complete/partial license plate, identity of suspect) 4. Dissemination of info may help avert further harm or accelerate apprehension of the suspect

Question 1104

When shall a STD. 99 be prepared?

Answer 1104

When crimes and criminally caused property damage occurring on state-owned, or state-leased property is reported.

Question 1105

Upon completing of a STD. 99, within how many days of the incident shall it be entered into the State Crimes Automated Reporting System (SCARS)?

Answer 1105

10 days

Question 1106

In regards to the Safety Services Investigation Program, how many investigative categories are there, and what are they?

Answer 1106

1. Priority 1 - requires immediate investigation 2. Priority 2 - require follow-up; no immediate investigation required 3. Priority 3 - do not have any leads and are reported solely for statistical purposes

Question 1107

Within how many days of appointment, shall newly appointed Safety Services Officers (SSP) complete the required training?

Answer 1107

90 days

Question 1108

What is the purpose of the CHP Crime Prevention and Security (CPS) Program?

Answer 1108

To assist in the prevention of criminal and terrorist threats against state employees and resources.

Question 1109

What are the 4 elements of the Crime Prevention and Security (CPS) Program?

Answer 1109

1. Security Inspection (SI) 2. Crime Prevention Plan (CPP) 3. Site Vulnerability Assessment Memorandum (SVA) 4. Crime Prevention and Security Program Training

Question 1110

In regards to the Crime Prevention and Security (CPS) Program, when would a Site Vulnerability Assessment Memorandum (SVA) be completed?

Answer 1110

1. Only upon request from a state agency head, and... | 2. Subsequent approval from Protective Services Division

Question 1111

In regards to the event (on state property) permit approval process, when is a permit NOT required?

Answer 1111

When distributing leaflets, pamphlets, etc, of a non-commercial nature on state property

Question 1112

In regards to the event (on state property) permit approval process, permits will normally be issued within how many days of receiving a properly completed application?

Answer 1112

10 WORKING days

Question 1113

In regards to the event (on state property) permit approval process, when is a license from Alcohol Beverage Control required?

Answer 1113

If alcohol is to be SOLD and CONSUMED on the premises

Question 1114

In regards to the event (on state property) permit approval process, if an applicants permit request is denied, how many days do they have to file an appeal?

Answer 1114

5 WORKING days

Question 1115

In regards to insurance requirements for permits on state property, what is the minimum acceptable limit of insurance for hazardous activities or events?

Answer 1115

$1 million per occurrence

Question 1116

What are the 3 categories of "DOJ Stops"?

Answer 1116

1. Stop Code "A" - person may be armed and dangerous 2. Stop Code "W" - person may be wanted 3. Stop Code "F" - vehicle associated with felony

Question 1117

What are the 4 categories of Workplace Violence?

Answer 1117

1. Type 1 - Criminal Intent 2. Type 2 - Customer/Client 3. Type 3 - Worker-on-Worker 4. Type 4 - Personal Relationship

Question 1118

If an employer seeks a temporary restraining order, and an injunction on behalf of an employee who has been the victim of violence, or a threat of violence in the workplace, within how many days of the filing of the petition for the injunction, shall a hearing be held?

Answer 1118

15 days

Question 1119

If an employer is granted a temporary restraining order, and an injunction on behalf of an employee who has been the victim of violence, or a threat of violence in the workplace, how long shall it be good for?

Answer 1119

3 years

Question 1120

Assignments of CHP personnel to task forces should be for a minimum of what, and a maximum of what?

Answer 1120

1. Minimum of 3 years | 2. Maximum of 4 years

Question 1121

As far as ORM is concerned, What 4 incidents are considered THRESHOLD incidents?

Answer 1121

1. Member of CHP is seriously injured/killed during performance of their duties 2. Incident involving CHP where member of the public is seriously injured/killed/hospitalized 3. Member of CHP intentionally/accidentally discharges firearm at a person, whether on/off duty, regardless of if they were struck 4. Any sensitive/complex investigation when liability appears to be that of CHP **CONFIRM there are only 4**

Question 1122

Within how long of a THRESHOLD incident shall ORM be notified via ENTAC?

Answer 1122

Immediately

Question 1123

Within how long of a NON-THRESHOLD PCL incident shall the Area transmit a CHP 268 to Division?

Answer 1123

7 CALENDAR days

Question 1124

Within how long of a THRESHOLD incident shall the Area transmit a CHP 268 to Division?

Answer 1124

7 CALENDAR days

Question 1125

Is ENTAC required to be notified following a NON-THRESHOLD PCL incident?

Answer 1125

No

Question 1126

All materials/documents marked "Preserved for Threshold Incidents" shall be retained for how long?

Answer 1126

10 years

Question 1127

All materials/documents marked "Preserved for Non-threshold PCL Incidents" shall be retained for how long?

Answer 1127

5 years

Question 1128

Prior to the destruction of materials/documents preserved for threshold and non-threshold PCL incidents, who shall be contacted for approval?

Answer 1128

1. ORM, and... | 2. OLA, Case Management Unit

Question 1129

Which CHP form is subject to PRA disclosures and is NOT protected under the umbrella of attorney-client privilege?

Answer 1129

CHP 275, Risk Management Use of Force Report

Question 1130

When a use of force occurs and there is no injury, what form(s) shall be completed?

Answer 1130

CHP 275

Question 1131

When a use of force occurs and there is an injury, what form(s) shall be completed?

Answer 1131

1. CHP 275, and... | 2. CHP 268

Question 1132

Within how long of a use of force incident shall the Area transmit a CHP 275 to Division?

Answer 1132

7 CALENDAR days

Question 1133

When a control hold is used to overcome physical resistance from an uncooperative subject, what form(s) shall be completed?

Answer 1133

CHP 275

Question 1134

When an officer discharges their firearm, what form(s) shall be completed, regardless of if the subject was struck?

Answer 1134

CHP 275

Question 1135

When an officer uses force to overcome physical resistance from an uncooperative subject, what form(s) shall be completed?

Answer 1135

CHP 275

Question 1136

Within how many days of an in-custody death is the CHP required to notify the AG's office in writing?

Answer 1136

10 CALENDAR days

Question 1137

Within how many days of an in-custody death is the CHP required to notify ORM?

Answer 1137

7 CALENDAR days

Question 1138

When any incident involving a state vehicle being driven by a state driver which results in injury or property damage, whether on or off highway occurs, what form(s) shall be completed?

Answer 1138

1. CHP 208, Collision Prevention Report 2. STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report 3. CHP 555, Traffic Collision Report

Question 1139

When any incident in which a state vehicle is legally parked, whether or not the state vehicle is in transport, and is struck by another vehicle occurs, what form(s) shall be completed?

Answer 1139

1. CHP 208, Collision Prevention Report 2. STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report 3. CHP 555, Traffic Collision Report

Question 1140

When an incident where it is/may be alleged the state vehicle was the proximate cause of a collision, what form(s) shall be completed?

Answer 1140

1. "LIABILITY ONLY" STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report ***A CHP 208 and CHP 555 are required if it is determined the state vehicle was involved as a "non-contact" party to the collision***

Question 1141

Anytime unreported damage to a state vehicle is discovered, what form(s) shall be completed?

Answer 1141

1. CHP 208, Collision Prevention Report 2. STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report **The last driver of the state vehicle shall be documented as the party responsible for the damage, if deemed appropriate by the Area Commander***

Question 1142

Anytime hidden damage to a state vehicle is discovered, what form(s) shall be completed?

Answer 1142

1. STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report ***A CHP 208 and CHP 555 are required, if deemed appropriate by the Area Commander***

Question 1143

When any collision or an occurrence when other than a state employee is the driver of the state vehicle occurs (i.e. mechanic), what form(s) shall be completed?

Answer 1143

1. STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report ***A CHP 555 is required, if deemed appropriate by the Area Commander***

Question 1144

When any incident involving legal intervention which meets the definition of a collision occurs, what form(s) shall be completed?

Answer 1144

1. CHP 208, Collision Prevention Report 2. STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report 3. CHP 555, Traffic Collision Report

Question 1145

When any incident in which a state vehicle is used to push a vehicle and the pushed vehicle is involved in a collision with another person, object, or 3rd party vehicle(s) occurs, what form(s) shall be completed?

Answer 1145

1. CHP 208, Collision Prevention Report 2. STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report 3. CHP 555, Traffic Collision Report

Question 1146

When unintentional damage is sustained to a patrol vehicle by the acts of persons in-custody, what form(s) shall be completed and routed to who?

Answer 1146

1. A CHP 51, Memo, shall be completed and... | 2. Submitted to FMS

Question 1147

When malicious damage is sustained to a patrol vehicle by the acts of persons in-custody, WHAT form(s) shall be completed, and WHO shall it be routed to?

Answer 1147

1. A CHP 221, Malicious Damage Report, shall be completed, and... 2. Routed to FMS with a court order of restitution

Question 1148

When malicious damage is sustained to a patrol vehicle by the acts of persons in-custody, within how many days of the incident shall a CHP 221, Malicious Damage Report, be sent to the local DA?

