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2020 Lieutenants Test > G.O.'s and HPM's > Flashcards

G.O.'s and HPM's Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 Participative Management Philosophies (CLOPP)?

A
  1. Command Accountability
  2. Leadership and Innovation
  3. Organizational Development
  4. Personnel Development
  5. Public Responsibility
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2
Q

Through participative management and planning philosophies, the Department promotes what at each command level (RAD)?

A
  1. Responsibility
  2. Accountability
  3. Decision making
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3
Q

When shall a commander leave an itinerary?

A
  1. Away during duty hours, and…

2. Not in radio contact, or available by phone.

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4
Q

What are the CHP’s Professional Values?

A

Courage
Honesty
Professionalism

Principles
Respect
Integrity
Determination
Esprit de Corps
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5
Q

Who has final discretion in assigning an OIC to supervise uniformed admin. employees (i.e. Vehicle Theft Task Force, Air Ops)?

A

Division Commander

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6
Q

When planning a freeway memorial dedication, within HOW MANY DAYS (minimum) shall the Area Commander send an operations plan, and to whom?

A
  1. 30 days minimum, to…

2. Division Commander

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7
Q

When shall supervisors refuse to accept subpoenas for employees?

A
  1. When they are last minute, and…

2. The employee is off-duty; unless the employee has received prior notice

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8
Q

Under what circumstances would a commander override a supervisors refusal to accept a last minute subpoena?

A
  1. If the employee’s attendance is deemed critical, and…

2. There’s a belief the employee can be reached

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9
Q

While driving a PV, when are employees exempt from paying toll?

A
  1. Responding to/returning from urgent or emergency call
  2. Engaged in urgent or emergency response
  3. Response directly related to emergency response
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10
Q

When driving a State Vehicle, when are employees required to stop and pay toll?

A
  1. When the vehicle is not equipped with a FasTrack, or…

2. The plates are not included in a license plate tolling system.

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11
Q

If an employee on State business, but driving their personal vehicle, wishes to dispute toll payment, what shall they do?

A

Submit a memo concerning the incident to the Commander, who will then forward it to Division

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12
Q

If an employee on State business, but driving their personal vehicle, seeks reimbursement for toll payment, what shall they do?

A

Sumbit a Travel Claim

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13
Q

CHP enforcement efforts must be consistent with what?

A

CHP Organizational Values (R.E.E.F.)

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14
Q

ATS 415’s (A415’s) shall not include what (in regards to violators/contacts)?

A
  1. Name
  2. Address
  3. SSN
  4. Or any other unique personal identifying info
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15
Q

When a train needs to be stopped, what shall the employee notify dispatch of?

A
  1. Name of railroad
  2. Nature of problem
  3. Location
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16
Q

When an owner of dead livestock can’t be located or notified, and it’s necessary for an employee to store/confine a carcass, who shall immediately be notified?

A

Secretary of Food and Agriculture

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17
Q

In reference to storing/confining dead livestock carcasses (when the owner can’t be notified or located), a notification to who will satisfy the notification requirement to the Secretary of Food and Agriculture?

A

Appropriate hide and brand inspector

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18
Q

In reference to storing/confining dead livestock carcasses (when the owner can’t be notified or located), the employee shall direct removal to what kind of plant?

A

A reduction works plant

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19
Q

Ride-a-longs SHOULD be approved for?

A
  1. Non-uniformed CHP employees
  2. Persons considering employment with the CHP
  3. Persons currently involved in the Cadet Selection Process
  4. Cadets with WRITTEN Academy approval
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20
Q

Ride-a-longs MAY be approved for?

A
  1. Members of the public WITH a specific need to observe CHP operations
  2. Allied’s, DA’s, judges, politicians, and news media
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21
Q

If a CHP employee wants to do a ride-a-long with an Allied agency while ARMED, what is required?

A

Written approval from CHP Commander FIRST

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22
Q

If an Allied Agency employee wants to do a ride-a-long with CHP, what can the CHP commander require?

A

The Allied Agency employee to be in uniform

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23
Q

If an officer has identified a foreseeable hazard, but they have to leave due to a higher priority call, what shall they inform the occupant of the disabled vehicle of first?

A
  1. Officers shall warn the party of the foreseeable hazards

2. Inform them of precautions to lessen their exposure to those hazards

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24
Q

In regards to the reporting of highway conditions, Department personnel shall only report what?

A
  1. Existing hazards, or…

2. Potentially hazardous conditions

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25
Q

In regards to the reporting of highway conditions, Department personnel shall not publicly comment on conditions when?

A

Proper analysis would require expertise in highway design and/or maintenance

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26
Q

Officers may be required to double up during 0600 hours to 2200 hours under what circumstances (TIO)?

A
  1. Officer safety
  2. Training or field orientation
  3. Insufficient patrol vehicles
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27
Q

Who’s approval is required before officers can patrol solo between the hours of 2200 hours to 2400 hours and 0400 hours to 0600 hours?

A

Division Commander

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28
Q

The MVARS policy is to be adhered to by who?

A

All sworn employees who operate enforcement vehicles equipped with MVARS.

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29
Q

MVARS shall be powered on at all times during shift, except when?

A

In battery life preservation mode

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30
Q

What 5 enforcement actions and activities shall be recorded on MVARS in their entirety (PEE-DV)?

A
  1. Pursuits
  2. Enforcement contacts; including peds on freeway
  3. Emergency response (Code-3)
  4. Disabled motorists
  5. Vehicle searches (not inventories)
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31
Q

While operating MVARS, what 5 things can employees do in REVIEW mode (PRPR-V)?

A
  1. Pause live footage
  2. Record
  3. Playback
  4. Rewind
  5. View at a later time
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32
Q

While operating MVARS, when is the ability to “review” terminated?

A

When the disc is ejected

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33
Q

While operating MVARS, when it becomes necessary to review RECORDED password protected material, what is required?

A

Supervisor password

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34
Q

Who’s approval is required to view “buffer” time between events in the video review, or to burn loop contents via the “define new event” function?

A

Commissioner

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35
Q

In regards to MVARS, when Commissioner approval has been obtained to view “buffer” time or burn loop contents, and the administrative password has been obtained, and the the desired contents have been burned to a DVD, what shall be documented and where shall it be documented?

A
  1. The name and date the recording was obtained from the MVARS unit
  2. Documented in the chronological summary portion of the administrative or criminal investigation
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36
Q

When a MVARS unit malfunction is observed during PRE-SHIFT check, what shall happen?

A
  1. The OIC/Supervisor shall be notified

2. The employee shall make a good faith effort to troubleshoot the problem

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37
Q

When a MVARS unit malfunction is observed during PRE-SHIFT check, and the employee is unable to correct the problem, what shall happen?

A

The employee shall choose a DIFFERENT patrol vehicle.

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38
Q

When a MVARS unit malfunction is observed DURING SHIFT, what shall happen?

A
  1. The OIC/Supervisor shall be notified though dispatch

2. The employee shall make an attempt to resolve a MINOR issue

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39
Q

When a MVARS unit malfunction is observed DURING SHIFT, and the employee is unable to correct the problem, what shall happen?

A

The employee shall return to the office AS SOON AS PRACTICAL for a new patrol vehicle

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40
Q

How long are CHP 179, MVARS Pre-Shift Checklist, retained for?

A

Minimum of 2 years

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41
Q

When not directly involved, Allied Agency actions shall not be recorded via MVARS unless what?

A

Expressed permission is given by a CHP supervisor

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42
Q

In regards to MVARS, when a citizen asks if the enforcement contact is being recorded, what shall employees advise them of?

A

Whether or not MVARS is in the RECORD MODE

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43
Q

In regards to MVARS, what 8 threshold events can be reviewed?

A
  1. Incidents where employees are severely injured or killed during duties.
  2. Use of force by employee, including canine, resulting in death or severe injury to suspect or bystander.
  3. In-custody death.
  4. PV T/C resulting in severe injury or death (not to employee) when liability appears to be that of CHP.
  5. Pursuits.
  6. Intentional/accidental discharge of firearm.
  7. Intentional/accidental discharge of CEW.
  8. Incident generating CHP 268 or STD 270 due to severe injury to anyone.
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44
Q

In regards to MVARS, when can non-threshold events be reviewed?

A
  1. Employee responsible for MVARS recording voluntarily agrees.
  2. Prior to release of recording outside of CHP for legal request.
  3. To prove/disprove specific allegations of misconduct.
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45
Q

Who’s approval is required to review an MVARS event not covered under policy?

A
  1. Division Commander, with…

2. Notification to OER

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46
Q

During review of MVARS, if a supervisor discovers misconduct NOT rising to the level of AA, what shall happen?

A
  1. Use as training opportunity

2. Verbally counsel employee

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47
Q

During review of MVARS, if a supervisor discovers misconduct NOT rising to the level of AA, BUT the employee has PRIORS, what shall happen?

A

Provide the employee with written documentation (CHP 100 form)

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48
Q

Upon request, an employee entitled to review their MVARS recordings prior to what 6 things?

A
  1. Preparation of written documentation requested or required by the CHP.
  2. Preparation of written documentation related to Informal Dispute Resolution.
  3. Preparation for administrative interrogations/interviews.
  4. Preparation for civil depositions arising from duties.
  5. Preparation for testimony in civil/criminal proceedings arising from duties.
  6. When an Allied Agency is conducting a criminal misconduct investigation.
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49
Q

When is no fee charged for a copy of a MVARS DVD?

A

Produced for…

  1. Criminal subpoena deuces tecum, or…
  2. Criminal discovery order
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50
Q

When is a fee charged for a copy of a MVARS DVD?

A

Produced for…

  1. Civil subpoena deuces tecum, or…
  2. Civil discovery order
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51
Q

When a driver is in violation of 12951(a) VC (DL NIP), what shall the officer do?

A
  1. Confirm the DL status through CLETS/NLETS

2. Take appropriate action if the driver is AWARE of confirmed CLETS/NLETS return.

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52
Q

Upon issuing a CHP 215 for 12951(a) VC and subsequently finding out a driver was actually 12500(a) VC, what should the officer do?

A

Upgrade the CHP 215 to the appropriate section through the established complaint process.

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53
Q

Requests for emergency transport are to be screened for what?

A
  1. Validity

2. Urgency

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54
Q

If a request for emergency transport is deemed non-emergency, what shall happen?

A

The requestor shall be advised and assisted with finding an alternative

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55
Q

When officers are engaged in an emergency transport, what shall they be advised of?

A

The degree of urgency

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56
Q

When an emergency transport requires a relay into other Areas, who is responsible for coordinating the relay?

A

The originating command

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57
Q

Can an emergency transport relay from another Area be declined?

A

No

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58
Q

When involved in an emergency transport relay, who shall determine if emergency lights and siren are to be used?

A

The command accepting the relay

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59
Q

Commanders may authorize emergency transport or escorts to continue into adjacent Areas WITHOUT relay when?