Answer 1148

5 days

Question 1149

Within how many hours of an incident shall the completed or preliminary STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report, be routed to ORM?

Answer 1149

48 hours

Question 1150

Within how many days of an incident shall the completed STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report, be routed to Division?

Answer 1150

7 CALENDAR days

Question 1151

Within how many days of an incident shall the completed CHP 208, Collision Prevention Report, be routed to Division?

Answer 1151

7 CALENDAR days

Question 1152

Within how many days of a pursuit shall the PRS be routed Division?

Answer 1152

7 CALENDAR days

Question 1153

How often shall Area Commanders audit their area PRS system?

Answer 1153

Quarterly

Question 1154

When does and officer create a special relationship?

Answer 1154

1. When they place a person in peril 2. When their actions affect, or increases risk of harm 3. When they make an expressed or implied promise

Question 1155

Upon establishing a special relationship, under what circumstances would an officer be allowed to leave the scene?

Answer 1155

1. Properly relieved by a CHP employee 2. Relinquished scene management responsibilities to appropriate agency responsible for incident 3. Learned of a reasonably apparent emergency requiring their immediate attention elsewhere 4. Received direction from a supervisor to assume duties elsewhere 5. Assistance/protection is no longer reasonably necessary

Question 1156

What is the Early Intervention System?

Answer 1156

1. A data-driven management tool used for ID'ing issues which could bring discredit to the CHP, increase civil liability exposure or demonstrate training needs. 2. The EIS will also ID positive performance of CHP employees through the tracking of written performance documents.

Question 1157

In regards to the Early intervention System (EIS) dashboard, which is located in Blue Team, what does a GREEN colored dot next to an employee's name indicate?

Answer 1157

The employee is NOT nearing a threshold

Question 1158

In regards to the Early intervention System (EIS) dashboard, which is located in Blue Team, what does a YELLOW colored dot next to an employee's name indicate?

Answer 1158

The employee is ONE incident away from reaching an identified threshold.

Question 1159

In regards to the Early intervention System (EIS) dashboard, which is located in Blue Team, what does a RED colored dot next to an employee's name indicate?

Answer 1159

The employee has reached or surpassed an identified threshold. **RED is the only indication which requires evaluation by Area management and/or supervision**

Question 1160

What 3 incidents require a MAIT call-out?

Answer 1160

1. Any fatal or severe injury collision involving on-duty CHP or CalTrans employees (includes sub-contractors) 2. Any accident involving fatal or severe injury, or substantial damage involving CHP aircraft 3. Any other collision of unusual significance

Question 1161

What is a Pitchess Motion?

Answer 1161

A legal process which enables the defense to attempt to obtain an officers personnel records or information contained therein.

Question 1162

What Penal Code section establishes confidentiality of officers personnel records and records of complaints, and allows for disclosure of such records only through the discovery process described in Evidence Code Section 1043?

Answer 1162

832.7 PC

Question 1163

In regards to Pitchess Motions, what did People v. Harold Memro do?

Answer 1163

The case broadened the Pitchess requirements to include any type of complaint in the officer's personnel file as long as the defense attorney had effectively shown the relevancy of the complaint to the defense's case.

Question 1164

In regards to Pitchess Motions, if done by mail, how many days prior to the hearing shall the defendant serve the agency having custody or control of the records?

Answer 1164

20 days

Question 1165

In regards to Pitchess Motions, if done in person, how many days prior to the hearing shall the defendant serve the agency having custody or control of the records?

Answer 1165

15 days

Question 1166

In regards to Pitchess Motions, in the event a judge orders the production of an officer's personnel records without adhering to the Pitchess Motion process, what shall be done?

Answer 1166

An affidavit, prepared by the Area and signed by the Commander, shall accompany the records to court in a sealed envelope.

Question 1167

What is the CHP’s mission?

Answer 1167

To provide the highest level of safety, service, and security.

Question 1168

What is the CHP’s Vision Statement?

Answer 1168

To be a trusted leader in law enforcement while ensuring California is the safest place to live and travel.

Question 1169

The Citizen Advisory Board consists of how many members?

Answer 1169

11 total members **8 representing each of the divisions and 3 at large appointments.

Question 1170

The primary focus of the Citizen Advisory Board is what?

Answer 1170

1. Use of force policies 2. Citizen’s complaints 3. EEO 4. Management and supervisory practices 5. Public perception 6. Hiring

Question 1171

In regards to the CHP motto, what shall managers answer supervisors do?

Answer 1171

1. Learn, internalize and support it, and... | 2. Thereafter serve as a model for subordinates to emulate

Question 1172

What are the 7 points of the CHP badge (LICK HJC)?

Answer 1172

1. Loyalty 2. Integrity 3. Courtesy 4. Knowledge 5. Honor 6. Judgment 7. Character

Question 1173

The overall length of all long guns must be what?

Answer 1173

26 inches

Question 1174

Shotgun barrels must be at least how many inches?

Answer 1174

18 inches

Question 1175

Rifle barrels must be at least how long?

Answer 1175

16 inches

Question 1176

In regards to staff meetings, Area minutes shall be sent to Division and posted at the Area for how long?

Answer 1176

5 days

Question 1177

In regards to staff meetings, when uniformed members are absent, what are they supposed to do with the meeting minutes?

Answer 1177

1. Read, and... | 2. Initial the printed copy of the minutes

Question 1178

Notices of open Area meetings shall be posted how far in advance of the meeting; to anyone who submits a written request for notification?

Answer 1178

At least 10 days prior to the meeting

Question 1179

Smoking shall not be within how many feet of doorways, ground level air intake structures, and windows?

Answer 1179

25 feet

Question 1180

In regards to lactation accommodation, what shall supervisors provide employees with?

Answer 1180

1. An enclosed room, other than a restroom 2. Away from public view, provides privacy 3. Available for the time requested by the employee

Question 1181

CALEA was established in what year and by whom?

Answer 1181

Created in 1979 by: 1. International Association of Chiefs of Police 2. National Organization of Black Law Enforcement Executives 3. National Sheriff’s Association 4. Police Executive Research Forum

Question 1182

Promotional lists are valid for how long?

Answer 1182

1. At least 12 months | 2. No more than 48 months

Question 1183

CHP 220’s shall not be submitted more than how many days prior to the completion of probation for officers, sergeants, and non-command lieutenants?

Answer 1183

90 days

Question 1184

A search warrant without night night service shall be served between what times?

Answer 1184

0700 hours to 2200 hours

Question 1185

Misdemeanor arrest warrants without night service shall be served between what times?

Answer 1185

0600 hours to 2200 hours

Question 1186

What are the 3 reasons the CHP must engage in the Public Trust Initiative?

Answer 1186

1. Public and officer safety is built upon mutual trust 2. Public support is essential for safer communities 3. Provides an opportunity for CHP to assume a leadership role in building a public trust framework that could serve as a model to others

Question 1187

In regards to the Public Trust Initiative, together, we must embrace what 3 principals (RUI)?

Answer 1187

1. Individual evaluation 2. Respect and dignity 3. Unified vision

Question 1188

In regards to the Early Intervention System in Blue Team, how many Citizen Complaint entires warrant an intervention advisory and supervisory review?

Answer 1188

3 in 18 months

Question 1189

In regards to the Early Intervention System in Blue Team, how many Use of Force entires warrant an intervention advisory and supervisory review?

Answer 1189

3 in 12 months

Question 1190

In regards to the Early Intervention System in Blue Team, how many MOD entires warrant an intervention advisory and supervisory review?

Answer 1190

2 in 12 months

Question 1191

In regards to the Early Intervention System in Blue Team, how many CHP Form 2 entires warrant an intervention advisory and supervisory review?

Answer 1191

2 in 12 months

Question 1192

In regards to the Early Intervention System in Blue Team, how many “positive” documentation entires warrant an intervention advisory and supervisory review?

Answer 1192

2 in 12 months

Question 1193

Supervisors, managers, or other commander designers shall make Blue Team entries when what incidents occur?

Answer 1193

1. Citizen complaints | 2. Written performance documents; positive or negative

Question 1194

What are the 2 categories of Threshold incidents?

Answer 1194

1. Category A | 2. Category B

Question 1195

When shall ORM be notified (via ENTAC) of Category A Threshold incidents?

Answer 1195

Immediately

Question 1196

When shall ORM be notified (via ENTAC) of Category B Threshold incidents?

Answer 1196

The next BUSINESS day

Question 1197

In regards to grants, private grant funding shall not be sought without specific approval from who?

Answer 1197

Executive Management

Question 1198

In regards to grants, OTS grant funding applications shall be sent to who?

Answer 1198

Special Projects Section, Grant Management Unit

Question 1199

Organizational rosters shall be updated when?

Answer 1199

The beginning of each quarter

Question 1200

The use of the AVLS system shall not be used solely to determine what?

Answer 1200

Patrol vehicle speed

Question 1201

LPR data shall be purged after how long?

Answer 1201

60 days

Question 1202

The retention period for Tier 1 and Tier 2 AVLS data is how long?

Answer 1202

90 days

Question 1203

The retention period for Tier 3 AVLS data is how long?

Answer 1203

1 year

Question 1204

AVLS data can be used for training purposes if what?

Answer 1204

1. No on-going civil/criminal proceedings | 2. Area commander approval

Question 1205

How often shall employees receive training on Special Relationships?

Answer 1205

Annually

Question 1206

Every office is required to schedule how many days a week for child safety seat inspections?

Answer 1206

1

Question 1207

Car seat technicians are required to participate in how many events per year?

Answer 1207

At least 2

Question 1208

Beat revisions necessitated by addition, loss, or change in patrol responsibility shall be submitted to Division at least how many days prior to the date they are to become effective?

Answer 1208

60 days

Question 1209

What is the retention period for “open” felony CHP 216 and CHP 202 reports?

Answer 1209

7 years

Question 1210

What is the retention period for felony CHP 216 and CHP 202 reports?

Answer 1210

4 years

Question 1211

What is the retention period for misdemeanor CHP 216 and CHP 202’s and incident reports?

Answer 1211

3 years

Question 1212

For criminal cases, MVARS release must be coordinated through who?

Answer 1212

Local DA

Question 1213

For civil cases, MVARS release must be coordinated through who?

Answer 1213

OLA

Question 1214

In regards to conducting Field Interviews, field photos may only be taken of suspects under what circumstances?

Answer 1214

1. Suspect gives consent | 2. Reasonable suspicion of criminal activity

Question 1215

The public can use 1-800-TELL CHP to report what 5 things?

Answer 1215

1. FLV violations 2. Child safety seat violations 3. AMBER Alert sightings 4. Non-emergency incident reporting 5. Victim and witness information

Question 1216

To be considered a fatal collision, the death must occur within how many days of the collision?

Answer 1216

30 days

Question 1217

CHP employees are not permitted at parole board hearings unless what?

Answer 1217

They’re requested by the family as a support person

Question 1218

If a uniformed CHP employee attends a parole board hearing, what shall they not do?

Answer 1218

1. Make comments or participate | 2. Wear uniform

Question 1219

Search and seizure training shall be completed how often?

Answer 1219

Quarterly

Question 1220

Active shooter policy shall be reviewed how often?

Answer 1220

Annually

Question 1221

How often are sergeants and below required to attend refresher active shooter training?

Answer 1221

Every 2 years

Question 1222

Area commanders shall establish policy to perform security/welfare checks at the district office of elected state officials in their area how often?

Answer 1222

Monthly

Question 1223

Area commanders shall personally contact their state and federal elected officials, Sheriff’s, and county Board of Supervisors or state at least how often?

Answer 1223

Quarterly

Question 1224

Area commanders shall be available for contact by county, state, and federal elected officials, for how many hours a day?

Answer 1224

24 hours a day

Question 1225

Key Contacts may only be delegated to someone other than the Area commander by who?

Answer 1225

Division Commander

Question 1226

Area commanders are allowed up to how much money per year to join professional law enforcement organizations?

Answer 1226

$250

Question 1227

Public Safety Officers Procedural Bill of Rights Act (POBR) is contained within what Government Code sections?

Answer 1227

GC 3300 through GC 3313

Question 1228

Area reps are allowed how much release time to prepare for grievance/complaints at each level?

Answer 1228

4 hours

Question 1229

Area reps are allowed how much release time to prepare for arbitration?

Answer 1229

8 hours

Question 1230

If an employee donates leave credits to the CAHP, in what increment must the time be donated?

Answer 1230

1 hour increments

Question 1231

In regards to a grievance, the employee must have an informal discussion with the supervisor within how many days of the event?

Answer 1231

21 WORKING days

Question 1232

In regards to grievances, who serves as the final level of review at Level 4?

Answer 1232

CalHR

Question 1233

In regards to a grievance, within how many days of the informal discussion shall the supervisor render a response or decision?

Answer 1233

7 WORKING days

Question 1234

In regards to a grievance, if the issue isn’t resolved at the informal discussion level, within how many days shall the employee appeal to Level 1?

Answer 1234

1. Within 21 WORKING days of the original event, or... | 2. Within 7 WORKING days of receiving the supervisors response during the informal discussion

Question 1235

In regards to grievances, within how many days of the employees appeal to Level 1, shall the department respond to the employee?

Answer 1235

14 WORKING days

Question 1236

In regards to a grievance, if the issue isn’t resolved at Level 1, within how many days shall the employee appeal to Level 2?

Answer 1236

14 WORKING days

Question 1237

In regards to grievances, within how many days of the employees appeal to Level 2, shall the department respond to the employee?

Answer 1237

21 WORKING days

Question 1238

In regards to grievances, within how many days of the employees appeal to Level 4, shall the Department of Personnel Administration respond to the employee?

Answer 1238

45 days

Question 1239

In regards to grievances, what happens if the employee misses the time limits?

Answer 1239

It shall be null and void

Question 1240

In regards to grievances, what happens if the department misses the time limits?

Answer 1240

It shall proceed to the next level

Question 1241

In regards to a grievance, as a last ditch effort, what can be done if the CAHP disagrees with the decision rendered at Level 4?

Answer 1241

The CAHP can request to go to arbitration

Question 1242

In regards to grievances, the CAHP must request arbitration within how many days of receiving the Level 4 response?

Answer 1242

30 days

Question 1243

In regards to grievances, the arbitrator must render a decision and provide a response to the CAHP within how many days?

Answer 1243

60 days

Question 1244

In regards to complaints, who serves as the final level of review at Level 3?

Answer 1244

Commissioner

Question 1245

How much money are K-9 officers allotted each month for maintenance?

Answer 1245

$156.65 per month

Question 1246

What is the educational incentive for an AA or Intermediate POST certificate?

Answer 1246

1. 2.5%, or... | 2. No LESS than $120 per month

Question 1247

What is the educational incentive for a BA or Advanced POST certificate?

Answer 1247

1. 5%, or... | 2. No LESS than $240 per month

Question 1248

What is the Physical Performance Pay incentive for an employee of less than 60 months?

Answer 1248

$65 per month

Question 1249

What is the Physical Performance Pay incentive for an employee of more than 60 months?

Answer 1249

$130 per month

Question 1250

What is the rate of bilingual pay per month?

Answer 1250

$100 per month

Question 1251

What is the pay incentive to ride a motorcycle?

Answer 1251

1. 4%, or... | 2. No LESS than $175 per month

Question 1252

What is the pay incentive to be an investigator?

Answer 1252

$50 per month

Question 1253

What is the pay incentive to be a paramedic?

Answer 1253

$50 per month

Question 1254

For business calls of less than 29 minutes, how much money is an employee entitled to?

Answer 1254

$10

Question 1255

Officers have to work how many hours, in how many days, before they are "eligible" to earn OT?

Answer 1255

1. 171 hours, in... | 2. A 28-day work period

Question 1256

OT is to be paid within how many days of the end of the FLSA period?

Answer 1256

14 days

Question 1257

In regards to standby pay, 4 hours of standby is equivalent to how many hours of paid OT?

Answer 1257

1 hour

Question 1258

In regards to the standby pay, what is the maximum amount of standby hours you can be paid for in a 24-hour period?

Answer 1258

5 hours

Question 1259

How much bereavement leave do you get for the death of an immediate family member, domestic partner, step-parent, or anyone residing in your household?

Answer 1259

3, 8-hour days PER OCCURRENCE

Question 1260

How much bereavement leave do you get for the death of a grandchild, grandparent, niece, nephew, or in-laws?

Answer 1260

3, 8-hour days PER FISCAL YEAR

Question 1261

In regards to catastrophic leave, an employee who wishes to donate, must donate a minimum of how many hours?

Answer 1261

2 hours

Question 1262

In regards to catastrophic leave, what is the maximum amount of time that can be donated to the receiving employee, unless extended by the Commissioner?

Answer 1262

6 months

Question 1263

How much do employees receive per year for the uniform allowance?

Answer 1263

$920

Question 1264

In regards to per diem /meal reimbursement, what are the maximum reimbursement amounts for breakfast, lunch, dinner, and incidentals?

Answer 1264

1. Breakfast: $7 2. Lunch: $11 3. Dinner: $23 4. Incidentals: $5

Question 1265

In regards to per diem /meal reimbursement, what is the total amount employees are allowed to request in a 24-hour period?

Answer 1265

$46 per 24-hour period

Question 1266

In regards to grievances, annual, interim, or transfer performance appraisals are grievable up to what level?

Answer 1266

Level 3

Question 1267

BWC policy shall be reviewed how often?

Answer 1267

Annually

Question 1268

The BWC shall be activated under what 5 circumstances (CAVE-P)?

Answer 1268

1. ENFORCEMENT contacts (pedestrians included) 2. VEHICLE searches and inventories 3. ASSISTING disabled motorists 4. CONFRONTATIONAL interactions with the public 5. PAT-DOWN frisks or searches

Question 1269

BWC footage shall be retained for a minimum of how long?