A
  1. Units in adjacent Area are unavailable or delayed.
  2. Circumstances exist where a relay delay may be life-threatening or excessive.
  3. A relay would be inappropriate due to destination proximity.
  4. The adjacent Area is notified of the emergency transport or escort.
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60
Q

Who is authorized to prepare Special Alert Bulletins?

A

Threat Assessment Unit (TAU)

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61
Q

Are Special Alert Bulletins for public disclosure?

A

No, they shall be considered sensitive and confidential in nature.

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62
Q

When would TAU prepare a Special Alert Bulletin?

A

When they have identified an individual who may pose a threat to a state official, staff member, or state facility, or has the potential to physically approach an official or staff in an inappropriate manner.

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63
Q

Who is authorized to prepare Wanted Bulletins?

A

Local Area personnel

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64
Q

Are Wanted Bulletins for public disclosure?

A

Yes, they can be.

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65
Q

WHO can Wanted Bulletins be distributed to?

A
  1. Allied Agencies, and…

2. The public, to solicit assistance in locating the person and/or vehicles

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66
Q

Who’s approval is required to disseminate a Wanted Bulletin?

A

Area Commander

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67
Q

WHY would a local Area prepare and distribute a Wanted Bulletin?

A
  1. They need assistance in developing information regarding a wanted individual
  2. An arrest warrant has been issued or a wanted vehicle is still outstanding.
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68
Q

In regards to reporting unusual occurrences, who is responsible for making Legislative Notifications?

A

The appropriate AC will notify the Office of Special Representative.

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69
Q

In regards to reporting unusual occurrences, what considerations shall be made if an UNLISTED event is notification worthy?

A
  1. Does occurrence reflect favorably or unfavorably on the CHP?
  2. Does occurrence require administrative action at HQ or direction by Executive Management?
  3. Does magnitude of incident necessitate the dissemination of information to Allied Agencies, gov’t organizations, or media?
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70
Q

When serving a search/arrest warrant that requires building entry, who’s approval is required?

A

Division Commander

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71
Q

Who’s approval is needed to serve search/arrest warrants at the Area level?

A
  1. Area Commander, with…

2. Division Commander’s concurrence

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72
Q

Prior to the service of a warrant at the Area level, what must be done?

A

A critical risk assessment

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73
Q

Personnel not assigned to WST may participate in warrant service operations in what capacity?

A
  1. Pre-operational planning

2. Perimeter control

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74
Q

During the service of a warrant, how many officers are required to be in the basic tan uniform?

A

1

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75
Q

All WST operations consist of the following stages (P-BED)?

A
  1. Pre-planning
  2. Briefing
  3. Execution of operation
  4. Debriefing
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76
Q

If these factors are found to exist during warrant service pre-planning, the operation should be considered HIGH-RISK (FAV-G)?

A
  1. Location believed to be FORTIFIED.
  2. ASSAULT RIFLES believed to be presented potential for use exists.
  3. Subjects are known to be VIOLENT; particularly towards LE.
  4. Multiple GANG MEMBERS known to be present.
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77
Q

If these factors are found to exist during warrant service pre-planning, the operation shall be referred to SWAT (SHEBA-HES)?

A
  1. SUICIDAL individual.
  2. HOSTAGE situation.
  3. Known presence of EXPLOSIVES.
  4. BARRICADED and armed suspects.
  5. Attempt to AMBUSH.
  6. Chemical HAZARD threat.
  7. Para-military EXTREMIST group.
  8. Presence of SNIPER(S).
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78
Q

WST team leaders shall notify the Area Commander and Comm-Center of what prior to serving a warrant?

A
  1. Date
  2. Time
  3. Location

**Of the warrant service operation

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79
Q

When an Allied Agency request the use of local Area personnel to assist with a warrant operation, in what capacity shall they only be allowed to participated?

A

Outside perimeter containment

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80
Q

What are the legal requirements to meet the provisions of “Knock and Notice”?

A
  1. Knock and give notice of presence.
  2. Identify as police officers.
  3. Explain purpose.
  4. Demand entry and wait a REASONABLE amount of time (30 sec. is generally sufficient).
  5. Explicit refusal to comply.
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81
Q

When is “Knock and Notice” NOT REQUIRED?

A

When exigent circumstances exist

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82
Q

Exigent circumstances = emergency situations requiring swift action to prevent what 3 things?

A
  1. Serious injury or loss of life (officer and/or public).
  2. Serious damage to property.
  3. Destruction of evidence or property.
    Escape of suspect(s).
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83
Q

When is forcible entry legal during the service of a warrant?

A

AFTER admittance has been REFUSED

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84
Q

What KIND of warrant is required to forcibly enter an unoccupied structure?

A

A search warrant

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85
Q

Service of warrants in a timely manner is required to maintain the suspect(s) right to what?

A
  1. Due process (14th Amendment).

2. Speedy Trial (6th Amendment).

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86
Q

In order to be considered legally valid, a warrant must be served and returned to the court within how many days?

A

10

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87
Q

During MEP’s, what are patrol units primarily focused on (PIO-P)?

A
  1. PCF violations
  2. Impaired driver’s
  3. Occupant restraints
  4. Prompt response to 11-25’s
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88
Q

During MEP’s, what are the staffing requirements for commands on 10-hour, 9-hour, and 8-hour shifts?

A
  1. 80% egress/ingress days

2. 70% days in between

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89
Q

On what holidays is MEP reporting required and what are the associated enforcement actions (DOS-DOS)?

A
  1. New Year’s Day - DUI
  2. Memorial Day Weekend - Occupant Restraints
  3. Independence Day - Speed
  4. Labor Day Weekend - DUI
  5. Thanksgiving Weekend - Occupant Restraints
  6. Christmas Day - Speed
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90
Q

For the New Year’s Day MEP report spanning the change in the new year (12/31 to 1/1), what information is required to be included?

A
  1. Name, and…

2. TIME of the collision

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91
Q

Prior to the start of the MEP, Area’s are required to send what to Division?

A

The name of the Area supervisor or designee who is responsible for sending the report.

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92
Q

By what time shall Areas send the MEP reports?

A

0800 hours, EXCEPT on the last day, which shall be sent by 0700 hours.

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93
Q

For a consent search to be lawful, what 4 requirements must be met?

A
  1. Consent must be granted FREELY and VOLUNTARILY.
  2. Person granting consent must have STANDING over items to be searched.
  3. SCOPE or LIMITATION of search must be defined and can’t be exceeded.
  4. Person granting consent has the right and ability to WITHDRAW consent at ANY TIME.
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94
Q

If a probation, parole, or PRCS search turns up NEGATIVE, how shall it be documented?

A

CHP 415 entry

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95
Q

If a probation, parole, or PRCS search turns up POSITIVE, how shall it be documented?

A

CHP 216 or CHP 202

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96
Q

If evidence or contraband is discovered during a vehicle inventory, how shall it be documented?

A

CHP 216 or CHP 202

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97
Q

If illegal items are found during a CONSENT search, how shall it be documented?

A

CHP 202D, CHP 216, CHP 202

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98
Q

Officers shall not REQUEST CONSENT absent what?

A
  1. Reasonable suspicion, or…

2. Probable cause

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99
Q

Upon requesting CONSENT to search, if a person is UNWILLING or UNABLE to sign the CHP 202D, can a consent search still be conducted?

A

No

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100
Q

What CHP form is required to be completed for all INVESTIGATORY CONSENT SEARCHES, regardless if a search was actually conducted?

A

CHP 202D

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101
Q

For searches conducted INCIDENTAL TO AN ARREST, how shall they be documented?

A

Notation made in associated CHP 216 or CHP 202

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102
Q

How shall patdown/frisk searches be documented?

A

CHP 415

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103
Q

When a patdown/frisk search is conducted, and it is documented on the CHP 415, what information is also required to be noted?

A
  1. Name
  2. DL or ID #
  3. Parole, probation, or PRCS
  4. Dispatch log #
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104
Q

When a patdown/frisk search is conducted, and it is documented on the CHP 415, but the officer fails to note the dispatch log #, what shall be completed?

A

CHP 216

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105
Q

If a violator initially grants CONSENT, but then withdraws it, under what circumstance is an officer permitted to CONTINUE the search?

A

PC is developed and/or contraband is discovered PRIOR to consent being withdrawn.

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106
Q

If a PC search is conducted and NO contraband is located, what shall be completed (i.e. smell marijuana, conduct search, no marijuana found)?

A

A CHP 216

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107
Q

How ofter are commands required to conduct CHP 202D audits?

A

Quarterly

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108
Q

Following a quarterly CHP 202D audit, HOW shall it be documented, and WHEN is it due?

A
  1. A Memo of Findings

2. Due NLT the 30th day of the month following the end of the quarter

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109
Q

In regards to the Memo of Findings that is completed following a quarterly CHP 202D audit, WHAT information is required to be in it?

A
  1. The TOTAL # of searches PERFORMED, and…

2. The RATIO of POSITIVE to NEGATIVE findings during the reporting period.

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110
Q

Communications with dispatch shall be via radio or MDC unless what (SEEN)?

A
  1. Exigent circumstances exist, and/or poor radio reception, and radio/MDC not practical.
  2. EIP tone activated and there’s a necessity to communicate with dispatch.
  3. Necessity exists to relate/receive confidential information.
  4. Supervisor deems it necessary to speak directly to dispatcher or Comm-Center.
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111
Q

What is the PRIMARY objective of officers responding to an active shooter incident?

A

Move to, confront, and STOP the active shooter(s) as quickly as possible.

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112
Q

What is the SECONDARY objective of officers responding to an active shooter incident?

A

Rescue of victims and innocent bystanders, and the treatment and evacuation of injured victims.

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113
Q

In regards to attendance at AI hearings, who shall they be limited to?

A

Person(s) or their agents, who have proper interest in the report.

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114
Q

What shall the scope of AI hearings be limited to?

A

Clarification of report CONTENT

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115
Q

Can AI hearings be recorded by persons with proper interest?

A

No

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116
Q

Prior to the COMPLETION of a CHP 555, what is the only information that can be released?

A
  1. Time
  2. Date
  3. Location
  4. Make of vehicle(s) involved
  5. Name(s) of vehicle occupants
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117
Q

In regards to completed CHP 555’s, all requests for data relating to State Highways shall be referred to who?

A

CalTrans

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118
Q

In regards to completed CHP 555’s, all requests for data relating to Unincorporated roadways shall be referred to who?

A

IMD

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119
Q

Who may initiate a request for legal interpretation or opinion?

A

Any command level

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120
Q

Can a legal interpretation or opinion request be initiated by the CHP for an agency or individual OUTSIDE of the CHP?

A

No, those requests have to be routed to the AG’s office via the local DA.

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121
Q

The original of all correspondence shall be signed in what color ink?