Answer 1269

1 year

Question 1270

Recordings from the accidental activation of the BWC can be deleted after how long?

Answer 1270

60 days

Question 1271

In conjunction with an officers CHP 118, supervisors shall review a minimum of how many BWC recordings?

Answer 1271

2

Question 1272

External rifle rated body armor shall have what on the back?

Answer 1272

POLICE

Question 1273

External rifle rated body armor may have POLICE on the front in what color writing?

Answer 1273

Gold

Question 1274

An officer shall have what on the front of their external rifle rated body armor?

Answer 1274

1. Cloth badge, and... | 2. ID and/or last name

Question 1275

Per 16740 PC, a large capacity magazine is an ammunition feeding device with the capacity to accept more than how many rounds?

Answer 1275

10

Question 1276

Commands shall have at least how many distracted driving surveys completed per quarter?

Answer 1276

2

Question 1277

In regards to correspondence, a paragraph of less than what shall not be divided between pages?

Answer 1277

4 lines

Question 1278

In regards to FTEP, FTO's shall turn in end of phase reports when?

Answer 1278

On the last day of training or extension

Question 1279

What Government Code Section covers rejections during probation?

Answer 1279

19173 GC

Question 1280

In regards to progressive discipline, what are the 4 levels of counseling?

Answer 1280

1. Informal 2. Formal 3. Corrective documentation 4. Adverse action

Question 1281

In regards to internal investigations, upon notification of, and at the conclusion of an interview/interrogation, employees shall be give what?

Answer 1281

A direct order not to discuss the interview/interrogation with anyone other than their chain of command or rep

Question 1282

Related employees will not be assigned to the same command when either one holds what position?

Answer 1282

Commander

Question 1283

Non-uniformed employees can be placed on Industrial Disability Leave (IDL) of they miss more than how many days of work because of an injury?

Answer 1283

3 days

Question 1284

For employees eligible for Non-Industrial Disability Leave (NDI), how many days must they wait before their payments start?

Answer 1284

7 days

Question 1285

If the department decides to disability retire someone, how much written notice is the department required to give them?

Answer 1285

15 days

Question 1286

What types of leave are considered temporary separations (STILL-D)?

Answer 1286

1. Leave of absence or military 2. Suspensions 3. Termination for medical 4. Involuntary leave 5. Layoff 6. Disability retirement

Question 1287

What types of leave are considered permanent separations (FARR-DD)?

Answer 1287

1. Dismissal 2. AWOL 3. Resignation 4. Rejection during probation 5. Death 6. Failure to meet conditions of employment

Question 1288

If a Commander realizes on January 1 that employees are over the maximum allowable vacation hours of 816, by which date are they to send a memo to HRS listing the employees who have been directed to burn their leave credits down?

Answer 1288

By March 1

Question 1289

By which date is the Commander required to review the vacation leave balances for EXCLUDED employees to determine if they need to burn leave credits down?

Answer 1289

By June 1

Question 1290

An employee is entitled to review ALL of their employee records with the exception of what?

Answer 1290

Any medical or psychiatric reports that the employer believes would be detrimental to the employee

Question 1291

OT shall not be authorized to augment patrol strength to meet a continuing problem without prior approval from who?

Answer 1291

Commissioner

Question 1292

An employee must work a minimum of how many hours in order to earn a 30-60 minute lunch?

Answer 1292

5 hours

Question 1293

CHP 415's, CHP 71's and STD. 634's must be submitted by the timekeeper within how many days of the end of the pay period?

Answer 1293

4 days

Question 1294

Employees should maintain a balance of how many "excess" hours?

Answer 1294

16-40 hours

Question 1295

A Commander may certify a sergeant as on-call if they have been on-call for at least how many days in a pay period?

Answer 1295

10

Question 1296

When a Commander makes a copy of the "pay and direct deposit dates chart" and posts it, what shall be printed at the bottom of it?

Answer 1296

The command name and address

Question 1297

By which date shall Commanders submit Special Pay Reports to HRS each year?

Answer 1297

By May 1

Question 1298

If an employee requests a bilingual audit, within how many days of the request shall it be completed?

Answer 1298

90 days

Question 1299

Organizational Charts are due to HQ by which date of each year?

Answer 1299

November 15

Question 1300

If an EXCLUDED employee performs higher class duties for more than how many days, they shall receive the pay of the higher class?

Answer 1300

15 consecutive WORKING days

Question 1301

Managerial employees can receive the "out of class" higher pay if they perform acting duties for more than how many days?

Answer 1301

90 days

Question 1302

In regards to Citizen's Complaints, what is the CHP 240B?

Answer 1302

Complaint against officer

Question 1303

In regards to Citizen's Complaints, what is the CHP 240D?

Answer 1303

Complaint against non-uniformed

Question 1304

In regards to Citizen's Complaints, can the parent of a juvenile file a 3rd party complaint?

Answer 1304

No, but anyone else who was NOT present can

Question 1305

In regards to forced blood draws, is a warrant required when the person is on PRCS, parole, probation, or has a search clause?

Answer 1305

No

Question 1306

In regards to forced blood draws, is a warrant required for a blood draw on an unconscious person?

Answer 1306

Yes

Question 1307

In regards to DUI, what is the presumptive DUI BAC limit?

Answer 1307

.05

Question 1308

What is the preferred chemical test when testing for Depressants?

Answer 1308

Blood

Question 1309

Under what 5 circumstances could an officer make a warrantless DUI arrest inside a residence?

Answer 1309

1. Driver is DUI 2. Driver is home 3. DUI is an element of the crime being investigated 4. BAC evidence is in danger of imminent destruction 5. Time between crime and arrest is brief enough to still show BAC is present

Question 1310

If a DUI suspect is cited and released, what shall be noted on the CHP 215?

Answer 1310

1. Responsible person name and DL is noted in "violation" section 2. Check "booking required"; completed CHP 194 **Responsible party shall be requested to sign the CHP 202F**

Question 1311

In regards to DUI, a minimum of how much blood is required to be collected for the chemical test?

Answer 1311

3 milliliters

Question 1312

In regards to DUI, urine tests may only be taken how many minutes after the bladder was voided?

Answer 1312

20 minutes

Question 1313

In regards to the use of legal intervention during pursuits, ramming (PIT) should not occur at speeds over what?

Answer 1313

35 MPH

Question 1314

In regards to the use of legal intervention during pursuits, school buses with kids, buses with passengers, haz-mat vehicles or other vehicles that may be hazardous should not or shall not be spiked?

Answer 1314

Should not

Question 1315

In regards to the use of legal intervention during pursuits, what vehicle(s) shall not be spiked?

Answer 1315

1. Motorcycles, or... | 2. Mopeds

Question 1316

In regards to the use of legal intervention during pursuits, when would an officer be authorized to ram a motorcycle or moped?

Answer 1316

When deadly force is authorized

Question 1317

Under what circumstances would an officer be authorized to employ a roadblock?

Answer 1317

1. When attempting to apprehend a felon who committed a forcible or atrocious felony, or... 2. While assisting with disaster relief

Question 1318

In regards to using personal weapons, what are the areas that should be targeted (BENT-G)?

Answer 1318

1. Back 2. Eyes 3. Neck 4. Throat 5. Groin

Question 1319

In regards to handcuffing, under what circumstances would an officer consider handcuffing a subject to the FRONT (SIDE-V)?

Answer 1319

1. Sick 2. Injured 3. Disabled 4. Elderly 5. Visibly pregnant

Question 1320

How many spit socks should be carried in each patrol vehicle?

Answer 1320

1 **In the truck (in the first aid kit)

Question 1321

When transporting a combative subject, who shall be notified?

Answer 1321

The jail, prior to arrival

Question 1322

When OC is used on a subject, within how many minutes must their face and eyes be flushed?

Answer 1322

30 minutes

Question 1323

How many less lethal shotguns shall be deployed per shift?

Answer 1323

At least 1

Question 1324

In regards to the ECD/CEW, what areas shall the officer avoid targeting?

Answer 1324

1. Head 2. Neck 3. Face 4. Throat 5. Groin 6. Spine

Question 1325

In regards to the ECD/CEW, when shall the officer not deploy the ECD/CEW?

Answer 1325

1. Subject exposed to, or near, FLAMMABLE environment 2. Subject could fall a substantial HEIGHT 3. Subject could fall into WATER

Question 1326

In regards to the ECD/CEW, officers shall not remove probes from what areas?

Answer 1326

1. Head and eyes 2. Groin 3. Breast area of females 4. Throat 5. Neck 6. Spinal column 7. Joints

Question 1327

In regards to transporting prisoners, when the patrol vehicle is equipped with an eye bolt, what color strap shall be used to secure them?

Answer 1327

Blue

Question 1328

What does a U-Visa do, and within how many days must it be reviewed?

Answer 1328

1. A U-Visa grants relief from deportation and permission to work in the US to specified crime victims. 2. The application must be reviewed within 90 days. **If the victim is subject to immigration removal, the application must be reviewed within 14 days.

Question 1329

In regards to immunity procedures for Honorary Consular and Consular Employees, employees from what countries shall not be arrested or detained, regardless of the circumstances?

Answer 1329

Russia or China

Question 1330

A minor may be detained in lock-up under what circumstances?

Answer 1330

1. 14+ years old 2. In custody for breaking criminal law 3. Officer believes they are serious security risk of harm to self or others

Question 1331

If a minor is 14+ years old, in custody for breaking the law, and believed to be a serious security risk of harm to self or others, they may be locked in a room or cell under what conditions?

Answer 1331

1. Can't be longer than 6 hours (or go to juvie) 2. Detention must be to further investigate, or to facilitate release or booking 3. Must be separated from adults 4. Must be told how long incarceration will last 5. Must be supervised 6. Agency must document and keep record

Question 1332

When CHP 215's are issued by an officer assigned to drive a PCFV vehicle, what special code shall be used?

Answer 1332

66

Question 1333

What constitutes an emergency incident zone?

Answer 1333

500 feet in same direction of stationary emergency vehicle with lights on

Question 1334

What constitutes a Farm Labor Vehicle?

Answer 1334

Any motor vehicle that is designed, used, or maintained for the transportation of 9+ farmworkers, in addition to the driver to or from the place of employment; excluded is any vehicle carrying only immediate family of the owner/driver.

Question 1335

What color are permanent handicap placards, and when do they expire?

Answer 1335

1. Blue | 2. Expire 6/30 of ODD numbered years

Question 1336

What color are temporary handicap placards, and when do they expire?

Answer 1336

1. Red | 2. Expire every 6 months

Question 1337

When shall victims of sexual, hate, or DV crimes be advised of their right to remain confidential?

Answer 1337

Prior to the initiation of a report

Question 1338

What is a DV victim entitled to during any interview by law enforcement, prosecutors, or defense attorneys?

Answer 1338

They are entitled to have a counselor or support person present

Question 1339

In regards to DV incidents, served Protective Orders shall be retained at the Area for how long?

Answer 1339

1. Felonies - 4 years | 2. Misdemeanors - 2 years

Question 1340

In regards to DV incidents, if an officer can't arrest a suspect because there's no proof or verification of service of a Restraining Order or Emergency Protective Order, what shall they advise the victim of?

Answer 1340

That they can make a private persons arrest

Question 1341

When a PUBLIC school teacher is arrested for controlled substances or sexual crime, who shall immediately be notified by phone, and in writing?

Answer 1341

1. Phone - Superintendent of school district | 2. Writing - Commission on teacher credentialing and Superintendent in their county

Question 1342

When a NON-TEACHER in any PUBLIC school is arrested for controlled substances or sexual crime, who shall immediately be notified by phone, and in writing?

Answer 1342

1. Phone - Superintendent of school district | 2. Writing - Governing board of school district

Question 1343

When a PRIVATE school teacher is arrested for controlled substances or sexual crime, who shall immediately be notified by phone, and in writing, of the arrest?

Answer 1343

1. Phone - Private school authority employing the teacher | 2. Writing - Same

Question 1344

When a COMMUNITY COLLEGE TEACHER/INSTRUCTOR is arrested for controlled substances or sexual crime, who shall immediately be notified by phone, and in writing, of the arrest?

Answer 1344

Phone - Superintendent of the community college district employing the teacher/instructor Writing - Office of the Chancellor of the California Community Colleges

Question 1345

In regards to employee relations and employee rights, supervisory employees are NOT entitled to what (CREB)?

Answer 1345

1. Contracts 2. Right to file unfair labor practice charge 3. Exclusive representation 4. Bargaining units

Question 1346

In regards to employee relations and employee rights, managerial, confidential, and other non-supervisory excluded employees are NOT entitled to what (CREB)?

Answer 1346

1. Contracts 2. Right to file unfair labor practice charge 3. Exclusive representation 4. Bargaining units

Question 1347

Area reps are allowed how much release time to prepare for officer involved shootings?

Answer 1347

8 hours

Question 1348

A copy of a grievance or complaint shall be sent to Division and OER within how many days?

Answer 1348

Within 5 WORKING days after issuance of the response at Level 1

Question 1349

In regards to grievances for EXCLUDED employees, the employee must have an informal discussion with the supervisor within how many days of the event?

Answer 1349

10 WORKING days

Question 1350

In regards to grievances for EXCLUDED employees, within how many days of the informal discussion shall the supervisor render a response or decision?

Answer 1350

5 WORKING days

Question 1351

In regards to grievances for EXCLUDED employees, if the issue isn’t resolved at the informal discussion level, within how many days shall the employee complete a CHP 94 and submit a formal grievance to Level 1?

Answer 1351

1. Within 10 WORKING days of original event, or... | 2. Within 5 WORKING days of the supervisor response at the informal discussion level

Question 1352

In regards to grievances for EXCLUDED employees, within how many days of the employees appeal to Level 1, shall the department respond to the employee?

Answer 1352

10 WORKING days

Question 1353

In regards to grievances for EXCLUDED employees, if the issue isn’t resolved at Level 1, within how many days shall the employee appeal to Level 2?

Answer 1353

10 WORKING days

Question 1354

In regards to grievances for EXCLUDED employees, within how many days of the employees appeal to Level 2, shall the department respond to the employee?

Answer 1354

15 WORKING days

Question 1355

In regards to grievances for EXCLUDED employees, within how many days of the employees appeal to Level 4, shall CalHR respond to the employee?

Answer 1355

20 WORKING days

Question 1356

Grievances shall be kept at the Area for how many years following final action?

Answer 1356

3 years

Question 1357

Complaints shall be kept at the Area for how many years following final action?

Answer 1357

1 year

Question 1358

If relocation reimbursement has been approved for an employee, within how many years of the move is the employee required to sell their home?

Answer 1358

2 years

Question 1359

If a citizen uses a credit card to purchase a collision report or photos, within how many hours of the purchase shall the Area send the credit card info to FMS?

Answer 1359

24 hours

Question 1360

A book of 25 vouchers for collision reports can be purchased for how much?

Answer 1360

$250

Question 1361

In regards to reimbursable services OT contracts, within how many days of the end of the detail shall all billing documents be sent to FMS?

Answer 1361

10 BUSINESS days after detail

Question 1362

In regards to reimbursable services OT contracts, if the contract is for LESS than 30 days, how much of the deposit shall be collected?

Answer 1362

Full deposit

Question 1363

In regards to reimbursable services OT contracts, if the contract is for MORE than 30 days, how much of the deposit shall be collected?

Answer 1363

At least 50%

Question 1364

In regards to NON-CHP employees, DOJ, fingerprint, and DL checks shall be done when they are present for contracted work at our facilities for how long?

Answer 1364

90+ days

Question 1365

In regards to NON-CHP employees, ONLY DL checks shall be done when they are present for contracted work at our facilities for how long?

Answer 1365

30+ days

Question 1366

In regards to X-numbers, how many quotes are required before obtaining good or services from CERTIFIED businesses?

Answer 1366

2

Question 1367

In regards to X-numbers, how many quotes are required before obtaining good or services from NON-CERTIFIED businesses?

Answer 1367

3

Question 1368

In regards to X-numbers, how many quotes are required before obtaining good or services in an emergency?

Answer 1368

None

Question 1369

In regards to invoices, a vendor must be notified in writing of a disputed invoice within how many days of receiving it?

Answer 1369

15 BUSINESS days

Question 1370

In regards to the Information Privacy Act, if an employee wishes to inspect any/all records pertaining to them, how, and to whom, shall they submit their request.

Answer 1370

1. In WRITING, to... | 2. The AREA WHERE THE RECORDS ARE KEPT

Question 1371

In regards to the Information Privacy Act, if an employee wishes to inspect any/all records pertaining to them, within how many days of submitting their request, shall they be allowed the opportunity to review them during normal business hours?

Answer 1371

30 days

Question 1372

In regards to the Information Privacy Act, if an employee wishes to inspect any/all ARCHIVED records pertaining to them, within how many days of submitting their request, shall they be allowed the opportunity to review them during normal business hours?

Answer 1372

60 days

Question 1373

What are the 4 objectives of the Injury and Illness Case Management program (BRCR)?

Answer 1373

1. Benefits 2. Reporting 3. Communication 4. Return to Work

Question 1374

What are the 5 elements of the Occupational Safety program (HIP-DH)?

Answer 1374

1. Injury and Illness Prevention Program 2. Hazardous Substances Program 3. Defensive Driver Training 4. Hazardous Exposure Control Program 5. Personal Protective Equipment

Question 1375

The Cal OSHA 300 log shall be posted in the Area from when to when?

Answer 1375

February 1 to April 30

Question 1376

Recordable collisions are separated into what 5 categories (SUMA-M)?

Answer 1376

1. Marked auto sedans 2. Unmarked auto sedans 3. Special purpose 4. Motorcycles 5. Aircraft

Question 1377

During the Annual Fitness Challenge, who/what shall be present before the event starts?