A

Blue

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122
Q

Prompt replies to correspondence are due within how many days?

A

15 WORKING days

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123
Q

In regards to correspondence, CHP 51WP’s (Memo) shall only be used for what?

A

Correspondence BETWEEN State agencies

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124
Q

In regards to correspondence, CHP Letterhead shall only be used for what?

A

Correspondence OUTSIDE of State agencies

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125
Q

Correspondence to State Legislators shall be coordinated with who?

A

Office of Special Representative

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126
Q

What is Category 1 correspondence?

A

CHP 51WP (Memo)

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127
Q

What is Category 2 correspondence?

A

CHP Letterhead

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128
Q

Departmental correspondence should be prepared in what type face, and what point size?

A
  1. Times New Roman or Arial type face

2. 12 point size

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129
Q

In regards to correspondence, Attachments are used for what?

A

CHP 51WP’s (Memo)

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130
Q

In regards to correspondence, Enclosures are used for what?

A

CHP Letterhead

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131
Q

Correspondence directed to ELECTED State officials shall be prepared on what?

A

CHP Letterhead

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132
Q

In regards to correspondence, how shall the signatory’s name and title be written (uppercase/lowercase)?

A
  1. The signatory’s name shall be in uppercase.

2. All other words will be in lowercase, with the first letters of main words capitalized.

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133
Q

In regards to correspondence, what mail carrier shall be used to send REGULAR and CERTIFIED mail?

A

United States Postal Service

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134
Q

In regards to correspondence, what mail carrier may be used to send NON-TIME SENSITIVE packages?

A
  1. OnTrac, or…

2. FedEx

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135
Q

In regards to correspondence, what mail carrier shall be used to send TIME SENSITIVE packages?

A

OnTrac

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136
Q

Comm-Nets may be used to establish policy for up to how many days?

A

90 CALENDAR days

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137
Q

How many Bargaining Unit contracts does CHP management administer?

A

12 of the 21

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138
Q

Under the Dills Act, REPRESENTED employees (rank and file) have the right to be represented by their exclusive representative regarding what (WHO)?

A
  1. Wages
  2. Hours
  3. Other terms of employment
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139
Q

Under the Dills Act, EXCLUDED employees (supervisors) have the right to be represented regarding what?

A

All matters related to employment conditions and supervisory employer-employee relations.

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140
Q

As far as the Department is concerned, who is covered under POBR?

A

All employees with the exception of cadets.

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141
Q

What is the Weingarten rule?

A

Establishes the right of a bargaining unit employee to be assisted by a union representative at an investigatory interview to which the employee has been summoned by management, when the employee reasonably believes disciplinary action may result from the interview.

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142
Q

A rep. desiring access to a work location must do what when requesting permission to use?

A
  1. State the purpose

2. Request approval from the Commander within a reasonable amount of time.

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143
Q

A rep. must obtain permission from who to engage in business relating to rep. matters during working hours?

A

Their immediate supervisor

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144
Q

The union (rep) may use designated bulletin boards in the office to post materials related to what (BERM)?

A
  1. Notices and results of any official organization committee or meeting.
  2. Notices of organization elections and their results.
  3. Notices of organization recreational and social events.
  4. Notices of other official organization business.
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145
Q

What is the rep. required to do with material they post to bulletin boards in the Area?

A
  1. Initial
  2. Date
  3. Provide a copy to the Commander
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146
Q

If doubt exists as to the propriety of the material posted on the employee rep (union) designated bulletin board, who would be contacted?

A

OER

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147
Q

When can a rep. distribute organization literature?

A
  1. Before or after working hours

2. During meal and rest periods in non-working areas

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148
Q

Can state vehicles be used by employees, or reps. while participating in representational or employee organization business?

A

No

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149
Q

When would a rep not have access to, or be allowed to use state telephones for conducting employee relations business?

A
  1. When a fee will be incurred, or…

2. The use of the telephone would interfere with the operation of the facility or the office

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150
Q

Can the State’s and the Department’s internal mail system be used to distribute employee organization (rep) business?

A

No

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151
Q

What shall be the Commander’s primary consideration when determining whether or not approve requests for the use of release time (union time)?

A

The needs of the command

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152
Q

Who has the authority to grant/deny release time (union time).

A

An employee’s supervisor

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153
Q

Is an employee entitled to release time (union time) when they leave the work site to meet with an organization rep. on a representational matters?

A

No

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154
Q

Can EXCLUDED employees participate in the handling of grievances or meet and confer sessions on behalf on NON-EXCLUDED employees?

A

No

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155
Q

Can NON-EXCLUDED employees participate in the handling of grievances or meet and confer sessions on behalf on EXCLUDED employees?

A

No

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156
Q

What is considered a REASONABLE amount of release time (union time) to grant to an employee and their rep. to prepare/present a grievance/complaint?

A

4 hours

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157
Q

Who has the authority to limit/extend the amount of release time (union time) granted to an employee and their rep. to prepare/present a grievance/complaint?

A

Management

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158
Q

Is an employee entitled to release time (union time) when their chosen rep. has not been designated by an employee organization?

A

No

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159
Q

Is an employee entitled to release time (union time) when they choose to represent themselves in a grievance/complaint?

A

No

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160
Q

What does a REPRESENTED employee grievance allege?

A

A violation of the contract (MOU)

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161
Q

What does a REPRESENTED employee complaint allege?

A

A violation of policy or procedures

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162
Q

What does an EXCLUDED employee grievance allege?

A

A violation of statues, regulations, policies or practices.

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163
Q

What are the levels of a complaint and who oversees each level?

A
  • Informal Level; immediate supervisor
  • Level 1; Area Commander
  • Level 2; Division Commander
  • Level 3; Commissioner
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164
Q

What are the level of a grievance and who oversees each level?

A
  • Informal Level; immediate supervisor
  • Level 1; Area Commander
  • Level 2; Division Commander
  • Level 3; Office of the Commissioner
  • Level 4; CalHR
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165
Q

What elements/information must be included when a formal grievance/complaint is submitted (ASP)?

A
  1. Alleged violation - specific provision or policy violated
  2. Statement of the problem
  3. Proposed remedy
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166
Q

When a grievance has been submitted, and the time limits have been extended upon mutual agreement of all parties, how shall it be documented?

A
  1. In writing, and…

2. Attached to the grievance and/or responses.

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167
Q

When is the Department not obligated to adhere to the provisions of meet and confer?

A

In emergencies

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168
Q

Proposed changes and notices related to meet and confers all be sent to who?

A

OER

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169
Q

The State’s Management Relations Program is comprised of what 3 groups?

A
  1. Managers
  2. Supervisors
  3. Confidential employees
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170
Q

Under the Dills Act, do managerial employees have a right to representation?

A

No

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171
Q

What is specialty pay?

A

A premium pay which is paid on a monthly, rather than a daily basis.

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172
Q

What are the only special pay positions?

A
  1. Motorcycle
  2. Pilot or flight officer
  3. Bilingual
  4. Investigator
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173
Q

Who’s approval must be obtained prior to removing an employee from a specialty pay position?

A

The appropriate AC

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174
Q

If the removal from a specialty pay position is not a result of an adverse action, what documentation shall be provide to the employee?

A

Documentation advising them of the specific reason(s) for the removal.

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175
Q

If a Commander decides to re-assign a specialty pay employee pending the completion of the Specialty Pay Removal File, what shall be given to the employee?

A

A memo containing the date and location of the temporary re-assignment.

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176
Q

When would the removal of an employees specialty pay be processed as an adverse action?

A

In all incidents where there is an established nexus between an adverse action and a resulting loss of specialty pay.

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177
Q

Absent an adverse action, what type of file is prepared to substantiate the removal of an employee’s specialty pay?

A

A Special Pay Removal File

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178
Q

REPRESENTED and EXCLUDED employees removed for cause from a specialty pay position WITHOUT an adverse action, may appeal the decision through what process?

A

Grievance

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179
Q

Employees removed for cause from a specialty pay position WITH an adverse action, may appeal the decision through what process?

A

SPB appeal

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180
Q

When is an employee’s removal from a specialty pay position not appealable?

A

When its part of an operational necessity (i.e. a reduction or elimination of motorcycle or aircraft)

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181
Q

Who plays the most important role in any successful substance testing program?

A

The first-line supervisor

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182
Q

For the substance test to be effective, each supervisor must ensure what (DMV-C)?

A
  1. Reasonable suspicion is supported by proper DOCUMENTATION.
  2. The sample is properly COLLECTED.
  3. The chain of custody is MAINTAINED.
  4. The employee’s rights are not VIOLATED.
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183
Q

According to the substance testing policy, what role do managers serve?

A

They serve as the confirming official

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184
Q

What elements are critical to the success of the substance testing policy (the 6 C’s)?

A
  1. Consistency
  2. Confirmation
  3. Collection of sample
  4. Chain of custody
  5. Control of quality
  6. Contracts
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185
Q

What is the 4th Amendment?

A

Search and seizure

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186
Q

What is the 5th Amendment?

A

Self-incrimination

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187
Q

What is the 14th Amendment?

A

Due process

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188
Q

Employee’s serving in what kind of positions shall be subject to substance testing when it is supported by reasonable suspicion?

A

Sensitive

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189
Q

When would an employee not be subject to disciplinary action if they are asked, but refuse, to voluntarily submit to a substance abuse test?

A

When reasonable suspicion does not exist.

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190
Q

What is a sensitive position?

A

Any peace officer, and any other position in which drug or alcohol affected performance could clearly endanger the health and safety of others.

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191
Q

How many sensitive positions are there?

A

14

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192
Q

Can employee’s in non-sensitive positions be ordered to submit to substance abuse testing?

A

No

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193
Q

Circumstances, observation, and/or witness statements leading to a determination of substance abuse shall be documented in what?

A

Reasonable Suspicion Report

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194
Q

In regards to substance abuse testing, reasonable suspicion is the good faith belief based on what?

A
  1. Specific articulable facts or evidence that an employee may have violated the substance abuse policy, and…
  2. Substance testing could reveal evidence in support of a violation.
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195
Q

In regards to substance abuse testing, reasonable suspicion exists only after what?

A
  1. The confirming official has also considered the facts and/or evidence, and…
  2. Agrees that they constitute a finding of reasonable suspicion.
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196
Q

In regards to substance abuse, and non-uniformed employees, under what circumstance would a criminal arrest/investigation report be used to SUPPORT an administrative investigation?

A

When the incident described in the report resulted in a conviction.

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197
Q

Can an employee be ordered to submit to a substance abuse test based solely on the receipt of an anonymous tip?

A

No

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198
Q

In regards to substance abuse, what is a reliable informant; according to CalHR?

A

A peace officer who is willing to publicly testify on behalf of management.

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199
Q

In regards to substance abuse, is management required to disclose to the suspected employee, the name of the reliable informant?

A

Yes.