Answer 1377

1. CHP EMT with oxygen | 2. EMT bag

Question 1378

In regards to the Annual Fitness challenge, who shall not be allowed to participate?

Answer 1378

1. Those on limited duty | 2. Those pending an AA with a recommendation for termination

Question 1379

In regards to the Annual Fitness Challenge, are injuries sustained wile PREPARING for the event considered work-related?

Answer 1379

No

Question 1380

In regards to the Annual Fitness Challenge, an employee's heart rate must be below what in order to participate?

Answer 1380

90 bpm

Question 1381

In regards to the Annual Fitness Challenge, an employee's blood pressure must be below what in order to participate?

Answer 1381

140/90 within 30 minutes of the start

Question 1382

In regards to the Occupational Safety program, the TARGET numbers are set by who, and based on what?

Answer 1382

1. Set by Executive Management | 2. Based on 3 year average

Question 1383

In regards to the Occupational Safety program, commanders shall schedule safety inspections at their facility how often?

Answer 1383

Semi-annually; preceding the COSC meeting

Question 1384

In regards to the Occupational Safety program, uniformed personnel are required to complete how much commentary driving annually?

Answer 1384

1 hour

Question 1385

In regards to the Occupational Safety program, non-uniformed personnel are required to complete how much commentary driving annually?

Answer 1385

30 minutes to 1 hour

Question 1386

In regards to the Occupational Safety program, employees are required to wear hearing protection when the noise exceeds what?

Answer 1386

90 decibles

Question 1387

In regards to the facility HVAC system, air monitoring results shall be posted within how many days of receipt by the Area?

Answer 1387

5 WORKING days

Question 1388

In regards to performance appraisals, what are the 7 potential rater errors?

Answer 1388

1. Halo or Horns Effect 2. Lenient or Harsh Effect 3. Central Tendency Effect 4. Similar to Me Effect 5. Contrast Effect 6. First or Last Impression Effect 7. Stereotype Effect

Question 1389

In regards to performance appraisals, what are the 3 rating categories on CHP 118's?

Answer 1389

1. Excellent 2. Proficient 3. Deficient

Question 1390

In regards to performance appraisals, what are the 3 rating categories on CHP 100's?

Answer 1390

1. Excellent 2. Proficient 3. Needs Improvement

Question 1391

Cultural Awareness and Ethics training is conducted how often and by who?

Answer 1391

1. Every 4th calendar year, by... | 2. A sergeant or above, who has attended AICC and been certified by a Museum of Tolerance trainer

Question 1392

When does the CHP conduct language surveys?

Answer 1392

October 1, EVEN numbered years

Question 1393

In order to participate in the LEAP program, the employee must have what kind of disability?

Answer 1393

A certified visual, hearing, speech, physical, or developmental disability

Question 1394

In regards to CHP 415 entries, what information shall be documented for a VERBAL WARNING?

Answer 1394

1. Violation 2. DL#; if none, name and DOB 3. LP# or VIN; if DL# or name wasn't obtained

Question 1395

In regards to CHP 415 entries, what information shall be documented for a MOTORIST SERVICE?

Answer 1395

1. LP# or VIN

Question 1396

In regards to CHP 415 entries, what information shall be documented for an ADV?

Answer 1396

1. LP# or VIN

Question 1397

In regards to CHP 415 entries, what information shall be documented for a CHP 422?

Answer 1397

1. LP# or VIN

Question 1398

In regards to CHP 415 entries, what information shall be documented for an "assist"?

Answer 1398

1. Name of agency or CHP ID# | 2. Comment on type of assistance

Question 1399

In regards to evidence processing, shall pills be weighed or counted?

Answer 1399

Weighed, regardless of quantity

Question 1400

In regards to crime scenes, what are the 7 types of searches you can conduct?

Answer 1400

1. Point-to-point 2. Strip search 3. Double strip search 4. Quadrant 5. Aerial 6. Wheel 7. Circular

Question 1401

All evidence shall be entered into AIS within how many days of seizure?

Answer 1401

2 BUSINESS days

Question 1402

MVARS DVD's shall be pre-flighted with what information?

Answer 1402

1. Date 2. Shift 3. PV# 4. ID#

Question 1403

What are the priorities and objectives of an Incident Action Plan (LIP)?

Answer 1403

1. Life safety 2. Incident Stabilization 3. Property Conservation

Question 1404

CHP Operational Plans for scheduled or anticipated events shall be documented using what 5 operation plan headings (MACES)?

Answer 1404

1. Mission 2. Administrative instructions 3. Concept of operations 4. Execution 5. Situation

Question 1405

In regards to possible bomb incidents, CHP employees shall only conduct what kind of searches?

Answer 1405

1. Visual, and... | 2. Facility searches

Question 1406

In regards to possible bomb incidents, CHP radios shall not be used within how many feet of a suspicious vehicle?

Answer 1406

300 feet

Question 1407

In regards to civil disturbances, what color should be worn by each squad (for differentiation) for uniformity throughout the state?

Answer 1407

1. Managers - Yellow 2. Squad 1 - Red 3. Squad 2 - White 4. Squad 3 - Blue 5. Squad 4 - Green 6. Squad 5 - Orange 7. Grenadiers - Black

Question 1408

In regards to the less-lethal shotgun, when it's stored in the trunk, how many rounds are stored with it?

Answer 1408

1. 7 on the butt stock | 2. 5 in the case

Question 1409

In regards to the uniform policy, US Flag decals shall be worn on what helmets?

Answer 1409

1. Motorcycle helmets 2. Bicycle helmets 3. Aviation helmets

Question 1410

In regards to registration enforcement, ONE-DAY trip permits must be completed within how many days and cannot exceed how many miles round-trip?

Answer 1410

1. Within 60 days | 2. 100 miles round-trip

Question 1411

Golf carts are required to be registered if driven on the road, unless what?

Answer 1411

The person driving can't move as a pedestrian

Question 1412

The CHP is required to inspect and certify school buses, youth buses, and SPABS's, at least how ofter?

Answer 1412

Every 13 months

Question 1413

School buses may stop (double-park) to unload/load children if what?

Answer 1413

1. Speed limit is 25 MPH or less | 2. 200 feet of visibility in each direction

Question 1414

In regards to vehicle storage/impound procedures, if the officer doesn't enter the estimated value of a vehicle within how many days, the tow operator is required to?

Answer 1414

3 days

Question 1415

To release a vehicle to a repossessor, the repossessor shall present a copy of the assignment, and which 1 of 3 documents?

Answer 1415

1. Certificate of repossession 2. Title showing ownership 3. Security agreement

Question 1416

In regards to DL's, what are the "good service" codes?

Answer 1416

A, B, D, H, J, I, M **A, needs to be 45 days old to be considered "good service"

Question 1417

When issuing a CHP 215, other than the violator's signature, what can go into the signature box (CORPIS)?

Answer 1417

1. Complaint to be filed 2. Owner's responsibility 3. Refused 4. Parental notification 5. In-custody 6. Statistical purposes only

Question 1418

In regards to air Ops, the maximum weight for crew-members is how much?

Answer 1418

275 pounds

Question 1419

In regards to Air Ops, when flying the airplane, flight shall terminate how long prior to an empty gas tank when flying at day and night?

Answer 1419

1. Day - 30 minutes | 2. Night - 45 minutes

Question 1420

In regards to Air Ops, when flying the helicopter, flight shall terminate how long prior to an empty gas tank ?

Answer 1420

20 minutes

Question 1421

In regards to Air Ops, actual pilot flight time shall not exceed what per day?

Answer 1421

8 hours

Question 1422

In regards to Air Ops, how much rest shall pilots have between shifts?

Answer 1422

At least 10 hours

Question 1423

In regards to publications, a GO shall not exceed how many pages, including attachments?

Answer 1423

25 pages

Question 1424

In regards to publications, a MM shall not exceed how many pages, including attachments?

Answer 1424

20 pages

Question 1425

In regards to publications, MM's are generally good for up to how many months?

Answer 1425

9 months, but may be extended an additional 6 months

Question 1426

In regards to publications, what is the purpose of MM's?

Answer 1426

To provide temporary issuance of policy

Question 1427

In regards to publications, what is the purpose of IB's?

Answer 1427

To make CHP employees aware of changes to law

Question 1428

In regards to publications, what is the purpose of HPH's?

Answer 1428

To quote law and policy; available to public

Question 1429

In regards to publications, what is the purpose of HPG's?

Answer 1429

To restate policy

Question 1430

Comm-Nets containing policies or procedures expire how many days from the date of message?

Answer 1430

90 days

Question 1431

When a Comm-Net expires, within how many days shall the policy or procedure be put into a HPM, GO, or MM?

Answer 1431

45 days

Question 1432

Policy is established in what publications?

Answer 1432

1. GO's 2. HPM's 3. Sometimes Comm-Net's and MM's

Question 1433

Per the EMS policy, if an AED is used by an employee at the scene of an incident, within how many days of the event shall the CHP 330 be forwarded to the Academy?

Answer 1433

2 BUSINESS days

Question 1434

Generally, marked pursuit rated vehicles, including motorcycles, PCFV's, and canine vehicles, which are NOT all-terrain (4x4), should be replaced after how many miles?

Answer 1434

100,000

Question 1435

Generally, MARKED special purpose, undercover, pick-ups, all-terrain (4x4), and other Class-C vehicles, should be replaced after how many miles?

Answer 1435

125,000

Question 1436

Generally, UNMARKED special purpose sedans (pool vehicles), light and heavy trucks, motor carrier vans, and other transportation or vocational vehicles, should be replaced after how many miles?

Answer 1436

150,000

Question 1437

A state gas card can be used up to how many TIMES A DAY, for a maximum of how much PER DAY, and for a maximum of how much PER MONTH?

Answer 1437

1. Used a maximum of 5 times per day 2. Spend a maximum of $500 per day 3. Spend a maximum of $2500 per month

Question 1438

Per the hazmat policy, how many radiological response kits shall be kept at each Area office?

Answer 1438

2

Question 1439

In regards to Departmental Awards, what are the 4 state-level awards available to all state employees?

Answer 1439

1. Medal of Valor, Special Act (Gold Medal) 2. Medal of Valor, Special Service (Silver Medal) 3. Superior Accomplishment (Gold and Silver Award) 4. Sustained Superior Accomplishment

Question 1440

Who does the CHP serve tax seizure warrants for?

Answer 1440

1. Board of Equalization 2. Franchise Tax Board 3. Employment Development Department

Question 1441

All CHP tax seizures must be done within how many days of receipt?

Answer 1441

60 days

Question 1442

Kaitlyn's Law prohibits anyone from leaving a child of what age unattended in a motor vehicle without the supervision of someone at least how old?

Answer 1442

1. A child of 6 years of age or younger | 2. Someone at least 12 years of age or older

Question 1443

What are the 4 departmental goals according to the 2020-2024 Strategic Plan?

Answer 1443

1. Protect life and property 2. Enhance Public Trust through superior service 3. Invest in out people 4. Anticipate public safety and law enforcement trends and provide assistance to allied agencies

Question 1444

What are the CHP's Organizational Values (R.E.E.F.)?

Answer 1444

1. Respect for others 2. Ethical practices 3. Equitable treatment for all 4. Fairness

Question 1445

When is a CHP 468A, Enforcement Vehicle Shortage Report, required to be completed?

Answer 1445

Each time a shortage of enforcement vehicles is experienced during a shift

Question 1446

All commands shall submit a CHP 468, Vehicle Allocation, along with any CHP 468A's, Enforcement Vehicle Shortage Report, to Division by which date?

Answer 1446

June 1

Question 1447

All vehicles, OTHER THAN WHAT, are assigned to the command pool?

Answer 1447

Motorcycles

Question 1448

In regards to fleet operations, motorcycles may be allocated to who?

Answer 1448

Individual riders

Question 1449

In regards to fleet operations, Commanders' and enforcement vehicles are designated as what CLASS vehicles?

Answer 1449

E

Question 1450

In regards to fleet operations, motorcycles, are designated with what PREFIX?

Answer 1450

M

Question 1451

In regards to fleet operations, a request for a "cold plated" undercover vehicle shall be routed to who for approval?

Answer 1451

Commissioner

Question 1452

Commands with canine vehicles shall inform fleet operations they need a new vehicle how many days prior to it reaching the replacement mileage?

Answer 1452

90 days

Question 1453

In regards to fleet operations, who's permission is required before an employee transports a vehicle point-to-point within the state for official state business?

Answer 1453

Commander

Question 1454

In regards to fleet operations, what is a NON-UNIFORMED employee required to complete before they can transport a vehicle point-to-point within the state for official state business?

Answer 1454

Driver training

Question 1455

In regards to fleet operations, UNLESS the driver is a uniformed member of the Department and is in full uniform while driving, what shall be posted conspicuously in the rear side windows when transporting a marked enforcement vehicle point-to-point?

Answer 1455

"Out-of-Service" signs

Question 1456

In regards to fleet operations, when is a vehicle subject to survey?

Answer 1456

1. Vehicle repair expenses exceed .10 cents per remaining mile of service, or... 2. Vehicle has exceeded 100,000 miles

Question 1457

Upon receiving the fuel summary report from Division, within how many days shall the Area reconcile it (with receipts and CHP 33's), and forward it back to Division?

Answer 1457

15 days

Question 1458

Prior to affixing bumper stickers and accouterments to patrol vehicles, who's permission is required?

Answer 1458

Commissioner

Question 1459

When using Fleet-Focus, each vehicle's mileage shall be entered by what day each month?

Answer 1459

The 10th

Question 1460

All part expenditures, purchase orders, and transfer information for vehicle parts and supplies with a unit COST of MORE THAN what amount, shall be entered into Fleet-Focus?

Answer 1460

$5

Question 1461

CHP 33, Driver's Equipment Check, and CHP 33E's, Vehicle Inspection Checklist, shall be retained in the vehicle folder for how long?

Answer 1461

3 years after the vehicle survey

Question 1462

Under what 3 circumstances shall a CHP 57, Motor Vehicle Assignment and Transfer, be prepared?

Answer 1462

1. Vehicle originally assigned to a command 2. Vehicle transferred between commands 3. Vehicle going out-of-service

Question 1463

In regards to vehicle utilization, in a 6-month period, all state-owned vehicles need to be used how many MILES, or what PERCENTAGE of the work days it is available?

Answer 1463

1. At least 6,000 miles, or... | 2. 80%

Question 1464

In regards to vehicle utilization, Commanders shall be responsible for conducting a utilization review of their departmental fleet at what interval?

Answer 1464

Semi-annually

Question 1465

In regards to vehicle utilization, vehicles NOT meeting minimum-usage requirements shall be returned to Fleet Operations within how many days following the utilization review reporting period?

Answer 1465

60 days

Question 1466

In regards to vehicle utilization, any vehicle underutilized for HOW MANY many utilization review reporting periods, shall be returned to Fleet Operations?

Answer 1466

2

Question 1467

A speedometer found to be inaccurate by MORE than how many MPH's shall be replaced?

Answer 1467

4 MPH

Question 1468

Road flares shall be carried WHERE and HOW?

Answer 1468

1. In the trunk/cargo area | 2. Capped

Question 1469

The 4-point lug wrench shall be stored in the trunk, in what position?

Answer 1469

Vertical

Question 1470

The shovel shall be stored in the trunk, in what position?

Answer 1470

Horizontal

Question 1471

Under what circumstance can gasoline be stored in a vehicle?

Answer 1471

None, regardless of container

Question 1472

In regards to vehicle damage repairs, what are the 3 types or repair work(CON)?

Answer 1472

1. Operational 2. Collision 3. Not-due-to-collision

Question 1473

Whenever possible, how many repair estimates should be obtained if the repair costs EXCEED $500?

Answer 1473

3

Question 1474

What is a minimum gasoline order?

Answer 1474

90% of tank size for both underground or aboveground storage tanks.

Question 1475

If a gasoline contractor attempts to deliver fuel to a site, but gets detained for reasons caused by the ordering agency (i.e. locked gates, unavailable receiving personnel), the contractor shall be entitled to what?

Answer 1475

A demurrage fee

Question 1476

If a gasoline contractor is delayed in delivering to an Area office, and ends of charging a demurrage fee, the fee shall not exceed what?

Answer 1476

1. $2.50 per minute, and... | 2. $150 per delivery

Question 1477

There shall be NO smoking, open flame, or use of cellular telephone within how many feet of the fuel delivery system?

Answer 1477

25 feet

Question 1478

Commanders shall ensure a supply of vehicle parts and supplies for HOW MANY DAYS is always maintained?

Answer 1478

90 days

Question 1479

When using the State Fuel Credit Card, the maximum amount for an EMERGENCY purchase of MINOR vehicle parts shall not exceed what?

Answer 1479

$50

Question 1480

How often shall a Commander designate someone to physically count/inventory ALL tires (and related tools and receipts), vehicle parts, accessories, and fluids?

Answer 1480

Quarterly

Question 1481

When a Commander designates someone to physically count/inventory ALL tires (and related tools and receipts), vehicle parts, accessories, and fluids on a QUARTERLY basis, how long shall the inventory records be retained for?

Answer 1481

1. 6 months after an inspection by OIG, or... | 2. 3 years

Question 1482

The Departments Coaching/Mentoring Program policy extends to WHO, and WHY?

Answer 1482

1. All ranks and classifications, except the rank of officers 2. Officers participate in FTEP

Question 1483

In regards to the Coaching/Mentoring Program, who is a COACH?

Answer 1483

The mentee's direct supervisor

Question 1484

In regards to the Coaching/Mentoring Program, the COACH and MENTOR shall initially meet with the MENTEE within how many days of the mentee's new assignment?

Answer 1484

30 days

Question 1485

OUT-SERVICE training is comprised of what 4 categories?

Answer 1485

1. Job-required training 2. Job-related training 3. Upward mobility training 4. Career-related training

Question 1486

In regards to out-service-training, when requesting tuition assistance for accredited university/college courses, what must an employee ALREADY have on file at their Division?