The employee is entitled to know who the informant is, what the informant said, and they must be given the opportunity to respond to this part of the determination of reasonable suspicion.

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200
Q

In regards to substance abuse, what is the role of the confirming official (APE-C)?

A
  1. CONSIDER the fact and/or evidence and agree whether or not they support reasonable suspicion.
  2. ENSURE accurate and proper application of the rules.
  3. PROVIDE guidance and direction.
  4. AUTHORIZE the substance test.
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201
Q

In regards to substance abuse, can the confirming official be the suspected employee’s immediate supervisor or the person who made the initial observation leading to reasonable suspicion?

A

No

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202
Q

In regards to substance abuse, when does the testing process begin?

A

After the confirming official has authorized a chemical test.

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203
Q

In regards to substance abuse, what test is the suspected employee required to submit to if they are suspected of being a combo?

A

Both breath and urine

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204
Q

In regards to substance abuse, how much urine shall be collected?

A
  1. At least 60 milliliters (approximately 2 fluid ounces)

2. Split into 2 containers

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205
Q

In regards to substance abuse, within how many hours of collecting the sample shall the command make notification to the Substance Testing Coordinator at OIA?

A

48 hours

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206
Q

In regards to substance abuse, how shall the Substance Testing Coordinator at OIA be notified a sample was collected?

A
  1. By email or fax

**The original memo shall be sent through channels

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207
Q

In regards to substance abuse, upon analysis of the collected sample, who are the results communicated to?

A

MRO

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208
Q

In regards to substance abuse, how long are NEGATIVE samples retained for?

A

3 weeks

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209
Q

In regards to substance abuse, how long, and at what temperature, are POSITIVE samples retained for?

A
  1. At least 1 year

2. -20 degrees

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210
Q

How many substance abuse kits shall be maintained at the Area office at all times?

A

2

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211
Q

In regards to substance abuse, what “pay status” should the suspected employee be placed on for the remainder of the shift on the day of the test or refusal to take the test?

A

Dock

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212
Q

In regards to substance abuse, how long should the suspected employee remain on “dock” status?

A
  1. Until the results of the test are known, and/or…

2. A decision is made regarding administrative action.

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213
Q

In regards to substance abuse, if only alcohol is suspected, when should the employee be returned to full duty?

A

The following day, if they are completely recovered from the effects.

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214
Q

In regards to substance abuse, what powers and requests are immediately suspended?

A
  1. Peace officer powers

2. Secondary employment requests

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215
Q

In regards to substance abuse, upon the collection of a sample, what shall the the supervisor provide to the suspected employee?

A

A memo explaining the supervisors role and the employee’s rights relative to the substance test.

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216
Q

In regards to substance abuse, if the suspected employee’s sample returns negative, and there is no other cause for action, they shall immediately be returned to what?

A

Full duty

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217
Q

In regards to substance abuse, if the suspected employee’s sample returns negative, and there is no other cause for action, their dock time on the day of the test shall be adjusted to what?

A

Paid status

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218
Q

In regards to substance abuse, who makes the final determination of a test result?

A

MRO

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219
Q

In regards to substance abuse, are negative test results and all other associated paperwork maintained with the suspected employees personnel folder?

A

No

**Unless the employee requests otherwise.

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220
Q

In regards to substance abuse, within how many hours should the employee be provided with documentation outlining the observations leading to reasonable suspicion?

A

48 hours

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221
Q

In regards to substance abuse, what CHP form is used for the Reasonable Suspicion Report?

A

CHP 202X, Workplace Substance Abuse Investigation/Voluntary Testing Report

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222
Q

In regards to substance abuse, upon receiving the CHP 202X (Reasonable Suspicion Report), what shall the confirming official do?

A
  1. Review the report

2. Sign the report; indicates concurrence with the determination of reasonable suspicion

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223
Q

In regards to substance abuse, when shall a Reasonable Suspicion Report be completed?

A

Whenever a determination of reasonable suspicion of workplace substance abuse leads to substance testing.

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224
Q

In regards to substance abuse, if a criminal investigation is conducted, does a Reasonable Suspicion Report have to be completed?

A

Yes

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225
Q

In regards to substance abuse, under what circumstance would a CHP 202X, indicating negative results, be retained in the suspected employee’s personnel file?

A

None

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226
Q

In regards to substance abuse, is a CHP 202X required to be completed when an employee voluntarily submits to a test?

A

Yes

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227
Q

In regards to substance abuse, if an employee voluntarily submits to a test, but refuses to, or is unable to, sign the CHP 202X, can a sample still be collected?

A

Yes, but a notation shall be made in the signature box.

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228
Q

In regards to substance abuse, within how many hours of a qualifying collision, is a departmental commercial driver required to submit to an ALCOHOL test?

A

2 hours

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229
Q

In regards to substance abuse, within how many hours of a qualifying collision, is a departmental commercial driver required to submit to a DRUG test?

A

32 hours

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230
Q

Who’s concurrence is required before a commander can initiate an internal investigation?

A

Division

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231
Q

What are the 4 possible outcomes of an administrative investigation (RAM-N)?

A
  1. Adverse Action
  2. Rejection during probation
  3. Miscellaneous investigation
  4. Non-punitive termination
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232
Q

What are the 6 possible outcomes of an Adverse Action (RIDD-SF)?

A
  1. Formal written reprimand
  2. Suspension
  3. Reduction in salary
  4. Demotion
  5. Involuntary transfer
  6. Dismissal
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233
Q

The Department shall only investigate allegations of misconduct when what?

A

There is a nexus between the act(s) and the individuals employment with the Department.

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234
Q

What constitutes an automatic resignation as a result of an employee being AWOL?

A

An unapproved absence of 5 consecutive WORKING days or more.

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235
Q

On what document is the Bazemore Admonition required?

A

MOD’s which or counseling or remedial in nature

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236
Q

What is a Coleman Hearing?

A

The process by which an employee who has resigned (by being AWOL), has the opportunity to present information to an impartial and uninvolved departmental member.

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237
Q

What documents are considered “closing documentation”?

A
  1. Notice of Adverse Action
  2. MOD
  3. MOF
  4. CHP 2
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238
Q

What is GC 19572?

A

The authority and specific charging sections for taking adverse action against an employee.

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239
Q

What is the Lybarger Admonishment?

A

Admonishment given in administrative interrogations which advise the subjects they do not have the right to refuse to answer questions.

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240
Q

What is the purpose of a MOC?

A

To formally document supervisory counseling pertaining to misconduct, behavior, or poor performance.

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241
Q

What is the purpose of a MOD?

A

To formally document supervisory counseling pertaining to misconduct, behavior, or poor performance, and to provide specific direction to preclude a recurrence.

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242
Q

What is the purpose of a MOE?

A

To formally explain the expectations for conduct or performance.

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243
Q

What is the purpose of a MOF?

A

To document the findings of a miscellaneous investigation or citizen’s complaint.

**It is used when the employee is exonerated or misconduct or when substantiated misconduct is not severe enough to warrant a more severe action such as a MOD.

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244
Q

What constitutes “minor” discipline?

A
  1. A penalty consisting of 1-5 working days, or…

2. An equivalent step reduction

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245
Q

What is a Pre-disciplinary hearing process (aka Skelly hearing)?

A

The process afforded to an employee (PRIOR to the penalty being imposed), and their rep, where they have the right to present material for which a notice of AA or RDP was served.

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246
Q

The “preponderance of evidence” standard is also known as what?

A

The standard of 51%

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247
Q

What are the 2 actions associated with progressive discipline (PC)?

A
  1. Preventative actions

2. Corrective actions

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248
Q

In regards to progressive discipline, what is the primary difference between formal and informal counseling?

A

Documentation

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249
Q

In regards to progressive discipline, if the employee does not have a monthly evaluation form, how shall a formal counseling session be documented?

A

On a MOC

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250
Q

In regards to internal investigations, what rank shall the assigned primary investigator be?

A

At least one rank higher than the highest ranking employee involved

**Unless otherwise approved by the Division Commander or the appropriate AC.

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251
Q

Within how many days shall the internal investigation be forwarded to OIA?

A

60 days from the date the Area became aware of the misconduct.

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252
Q

What are the 2 accepted methods for conducting an employee involved criminal investigation?

A
  1. Concurrent

2. Consecutive

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253
Q

When the department runs a concurrent investigation, what does that mean?

A

The criminal investigation is conducted simultaneously with the administrative investigation; by separate investigators.

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254
Q

When the department runs a consecutive investigation, what does that mean?

A

The criminal investigation is completed and a decision is made by the prosecuting authority prior to initiating the administrative investigation.

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255
Q

Allegations involving potential criminal misconduct by a non-uniformed employee shall be administratively investigated under what circumstances (MNF)?

A
  1. Criminal misconduct could lead to a FELONY conviction.
  2. Criminal misconduct constituting a MISDEMEANOR involving MORAL turpitude.
  3. Criminal misconduct where the employee has established a NEXUS to the Department.
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256
Q

If a departmental employee is requested to be interviewed by an agency regarding a civil rights investigation, what 3 guidelines shall apply?

A
  1. Decision to consent to interview is at the discretion of the employee.
  2. If the interview is conducted on state time, a departmental supervisor shall be present.
  3. Interviews conducted on state time shall be tape recorded.
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257
Q

In regards to internal investigations, who has investigative responsibility when the employee is assigned to a special assignment (i.e. task force)?

A

CHP commander

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258
Q

In regards to internal investigations, who has investigative responsibility when the employee is assigned out on a temporary assignment (i.e. protective service detail)?

A

Permanent CHP commander

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259
Q

In regards to internal investigations, who has investigative responsibility when the investigation involves multiple employees in multiple commands?

A
  1. The command with the employees associated with the most severe allegations, or…
  2. The command with the greatest number of employees involved.
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260
Q

Normally, how long from the date of misconduct discovery does the department have to investigate, conclude, and notify the employee of the proposed disciplinary action?

A

1 year

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261
Q

When may an internal investigation of an employee be re-opened beyond the 1 year time frame?

A
  1. Significant new evidence that is likely to affect the outcome of the investigation, and one of the following exists:
    a. The evidence could not reasonably have been discovered without resorting to extraordinary measures.
    b. The evidence resulted from the employee’s pre-disciplinary hearing response or procedure.
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262
Q

When would the 3 year time limit apply to an internal investigation?

A

When it includes financial crimes (i.e. fraud, embezzlement, falsification of records).

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263
Q

In regards to a rejection during probation, when does an employee have to be served with a notice of RDP?

A

Prior to the last day of the probationary period.

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264
Q

When an employee is placed on a department-initiated leave of absence, who shall the commander NOTIFY?

A

CalHR

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265
Q

If a department-initiated leave of absence extends past 30 calendar days, who’s APPROVAL IS REQUIRED FIRST?