Answer 1486

Career Development Plan

Question 1487

In regards to out-service-training, when seeking reimbursement for expenses incurred, within how many days of completing the course shall the employee send their request through CalATERS.

Answer 1487

30 days

Question 1488

When traveling into bordering states for out-service-training, if it's less than how many days, approval is NOT required from the Governor's Operation Office?

Answer 1488

5 consecutive WORKING days

Question 1489

Candidates attending Command College and SBSLI must reside in the host hotel even if they reside within how many MILES of the training location?

Answer 1489

50 miles

Question 1490

Training documented on the CHP 270, Service Record, shall be entered into ETRS by the command within how many days of the completion of training?

Answer 1490

10 BUSINESS days

Question 1491

Upon transfer, an employee's ETRS records shall be forward to their new command within how many days of the official reporting date?

Answer 1491

10 BUSINESS days

Question 1492

When an employee separates from the Department, or is terminated, what shall happen to their ETRS file?

Answer 1492

1. Made inactive, and... | 2. Remain under last command

Question 1493

For Organizational Development Section-mandated courses, in order to obtain credit for the course, students are only allowed to miss up to what PERCENTAGE of the scheduled course, before they will be required to make up the entire training course?

Answer 1493

10%

Question 1494

During the probationary period, Commanders shall evaluate all newly promoted or newly hired first-line supervisors using what DIMENSION CRITERIA; formerly used during the assessment center process?

Answer 1494

12-dimension criteria

Question 1495

During the one-year probationary period, Commanders shall evaluate all newly promoted or newly hired middle managers using what DIMENSION CRITERIA; formerly used during the assessment center process?

Answer 1495

8-dimension criteria

Question 1496

What does SROVT stand for?

Answer 1496

Solid, Realistic, Ongoing, Verifiable Training Program

Question 1497

SROVT training scenarios should be able to be presented within what TIME-SPAN?

Answer 1497

6 minutes

Question 1498

It is incumbent on field commanders and managers to understand the SROVT Program is a WHAT?

Answer 1498

A risk management tool

Question 1499

Commanders shall review and submit copies of completed CHP 330's to the Academy by what date, each month?

Answer 1499

5th WORKING day

Question 1500

Who is exempt from having to take CPR training?

Answer 1500

Lieutenants and above

Question 1501

CPR training, for sergeants and below, is required to be completed when?

Answer 1501

1. Within the FIRST quarter, of... | 2. ODD numbered years

Question 1502

Uniformed employees who desire to instruct a first-aid course to the GENERAL PUBLIC must receive authorization from WHO first?

Answer 1502

1. Local chapter of the American Red Cross, or... | 2. American Heart Association in the area where the class will be held

Question 1503

Departmentally-issued CPR masks which include a one-way valve shall be readily available WHEN, and USED when?

Answer 1503

1. Readily available while on duty | 2. Used when administering CPR

Question 1504

How long shall CHP 121's, CHP 121A's, and/or CHP 51's (memo) for HIV or communicable diseases be retained for?

Answer 1504

30 years beyond the involved employee's date of separation from the Department

Question 1505

When an employee has been exposed to HIV or communicable disease, what shall the supervisor do to the SOURCE PATIENT?

Answer 1505

Question them

Question 1506

In regards to HIV or communicable disease exposure, when the SOURCE PATIENT is deceased, and INFORMED CONSENT is NOT available, can a blood test sample be taken from the deceased?

Answer 1506

Yes

Question 1507

In regards to HIV or communicable disease exposure, if a SOURCE PATIENT refuses to authorize an HIV antibody test, they may subsequently be required to do so by who?

Answer 1507

1. Court, or... | 2. County health officer

Question 1508

Any uniformed employee having a positive TB screening test shall immediately notify WHO and WHEN?

Answer 1508

1. On-duty Area supervisor | 2. Prior to leaving the healthcare providor's office

Question 1509

Who shall be immediately notified when a potential anatomical gift donor is identified?

Answer 1509

1. Coroner (if dead) | 2. Hospital (if near death)

Question 1510

An AED device should be accessible within what distance of a patient?

Answer 1510

3-minute, fast paced walk, to retrieve and return to the patient

Question 1511

Per CVC 2413(a), who is designated as the Statewide Vehicle Theft Investigation and Apprehension coordinator?

Answer 1511

Commissioner

Question 1512

The Commander shall ensure at least how many officers in their command are proficient in VIN identification functions?

Answer 1512

At least one

Question 1513

Secondary VIN location information shall only be divulged to who?

Answer 1513

Persons who's names appear on the list of personnel authorized to have access to such information

Question 1514

In regards to the requisition, security, and accountability VIN plates, RIVETS are to be ordered in increments of what?

Answer 1514

50

Question 1515

In regards to the requisition, security, and accountability VIN plates, UNNUMBERED VIN plates are to be ordered in increments of what?

Answer 1515

5

Question 1516

In regards to the requisition, security, and accountability VIN plates, PRE-NUMBERED VIN plates are to be ordered in increments of what?

Answer 1516

10

Question 1517

Any replacement VIN plate which is damaged prior to, or during application, or on which a typing error occurs, shall be rendered WHAT, and documented HOW?

Answer 1517

1. Rendered unusable, and... | 2. Attached to a CHP 51 (memo) explaining the errors

Question 1518

Prior to using an informant who has a PENDING criminal case, who's permission shall be obtained first?

Answer 1518

The prosecutor or the agency responsible for the case against the informant

Question 1519

Per PC 701.5, a peace officer or agent of a peace officer, is prohibited from using a person under the age of what as a minor informant?

Answer 1519

12 years of age, or younger

Question 1520

Per policy, CHP officers shall not conduct traffic enforcement stops for the primary purposes of WHAT, in the absence of WHAT?

Answer 1520

1. Drug interdiction 2. Probable cause or reasonable suspicion to believe the motorist or an occupant of the vehicle is involved in illegal drug-related activity

Question 1521

In regards to asset forfeiture, a supervisors approval SHOULD OR SHALL be obtained prior to departmental personnel seizing any any asset?

Answer 1521

Shall

Question 1522

In regards to asset forfeiture, when more than one agency is involved in an investigation , the Department will negotiate what?

Answer 1522

An equitable share of the asset forfeiture proceeds

Question 1523

In regards to asset forfeiture, in the event the involved departments can't agree on the equitable shares, who shall be the decisive arbitrator for STATE forfeitures?

Answer 1523

Local DA

Question 1524

In regards to asset forfeiture, in the event the CHP is the only agency involved, what is the full equitable share amount the Department can request for STATE cases?

Answer 1524

65%

Question 1525

In regards to asset forfeiture, in the event the CHP is the only agency involved, what is the full equitable share amount the Department can request for FEDERAL cases?

Answer 1525

80%

Question 1526

In regards to asset forfeiture, the investigating agency may hold seized property for up to how many days to determine if there is sufficient evidence to file for forfeiture of the property?

Answer 1526

15 days

Question 1527

In regards to asset forfeiture, after 15 days, what must an investigating agency do with the seized assets?

Answer 1527

1. Return to owner, or... | 2. Hold for evidence for another legal reason

Question 1528

In regards to asset forfeiture, the Franchise Tax Board shall be notified when the seized property has a value in excess of what?

Answer 1528

$5000

Question 1529

In regards to asset forfeiture, within how many days of an asset seizure shall the Division AFC be notified?

Answer 1529

7 WORKING days

Question 1530

In regards to asset forfeiture, within how many days of a vehicle seizure shall the Division AFC be notified?

Answer 1530

48 hours

Question 1531

In regards to asset forfeiture, reports and related documents for STATE cases, shall be forward to FSS through the Division AFC within how many days from the date of the seizure/incident?

Answer 1531

60 days

Question 1532

In regards to asset forfeiture, reports and related documents for FEDERAL cases, shall be forward to FSS through the Division AFC within how many days from the date of the seizure/incident?

Answer 1532

20 days

Question 1533

In regards to asset forfeiture, when a vehicle is seized, how many color photographs shall be taken?

Answer 1533

At least 8; (4 exterior/4 interior)

Question 1534

In regards to asset forfeiture, cash assets in the Department's possession, having no criminal evidentiary value (i.e. pending adjudication of the criminal and/or administrative forfeiture procedures), shall be deposited into an interest-bearing account within how many days?

Answer 1534

10 WORKING days

Question 1535

In regards to ASSET FORFEITURE, what items/assets shall NOT be seized?

Answer 1535

1. Real property (real estate) 2. Weapons 3. Jewelry, cellular phones, and digital scales

Question 1536

In regards to asset forfeiture, reports and related documents for REGULAR (i.e. not STATE or FEDERAL) cases, shall be forward to the Division AFC within how many days from the date of the seizure/incident?

Answer 1536

30 WORKING days

Question 1537

In regards to asset forfeiture, an officer shall complete a CHP 202 or CHP 216 within how many hours of the date of the seizure?

Answer 1537

72 hours