A

CalHR

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266
Q

When an employee is placed on a leave of absence WITHOUT pay, what is required to happen with the investigation?

A

It must be completed, reviewed, and the employee must be served with the notice of AA within 15 CALENDAR days.

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267
Q

How many hours notice must be given to an employee when terminating a department-initiated leave of absence?

A

48 hours

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268
Q

Before a commander removes an employee’s peace officer powers, who’s approval is needed?

A

The appropriate AC

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269
Q

Before a commander reinstates an employee’s peace officer powers, who’s approval is needed?

A

The appropriate AC

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270
Q

What CHP form shall not be included in an internal investigation as an EXHIBIT?

A

CHP 268, Potential Civil Litigation Report

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271
Q

In regards to internal investigations, who’s approval is required when a commander believes the use of a polygraph test or VSA is necessary?

A

Commissioner

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272
Q

How long shall administrative investigation evidence be retained for?

A

5 years

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273
Q

In regards to evidence related to administrative investigations, what shall be annotated on the CHP 36?

A

The date of destruction

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274
Q

An employees locker can be searched under what 4 conditions?

A
  1. Employee is present
  2. Employee gives consent
  3. A valid search warrant is obtained
  4. Employee has been notified a search will be conducted
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275
Q

During internal investigation interviews, are DEPARTMENTAL witness statements required to be RECORDED?

A

Yes

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276
Q

During internal investigation interviews, are NON-DEPARTMENTAL witness statements required to be RECORDED?

A

No, but they should be, unless they object

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277
Q

In regards to internal investigations, who’s approval is needed prior to surreptitiously recording a departmental employee?

A

OIA

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278
Q

In regards to internal investigations, when can an employee be surreptitiously recorded?

A

During a CRIMINAL investigation

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279
Q

In regards to administrative investigations, who’s approval is needed to video record interrogations?

A

Commissioner

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280
Q

How shall all interviews and/or administrative interrogations be documented?

A
  1. Summarized in a memo, or…

2. Transcribed

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281
Q

In regards to administrative investigations, in what case shall the employee’s interrogation be transcribed in its entirety?

A

Dismissals

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282
Q

If a discussion is necessary, but the employee refuses to participate in an investigative INTERVIEW, what shall happen?

A

The employee shall be made to participate in an INTERROGATION.

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283
Q

In regards to internal investigations, when is an employee not compelled to provide a statement or answer questions?

A

When the investigation is criminal in nature

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284
Q

What is a CHP 8A form?

A

Criminal Interrogation Record

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285
Q

What is a CHP 8 form?

A

Administrative Interrogation Record

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286
Q

Can a criminal investigator participate in/attend an administrative interrogation?

A

No

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287
Q

Can an administrative investigator participate in/attend a criminal interrogation?

A

Yes

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288
Q

Prior to an employee being subject to additional administrative interrogations, what shall the employee be provided with?

A

Copies of recordings from previous administrative interrogations.

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289
Q

The Notice of Administrative Interrogation shall include what 4 things?

A
  1. Nature/scope of interrogation
  2. Rank, name, and command of all interrogators
  3. Date, time, and location of interrogation
  4. Right to representation
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290
Q

What is considered a reasonable amount of notice (time) to give an employee prior to an administrative interrogation?

A

24 hours

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291
Q

In regards to internal investigations, when is marital privilege NOT applicable?

A

When both employee’s are uniformed members of the Department.

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292
Q

In regards to administrative investigations, within how many days of the investigation being approved shall the employee be served with the closing correspondence?

A

30 days

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293
Q

The Division Commander is the final level of approval for an AA with a penalty of what?

A
  1. Formal written reprimand

2. 1-5 day suspension, or equivalent monthly step reduction

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294
Q

The respective AC is the final level of approval for an AA with a penalty of what?

A
  1. 6-20 day suspension, or equivalent monthly step reduction

2. Removal from specialty pay position

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295
Q

The Deputy Commissioner or Commissioner is the final level of approval for an AA with a penalty of what?

A
  1. Dismissal
  2. Demotion
  3. 20+ day suspension, or equivalent monthly step reduction
  4. Rejection during probation
  5. Non-punitive termination
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296
Q

What is the effective date of an AA?

A

NLT 25 CALENDAR days after the date of service of the notice.

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297
Q

Suspensions in excess of how many days shall be coordinated with OIA and the Commissioner?

A

42 days

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298
Q

When do suspension times begin and end?

A

Start: At the start of the employee’s shift

End: 1 minute before the shift start time on the 1st day after the suspension

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299
Q

An employee must have how many working days in a monthly pay period for it to be considered a qualifying pay period?

A

11+ WORKING days

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300
Q

An employee must have how many working days in a monthly pay period to qualify for paid medical benefits?

A

1 WORKING day

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301
Q

FLSA exempt employees (managers), shall not be subject to a disciplinary action suspension in less than full week increments unless what?

A

There is a violation of a major safety rule

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302
Q

What is the effective date of an AA for all managerial employees?

A

NLT 20 CALENDAR days after the date of service of the notice

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303
Q

For uniformed employees (except managers), an AA with a penalty of dismissal, non-punitive termination, or RDP, shall become effective at 1700 hours on what date?

A

10 BUSINESS days after the last day of the PDH period

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304
Q

For managerial employees, an AA with a penalty of dismissal, non-punitive termination, or RDP, shall become effective at 1700 hours on what date?

A

10 CALENDAR days after the last day of the PDH period

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305
Q

An AA with a penalty of demotion, shall become effective at 1700 hours on what date?

A

At least 15 CALENDAR days after the last day of the PDH period

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306
Q

While the effective date of an AA with a penalty of demotion is normally at least 15 CALENDAR days after the last day of the PDH period, it can be earlier. In the event it is earlier, it shall not be any earlier than what?

A

5 BUSINESS days after the last day of the PDH period

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307
Q

What is the effective date of an AA with a chosen penalty of a step reduction?

A

A minimum of 25 CALENDAR days from the date of service of the notice

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308
Q

How much state time is an employee and their rep. granted to review the administrative investigation file and prepare a PDH response?

A

4 hours

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309
Q

In regards to administrative investigations, if the service of the closing correspondence will exceed how many days, who shall be contacted?

A
  1. If service will exceed 29 WORKING days

2. OIA shall be contacted

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310
Q

All administrative investigation shall be destroyed after how long?

A

5 years; from the date the employee was served with the Notice of Adverse Action or the closing documentation.

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311
Q

Internal investigations which resulted in a formal written reprimand shall be retained for how long?

A
  1. 5 years, however…
  2. The copy in the personnel folder shall be removed after 3 years; from the date the employee was served with the Notice of Adverse Action or the closing documentation.
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312
Q

In regards to an administrative investigation, if closing/corrective documentation is rescinded, but an employee’s GC 3306 response is attached, what shall happen to the GC 3306 response?

A

It shall be returned to the employee upon destruction of the originally issued closing/corrective documentation.

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313
Q

At minimum, who shall serve as the PDH officer?

A

Assistant Chief

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314
Q

For RDP’s, how long can an employee’s probationary period be extended to allow for for the PDH period?

A

5 days

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315
Q

In what form may an employee request a PDH hearing?

A
  1. Orally, or…

2. In writing

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316
Q

If the employee requested a PDH hearing ORALLY, within how many days shall the PDH officer respond in writing?

A

7 CALENDAR days

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317
Q

If the employee requested a PDH hearing in WRITING, within how many days shall the PDH officer respond in writing?

A

14 CALENDAR days

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318
Q

The request to use leave credits to satisfy a suspension shall be submitted by what date?

A

Any time prior to the conclusion of the PDH period.

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319
Q

When appealing an AA, an employee must submit an appeal to SPB within how many days?

A

NLT 30 CALENDAR days after the effective date of the Notice of Adverse Action.

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320
Q

When appealing an RDP, an employee must submit an appeal to SPB within how many days?

A

NLT 15 CALENDAR days after the effective date of the rejection.

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321
Q

When appealing minor discipline (written reprimand), an employee must submit an appeal to OIA within how many days after receiving the PDH officer’s decision?

A

NLT 14 CALENDAR days after the date the PDH officer’s decision was received.

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322
Q

In regards to the appeal of written reprimands, if the employee in not satisfied with the PDH officer’s decision, who is the next level of appeal?

A

Commissioner

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323
Q

If an employee separates from the Department during an administrative investigation, the file shall be converted to what?

A

A miscellaneous investigation

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324
Q

If an employee begins short term military leave prior to the completion of an administrative investigation, or prior to the service of the notice or closing documentation, what shall happen?

A

They shall be provided with a memo advising that the 1-year time frame for completion and service has been tolled.

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325
Q

If an employee disability retires prior to the completion of an administrative investigation, what shall happen?

A

The investigation shall be completed and the employee shall be served with the Notice of Adverse Action.

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326
Q

If an employee resigns while an administrative investigation is pending, what shall the commander provide them with?

A

A Response to Voluntary Resignation

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327
Q

When computing seniority points, in what increments are they granted, and what dates are used for computing?

A
  1. 1/4 point for each full year served in the rank

2. Computed from the date of appointment to the date of the written examination

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328
Q

For non-uniformed employment vacancies, how long shall commands advertise them for, and how long are they valid?

A
  1. Advertise for a minimum of 10 BUSINESS days

2. Valid for 120 days from the posting date

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329
Q

An applicant who discloses illegal drug use within how many years of submitting an application SHALL BE DISQUALIFIED?

A

2 years

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330
Q

For sensitive classifications, an applicant who discloses illegal use of hard drugs within how many years of submitting an application SHOULD BE VIEWED AS A SIGNIFICANT CONCERN?

A

5 years

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331
Q

Retired annuitants can work up to how many hours per year?

A

960 hours

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332
Q

A former uniformed employee must apply for reinstatement within how many years of separation?

A

3 years

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333
Q

How shall a uniformed employee request a permissive reinstatement?

A

In WRITING to the Commissioner

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334
Q

How shall a non-uniformed employee request a permissive reinstatement?

A
  1. In person or in writing, to…

2. The hiring command where the vacancy exists

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335
Q

If an employee who disability retired is no longer disabled, and wishes to reinstate, what is the only requirement?

A

They must be at least 6 months less than the age of mandatory retirement.

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336
Q

Typically, how much advance notice is the Department required to give an employee who is subject to a mandatory transfer?

A

60 days

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337
Q

An employee who is subject to a mandatory transfer may waive the 60 day advance notice requirement by doing what?

A

Writing the Commissioner

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338
Q

The maximum travel distance for commanders using a state vehicle shall not exceed what?

A

70 miles

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339
Q

The maximum travel distance for non-command employees using a state vehicle shall not exceed what?

A

50 miles

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340
Q

Salary payment or reimbursement for expenses cannot take place until an employee does what?

A

Has taken and subscribed to the Oath or Declaration (Oath of Allegiance or Declaration of Permission to Work).

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341
Q

Who is authorized to administer the Oath of Allegiance or Declaration of Permission to Work?

A
  1. Uniformed sergeants and above, and…

2. Non-uniformed commanders/designees

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342
Q

Who may receive 2 step raises at the same time?

A

Managerial employees, when they are required to relocate more than 50 miles upon promotion.

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343
Q

What is the normal anniversary date for a merit salary adjustment?

A

The 1st day of the pay period following the completion of 12 pay periods of qualifying service

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344
Q

What is the anniversary date of a merit salary adjusted for an employee who has had their salary reduced by AA?

A

The normal MSA date

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345
Q

When a commander denies an employee’s MSA, what shall be proved to the employee?

A

A memo detailing why and explaining their right to appeal

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346
Q

When a merit salary adjustment is denied by the commander, the decision will not normally be reconsidered before what time period?

A

3 months have passed

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347
Q

When a merit salary is denied, what happens to the anniversary date?

A

A new one is established 12 months after the effective date of the increase

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348
Q

A merit salary adjustment denial is appealed through what process?

A

Grievance

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349
Q

When do 6 month probationary employees receive their written appraisals?

A

2, 4, and 6 months

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350
Q

When do 12 month probationary employees receive their written appraisals?

A

4, 8, and 12 months

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351
Q

How many hours must a 6 month probationary employee complete?

A

840 hours

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352
Q

How many hours must a 12 month probationary employee complete?

A

1680 hours

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353
Q

What are the 4 types of discretionary leave (AIR-T)?

A
  1. Regular leave of absence
  2. Adoption leave
  3. Temporary leave of absence
  4. Informal leave
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354
Q

What are the 7 types of non-discretionary leave?

A
  1. Pregnancy/parental leave
  2. Veteran’s educational leave
  3. Military leave
  4. Spousal military leave
  5. FMLA/CFRA
  6. NDI
  7. SDI
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355
Q

When a commander is absent from the command for an extended period of time, the position will be considered for refill after how long?

A

6 continuous months

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356
Q

Who shall complete REFRESHER training?

A

Uniformed employees who return after an approved leave of absence of 12 months to 2 years.

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357
Q

Who shall complete REINSTATEMENT training?

A

Uniformed employees who return after an approved leave of absence of over 2 years.

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358
Q

Who has the power to grant un unpaid leave of absence for up to 1 year?

A

Commissioner

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359
Q

Can sick leave credits be used prior to the effective date of leave?

A
  1. Not unless the leave is for medical reasons, and…

2. It’s substantiated by a doctors note.

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360
Q

The appointing power can approve a leave of absence without pay for the adoption of a child for a period not to exceed how long?

A

1 year

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361
Q

The maximum length of time for TEMPORARY leave is how long?

A

30 days

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362
Q

The maximum length of time for INFORMAL leave is how long?

A

10 or 11 days depending on the length of the pay period.

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363
Q

The maximum length of time for pregnancy/parental leave is how long?

A

1 year

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364
Q

When a female employee becomes pregnant, what is she required to do?

A

Provide her commander with a statement from her doctor regarding her ability to perform limited or full duty.

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365
Q

To be eligible for veteran’s educational leave, how many credit hours must an employee enroll in each school year?

A

10

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366
Q

How long is short-term military leave?

A

6 months or less

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367
Q

An employee who is on short-term or long-term military leave is entitled to pay for up to how long?

A

The first 30 CALENDAR days of leave

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368
Q

How long is long-term military leave?

A

More than 6 months, but not exceeding 5 years.

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369
Q

How shall an AWOL notice be sent to the employee’s last known address?

A

By OVERNIGHT mail

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370
Q

In regards to AWOL notices, when they are sent WITHIN CA, service is effective after how many CALENDAR days of the postmark?

A

5

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371
Q

In regards to AWOL notices, when they are sent OUTSIDE CA, service is effective after how many CALENDAR days of the postmark?

A

10

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372
Q

In regards to AWOL notices, when they are sent OUTSIDE the USA, service is effective after how many CALENDAR days of the postmark?

A

20

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373
Q

If an employee IS SERVED with an AWOL notice, within how many days of the service are they required to request reinstatement from CalHR?

A

15

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374
Q

If an employee was NEVER served with an AWOL notice, within how many days of the effective date of separation are they required to request reinstatement from CalHR?

A

90

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375
Q

When an employee is DISCHARGED, when must they be paid for their wages?

A

At the time of separation

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376
Q

When an employee VOLUNTARILY RESIGNS, when must they be paid for their wages?

A

Within 72 hours from the date of separation.

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377
Q

Peace officers who separate from the Department for reasons other than retirement, can only maintain DMV confidentiality of their home address for how long?

A

3 years following their date of separation

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378
Q

If a recommendation against rehire or averse comments are contained in an exit interview, what shall the employee be entitled to do?

A
  1. Read and sign the memo, and…

2. Respond within 30 days.

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379
Q

How long does the Department have to recoup an overpayment?

A

3 years

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380
Q

What is the mandatory uniformed retirement age?

A

60 years

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381
Q

The recoupable amount for overpayments must not exceed what?

A

25% of the employee’s monthly net disposable earnings

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382
Q

What are the collections methods an employee can use to satisfy an overpayment (PUP)?

A
  1. Payroll deduction
  2. Personal check/cash payment
  3. Use of leave credits
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383
Q

To be eligible to DONATE to another employee for catastrophic leave, the donating employee must have a MINIMUM balance of how much PAID leave?

A

80 hours

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384
Q

Use of catastrophic leave may not exceed how long for any one illness/injury?

A

12 CONTINUOUS months

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385
Q

Use of catastrophic leave may not exceed how long for a NATURAL DISASTER?

A
  1. 3 CONTINUOUS months, unless…

2. Extended another 3 months by the appropriate AC.

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386
Q

Per GC 3306, how many days does an employee have to respond in writing to any adverse comment being placed in their personnel file?

A

30 days

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387
Q

In the event a CHP 2 was previously issued for something that has turned into a “Request for Adverse Action”, what shall happen to the CHP 2?

A
  1. It shall be rescinded and destroyed, and…

2. The employee shall be notified in writing

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388
Q

Can 4800.5 credits be used tentatively while a case decision is pending at SCIF?

A

Yes

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389
Q

An employee, who is a military veteran and has a military disability rating of 30% or more, is entitled to how many ADDITIONAL hours of sick leave to deal with appointments related to their disability?

A

96 hours

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390
Q

In regards to bereavement leave, under what circumstances would an employee be entitled to up to 2 additional days of sick leave?

A

When they have to go out of state for the death

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391
Q

Who is authorized to sign the STD. 634?

A

Lieutenants and above

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392
Q

When an employee elects to enroll in the sick leave/vacation leave program, how long do they have to wait before they can enroll in the annual leave program?

A

24 months

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393
Q

Commanders shall REVIEW the vacation/annual leave balances for their employees on what date?

A

June 1 of each year

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394
Q

On which date will the commanders NOTIFY their employees they have to burn down their excess vacation/annual leave hours?

A

January 1 of each year

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395
Q

Sergeants in what sized commands, utilize “on call” rather than “standby” status?

A

2 or 3 sergeant commands

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396
Q

Who’s approval is needed to place an employee on ATO?

A

Commissioner

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397
Q

During a state of emergency, how much ATO can be granted to an employee?

A

5 days

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398
Q

When paid ATO exceeds 5 WORKING days, who’s approval is needed?

A
  1. Commissioner, and…

2. CalHR

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399
Q

How much ORGAN DONOR time is an employee entitled to?

A

Up to 30 WORKING days in any 1-year.

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400
Q

How much BONE MARROW donor time is an employee entitled to?

A

Up to 5 WORKING days in any 1-year.

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401
Q

How many hours of leave are employees entitled to use per calendar year to ATTEND family or school related activities their child is involved in?

A

At least 20 hours

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402
Q

Up to how many hours of leave are employees entitled to use per calendar year to PARTICIPATE in activities at their child’s school?

A
  1. Up to 40 hours per CALENDAR YEAR, but…

2. Not more than 8 hours per MONTH

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403
Q

Up to how many hours of leave are employees entitled to per calendar year for MENTORING leave?

A

Up to 40 hours, provided they have used an equal amount of their own time.

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404
Q

If an employee can’t vote outside of working hours, how much work time may they be granted to vote?

A

2 hours max.

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405
Q

When en employee is granted work time to vote, can they go vote DURING their shift?

A

No.

**The time is granted at the beginning or end of the regular shift.

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406
Q

At least how many days BEFORE the statewide election shall commanders post the employee’s rights to vote on work time on the office bulletin board?

A

10 days

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407
Q

How much advance notice does an employee have to give the commander if they plan on voting on work time?

A

2 days

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408
Q

Supplemental pay warrants (covering unpaid wages), are normally issued within how many days after the end of the pay period?

A

14 WORKING days

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409
Q

On the CHP 71, Attendance Report, how do managerial employees indicate their work week?

A

By marking the end of their work weeks with red lines

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410
Q

The decision to implement the AWW is at who’s discretion?

A
  1. Area Commander, with…

2. Division concurrence

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411
Q

In order to implement the AWW, a passing vote of at least what % is required?

A

67%

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412
Q

When the pay period ends on a normal work day, the commander/designee may release pay warrants when?

A
  1. On that day either at 1500 hours, or…

2. After the employee has completed all work hours

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413
Q

When the pay period ends on a weekend, or holiday, the commander/designee may release pay warrants when?

A

On the last preceding normal work day

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414
Q

How long are citizen complaints retained for?

A

5 years

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415
Q

How long are miscellaneous investigations retained for?

A

3 years

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416
Q

How long are grievances retained for at the affected command?

A

3 years

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417
Q

A MANAGER who possesses a B.A. is eligible to receive how much more money?

A

$100.00

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418
Q

A MANAGER who possesses a M.A. is eligible to receive how much more money?

A

$200.00

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419
Q

Who is considered a Category 1 motorcycle rider?

A

Presently capable of performing motorcycle enforcement duties

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420
Q

Who is considered a Category 2 motorcycle rider?

A
  1. On a 1 year probationary status, and…

2. Assigned a CMTO for 30 day working period.

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421
Q

To qualify for swing shift differential pay, how many hours, and between what times, does an employee have to work?

A
  1. 4+ hours

2. Between 1800 hours and 0100 hours

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422
Q

To qualify for grave yard differential pay, how many hours, and between what times, does an employee have to work?

A
  1. 4+ hours

2. Between 2300 hours and 0600 hours

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423
Q

Per FMLA and CFRA requirements, how many weeks of unpaid job protected paid leave is an employee entitled to?

A

12 weeks

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424
Q

When an employee submits a request for FMLA/ CFRA leave, within how many days of receiving the request, shall the supervisor provide them with a CHP 738, notice of Eligibility and Rights and Responsibilities?

A

5 BUSINESS days

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425
Q

For a FMLA/ CFRA leave request for a foreseeable event, how much advance notice must an employee provide their supervisor?

A

30 days

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426
Q

What are the month and hour requirements for an employee to be eligible for FMLA/CFRA leave?

A
  1. Employee must have worked at least 12 months of state service, and…
  2. Worked at least 1,250 hrs immediately before the date the FMLA/CFRA leave is to start
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427
Q

Is paid leave due to job related injuries (4800.5) counted toward satisfying the 1,250 hours worked requirement?

A

No

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428
Q

Up to how much time is an employee allowed to take for baby bonding leave, and within what time period must it be taken?

A
  1. Up to 12 weeks of leave

2. Within the 1st year of the babies birth

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429
Q

In regards to baby bonding leave, what is the minimum duration of leave an employee is allowed to take at one time?

A

2 weeks

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430
Q

In regards to baby bonding leave, if an employee requests, they must be permitted to, take a leave of at least what?

A

1 day, but less than 2 weeks; at least twice during the 12 week period

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431
Q

An employee who is on an AWW schedule, who is also on FMLA/ CFRA leave for 30+ continuous days, must revert back to what schedule?

A

Monday - Friday, 8-hour shift

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432
Q

An employee is entitled to take up to how many weeks of FMLA leave during a single 12 month period for military caregiver leave?

A

A combined total of 26 WORK weeks

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433
Q

What are the 3 classifications of citizens complaints?

A
  1. Category 1
  2. Category 2
  3. Other
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434
Q

“Other” complaints include what types of complaints (DCRF)?

A
  1. Departmental
  2. Citation validity
  3. Rescinded
  4. Frivolous
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435
Q

“Non- Complaints” include what type of complaints (VOOT)?

A
  1. Traffic
  2. Vehicle storage/ impound validity
  3. Other agency
  4. Off duty conduct
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436
Q

What are the 5 complaint findings, in order of severity (SUUDE)?

A
  1. Sustained
  2. Unintentional error
  3. Undetermined / No finding
  4. Departmental
  5. Exonerated
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437
Q

All complaints shall be acknowledged by correspondences within how many days?

A

5 BUSINESS days

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438
Q

In regards to receiving citizens complaints, when is interim correspondences not required?

A
  1. When the complainant original contacts the department in person, and…
  2. The requisite information was provided at that time
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439
Q

When shall the complainant be requested to return the CHP 240B or CHP 240D?

A

Within 10 BUSINESS days

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440
Q

When a complainant makes a claim of monetary damages what forms shall they be provided with?

A
  1. CHP 287, Claims of 1,000 or less, or…

2. Board Of Control Tort Claim

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441
Q

Normally, within how many days should a regular complaint be completed?

A

60 days

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442
Q

Normally, within days should a Legislative complaint be completed?

A

30 days

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443
Q

When is a Chronological Log required in a COMPLAINT?

A

Category 1 investigation

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444
Q

If during a citizens complaint a supervisor wants to record an INTERVIEW with an employee, outside the scope of a formal administrative interrogation, what is required?

A

Employee consent FIRST

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445
Q

During a citizens complaint investigation, why would it be necessary to exam the employee’s complaint history?

A

To determine the existence of previous complaints which would be relevant to the current investigation.

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446
Q

If an employee’s complaint history reveals certain trends which is used in determining the findings of the current complaint, where should it be documented?

A

In the “findings” section

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447
Q

When shall closing correspondence be sent to a complainant?

A

After the investigation has been approved at the appropriate level.

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448
Q

Closing correspondence shall be sent to the complainant within how many days of the investigation being approved?

A

30 CALENDAR days

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449
Q

In regards to citizens complaints, when shall commanders take corrective action against employees.

A

When employee was in error, whether it was intentional or not.

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450
Q

In regards to citizens complaints, corrective action shall be in one of which 4 forms ?

A
  1. Request AA
  2. CHP 2 (censurable)
  3. MOD
  4. MOF
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451
Q

Generally, area commanders are the final approval authority for what category of citizen complaints?

A

Category 2

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452
Q

The employee should be provided with the opportunity to review the citizens complaint investigation in its entirety, EXCEPT for what portion?

A

The list of exhibits

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453
Q

Up to what point can a compliant investigation be amended?

A

Any time prior to discussion and review with the employee

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454
Q

If a complaint investigation needs to be amended AFTER it has been designated as final and complete, how shall any changes be documented?

A
  1. Changes made by memo, and…

2. New CHP 240 shall be generated with the “amended box” checked

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455
Q

If a complaint investigation has been amended, when is new closing correspondence required to be sent to the citizen?

A

When the finding has been changed in a substantive manner.

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456
Q

In regards to citizen complaint investigations, what is the Information File?

A

A catalogue of complainants who have demonstrated a propensity towards the filing of frivolous, spurious, or suspicious complaints.

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457
Q

Who conducts the complaint investigation if the complainant disagrees with, and appeals the findings of the initial investigation?

A

The succeeding (next) level of command.

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458
Q

In regards to the EAP program, Magellan Healthcare is required by law to release information under what circumstances (SHAC)?

A
  1. When records are lawfully subpoenaed.
  2. When an individual expresses a desire to harm themself or another person.
  3. If child or elder abuse is suspected.
  4. If the individual confesses to a crime.
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459
Q

In regards to EAP, how many sessions is an employee entitled to?

A

7 sessions; per problem, per fiscal year.

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460
Q

In regards to the Peer Support Program, confidentiality will be maintained except in what circumstances (CSH)?

A
  1. Employee misconduct constitutes criminal activity.
  2. Peer Support volunteer is subpoenaed to testify concerning information shared by the employee.
  3. When employee expresses desire to harm themself.
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461
Q

Commanders make recommendations for an employee’s participation in the Peer Support program based on what?

A
  1. Job performance
  2. Observed interpersonal skills
  3. Maturity
  4. Judgment
  5. Personal and professional credibility
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462
Q

A Critical Incident Stress Debriefing (CISD) should be scheduled within how many hours of a critical event?

A

24-72 hours

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463
Q

What is the only situation where an employee’s attendance is mandatory at a Critical Incident Stress Debriefing?

A

When the employee was involved in a shooting.

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464
Q

Within how many hours of a shooting incident shall the commander refer the involved employee(s) to a Critical Incident Stress Debriefing?

A

72 hours

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465
Q

What does the mandatory portion of the Wellness Program require commanders to do?

A
  1. SUPPORT the concepts of wellness, health, and fitness

2. DISSEMINATE wellness information to all employees.

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466
Q

What does the discretionary portion of the Wellness Program allow commanders to do?

A

COORDINATE wellness activities for all employees within their command.

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467
Q

How often does the Command Occupational Safety Committee meet?

A

Quarterly

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468
Q

Who assigns preventability when it comes to occupational injuries/illnesses, and and recordable vehicle collisions?

A

Commander

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469
Q

The assignment of preventability may be appealed to who for REVIEW only?

A

Command Occupational Safety Committee

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470
Q

In regards to command occupational safety practices, after what PREVENTABLE events shall a commander meet with an employee (HIC)?

A
  1. Collisions
  2. Injury/illness
  3. Hazardous exposure
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471
Q

An injury/illness/collision which occurs during an employee’s temporary assignment, shall be charged to who, UNLESS what?

A
  1. Temporary command, unless…

2. The assignment is for a civil disturbance

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472
Q

An injury/illness/collision which occurs during a civil disturbance, shall be charged to who?

A

Permanent command

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473
Q

An injury/illness/collision which occurs while an employee is temporarily assigned to and/or under the direct supervision of an entity other than the Department, shall be charged to who?

A

Appropriate AC

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474
Q

An injury/illness/collision which occurs while an employee is traveling to or from a temporary assignment, shall be charged to who?

A

Permanent command

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475
Q

Within how many days is a command required to respond to a complaint letter received from the Division of Occupational Safety and Health?

A

14 CALENDAR days

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476
Q

How long is a copy of the complaint letter from the Division of Occupational Safety and Health, and the commands response, required to be posted in a prominent location in the office?

A

3 days minimum

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477
Q

How many hours of COMMENTARY driving are uniformed employees required to have per year?

A

1 hour

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478
Q

What are the 3 categories of methods for controlling hazardous exposure to potentially hazardous conditions and substances (ACE)?

A
  1. Engineering controls
  2. Administrative controls
  3. Control of PPE
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479
Q

What is a record only injury/illness?

A

Does not require first-aid or medical treatment.

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480
Q

What is a first-aid injury/illness?

A

Involves one time medical treatment.

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481
Q

What is a non-disabling injury/illness?

A

Requires more than first aid, or may require more than one-time medical care, but the employee is able to return to work (full or light duty), following the date of injury/illness.

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482
Q

What is a disabling injury/illness?

A

The employee is unable to return to work following the date of the injury/illness.

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483
Q

What is a serious injury/illness?

A

Requires overnight hospital care other than for observation, a lengthy disability status, or disability retirement.

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484
Q

What is a recurrence of an injury/illness?

A

The injury/illness does not have a new, clearly defined incident to cause a flare-up.

**A spontaneous reappearance of a prior condition.

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485
Q

What is an aggravation of an injury/illness?

A

The injury/illness has an identifiable new incident which caused the flare-up.

**Shall be processed as a new injury.

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486
Q

Whenever an employee is off-duty as a result of a psychological reason, to include stress, what shall happen?

A

Peace officer powers shall be revoked

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487
Q

How often shall commanders CONTACT SCIF to review the status of those cases where an employee has been placed off-duty?

A

Monthly

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488
Q

How often shall commanders REPORT their injury case management activity TO DIVISION?

A

Quarterly

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489
Q

How often, and by which date, shall commanders submit CHP 121D’s, Injury/Illness Case Status Report, to Division?

A
  1. Monthly

2. By the 10th of each month

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490
Q

HOW, and UNDER WHAT CIRCUMSTANCES, would a commander be required to notify the appropriate AC, of an illness/injury to an employee.

A
  1. Via Comm-Net, when…

2. An employee has been off-duty as a result of an occupational injury/illness for 30+ CALENDAR days

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491
Q

How shall all CHP 121 packets be sent to State Fund?

A

Via fax

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492
Q

In the event of death, or serious injury/illness to an employee, who shall the commander immediately notify?

A
  1. Division, and…

2. Appropriate AC

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493
Q

In the event of death, or serious injury/illness to an employee, within how many HOURS shall the commander send a MIS-Web message to the appropriate AC and DRU?

A

24 hours

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494
Q

In the event of death, or serious injury/illness to an employee, within how many HOURS shall the Department of Industrial Relations, Division of Occupational Safety and Health, be notified?

A

8 hours

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495
Q

When an APPLICANT sustains an injury/illness, who is responsible for initiating and routing the CHP 121?

A

The supervisor managing the application process.

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496
Q

Within how many days of injuries/illnesses shall the Cal OSHA Log be updated?

A

6 WORKING days

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497
Q

The commander shall review and sign the CHP 121 packet within how many days?

A

3 days

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498
Q

The employee shall review and sign the CHP 121 packet within how many hours?

A

24 hours

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499
Q

The commander shall forward the CHP 121 packet to State Fund within how many days?

A

5 days

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500
Q

Within how many days of the initial notification or any status change, shall the employee’s CHP 442, Individual Accident, Injury and Safety Recognition Record, be updated?

A

3 days

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501
Q

A SCIF 3301, Employee’s Claim for Worker’s Compensation Benefits, shall be initiated and provided to an employee within 24 hours of a notification of an alleged injury/illness, unless what?

A

Injury is record only or first aid only.

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502
Q

How many physicians can an employee pre-designate with a CH 242?

A

1

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503
Q

In regards to an employee pre-designating a physician, what limitations are set on the selected physician?

A
  1. Physician must have previously provided medical treatment to the employee
  2. Physician must currently retain their permanent medical file
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504
Q

Who can initiate a fitness for duty examination on an employee?

A
  1. The Department

2. State Fund

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505
Q

Prior to a commander initiating a fitness for duty examination, who’s approval is required?

A

Appropriate AC

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506
Q

When an employee is on limited duty, what are they prohibited from doing?

A
  1. Wearing a uniform
  2. Displaying a badge
  3. Operating an enforcement vehicle
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507
Q

In TOTAL, a limited duty assignment shall not exceed how long?

A

2 years

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508
Q

Commanders may authorize limited duty for up to how long?

A

1 year

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509
Q

Who’s authorization is required to request an extension of limited duty beyond 1-year?

A

CalHR

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510
Q

Who shall not be approved for a limited duty assignment?

A
  1. Employees who have attained the minimum retirement age
  2. Employees who have depleted available leave credits
  3. Employees who are awaiting a disability retirement
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511
Q

When an employee refuses to perform a medically approved and Department-ordered limited duty assignment, what shall the commander do?

A
  1. Remove the employee from pay status, and…

2. Initiate action to terminate employment

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512
Q

If an employee is given an Options Letter, how long should they normally be given to review the letter?

A

No more than 14 days

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513
Q

In regards to job-actions, what is a wildcat strike?

A

Less than statewide participation

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514
Q

What shall affected area commanders maintain during a labor strife?

A

A daily record of chronological events associated with the labor dispute.

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515
Q

In regards to job-actions, if an employee says they are too sick to go to the doctor to obtain a medical verification, what may the commander do?

A

Have the employee transported to a state doctor via ambulance; with the appropriate AC’s concurrence

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516
Q

In regards to job-actions, if an employee refuses to submit to a doctor’s examination, based on religions grounds, they shall be advised of what?

A

Their claim is invalid; unless they already have an affidavit on file with SPB

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517
Q

What job-action is constitutionally protected?

A

Picketing

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518
Q

In regards to job-actions, the use of what employees is most desirable when filling the void left by striking employees?

A
  1. Confidential
  2. Supervisory
  3. Managerial
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519
Q

While the CHP 14, Leadership Development Plan, is optional, when shall it be discussed with supervisors and managers?

A

During the annual performance evaluation

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520
Q

How many Critical Tasks have been identified as essential to performing the job of an officer?

A

8

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521
Q

The annual performance appraisal shall be completed within how many days of the employee’s anniversary date?

A

60 days

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522
Q

In regards to performance appraisals, probationary reports shall be completed within how many days of what?

A

Within 10 days of the end of 4 months, 8 months, and 12 months.

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523
Q

When is a CHP 100 NOT required to be completed?

A
  1. Employee is off for the entire month

2. The employee is a trainee in FTEP

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524
Q

In regards to the CHP 100, all road patrol officers shall be evaluated in what Critical Tasks?

A

1-7

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525
Q

In regards to the CHP 100, when are supervisor comments mandatory?

A

Ratings of “excellent” or “needs improvement”.

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526
Q

Under what circumstances would an employees annual performance appraisal period be EXTENDED 3 additional months after returning to work?

A

When they have been off work for 30+ consecutive WORKING days.

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527
Q

How many Critical Tasks have been identified as essential to performing the job of a sergeant?

A

10

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528
Q

Regardless of anniversary date, what is a sergeants performance appraisal evaluation period?

A

Jan 1 - December 31 of the preceding calendar year

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529
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to initiate a CHP 131, Promotional Development Assessment?

A

A sergeants, during the annual evaluation process.

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530
Q

In regards to the CHP 112, all sergeants shall be evaluated in what Critical Tasks?

A

1-7

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531
Q

When the commander identifies training needs for a probationary sergeant, what shall be prepared?

A

A Career Development Plan

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532
Q

In regards to probationary sergeants, when their final probationary CHP 118S is completed within 90 days of the end of the calendar year, the probationary CHP 118S can be attached to the annual performance appraisal with what comment?

A

“No change in performance”.

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533
Q

The CHP 131, Promotional Development Assessment, is used to assess what?

A

A sergeant’s readiness for promotion to Lieutenant.

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534
Q

If a sergeant requests to complete a CHP 131, Promotional Development Assessment, within how many days shall they return it to the “rater”?

A

5 WORKING days

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535
Q

How many Critical Tasks have been identified as essential to performing the job of a manager?

A

10

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536
Q

Regardless of anniversary date, what is a managers performance appraisal evaluation period?

A

Jan 1 - December 31 of the preceding calendar year

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537
Q

In regards to performance appraisals for managers, is one required to be done when they transfer?

A

Yes

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538
Q

In regards to performance appraisals for managers, is one required to be done if the manager transfers within 3 months of receiving their annual performance appraisal?

A

No

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539
Q

In regards to performance appraisals for managers, is an appraisal required to be done if it is within 3 months of having received a transfer appraisal?

A

No

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540
Q

When is an area required to have an “alternate” FTEP coordinator?

A

When they have been assigned 2+ trainees

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541
Q

Who shall the Area Commander immediately notify when they initiate a RDP of a trainee?

A
  1. Division Commander, and…

2. Statewide FTEP coordinator

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542
Q

A minimum of how many hours of training shall be provided to the trainee per FTEP phase?

A

187 hours

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543
Q

At the conclusion of the 4 FTEP training phases, a trainee shall have been provided a minimum of how many training hours?

A

600 hours

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544
Q

Typically, how long are trainee EXTENSION periods during FTEP?

A

2 weeks

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545
Q

Generally, who’s approval is needed for ONE trainee EXTENSION period during FTEP?

A

Commander

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546
Q

Generally, who’s approval is needed for ADDITIONAL trainee EXTENSION periods during FTEP?

A

Division Commander

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547
Q

During FTEP, a trainee’s dispatch sit-along shall occur prior to what?

A

Starting Phase 4

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548
Q

During FTEP, how many ride-a-longs shall the FTEP sergeant(s) perform?

A

At least one

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549
Q

During FTEP, when is a manager required to interview the trainee?

A

At the end of the 1st and 3rd phases of training.

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550
Q

Every FTO shall possess what?

A
  1. POST basic certificate
  2. 1 year of patrol experience
  3. FTO basic course completion
  4. Supervisor’s recommendation
  5. Crisis Intervention Behavioral training
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551
Q

In what 3 ways can a trainee separate from the Department during FTEP (RAR)?

A
  1. Adverse action; appealable through SPB.
  2. RDP
  3. Resignation
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552
Q

Before accepting a trainee’s resignation during FTEP, the trainee should normally be given how much time to re-consider?

A

48 hours

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553
Q

In regards to the EEO policy, how many protected groups are there, and what are they (GRANDMA C GRRMMPSS)?

A

18

  1. Gender (+2 for Gender ID and Gender Expression)
  2. Race
  3. Age
  4. National Origin
  5. Disability
  6. Marital Status
  7. Ancestry
  8. Color
  9. Genetic info
  10. Religion
  11. Retaliation
  12. Medical condition
  13. Military or Veteran status
  14. Political affiliation
  15. Sex
  16. Sexual Orientation
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554
Q

Define sexual harassment.

A
  1. Unsolicited and unwelcome advances, requests for sexual favors, and…
  2. Other verbal, physical, or visual conduct of a sexual nature.
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555
Q

What are the 2 types of sexual harassment?

A
  1. Quid pro quo

2. Hostile work environment

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556
Q

Sexual harassment is measured by what?

A

The reasonable person standard

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557
Q

In regards to the EEO policy, in order for conduct to be determined to have created an intimidating, host, or offensive work environment, what 3 criteria must exist?

A
  1. The behavior must be of a sexual nature
  2. The behavior must be unwelcome
  3. The behavior must be severe/pervasive enough to create hostile, intimidating, or offensive work environment
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558
Q

Within how many months of promotion are supervisors and managers required to complete sexual harassment training?

A

6 months

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559
Q

How did the California Fair Employment and Housing Act broaden the definition of a disability?

A

They specified the disability required a limitation of a major life activity, but not necessarily a substantial limitation.

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560
Q

Federal and State law prohibit the Department from making inquiries into an applicant’s medical status/history prior to when?

A

Prior to making a conditional offer of employment.

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561
Q

In regards to the EEO policy, commanders are required to consider using applicants from what list when filling applicable non-uniformed positions?

A

LEAP lists

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562
Q

A service animal can only be what?

A
  1. A canine, or…

2. Miniature horse

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563
Q

A service animal does NOT include what?

A

Dogs or miniature horses that provide minimal protection, emotional support, or other comfort.

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564
Q

When determining if a service animal is for a disability, or for emotional support, what is the key determining difference?

A

Whether the animal has been trained to perform a task and/or a function.

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565
Q

CA law requires officers in any criminal or quasi-criminal investigation to make a good-faith effort to provide an interpreter without delay for a person with a hearing impairment, UNLESS what?

A

The individual with the hearing impairment affirmatively indicates they do not need or cannot use an interpreter.

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566
Q

Under what circumstances can a reasonable accommodation request be denied?

A
  1. When the request would cause an undue hardship on the operation of departmental programs, or…
  2. It can be shown the person would pose a direct threat to the health and/or safety of themselves or others
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567
Q

In regards to the EEO policy, what purpose does an EEO COUNSELOR serve?

A
  1. Intake and potential resolution, of…

2. INFORMAL discrimination complaints

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568
Q

In regards to the EEO policy, what purpose does an EEO INVESTIGATOR serve?

A
  1. Inquiring into, and reporting the finding of facts, of…

2. FORMAL discrimination complaints

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569
Q

In regards to EEO complaints, who are the STATE agencies designated to accept complaints?

A
  1. Department of Fair Employment and Housing (DFEH)

2. Department of Industrial Relations (DIR)

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570
Q

In regards to EEO complaints, who are the FEDERAL agencies designated to accept complaints?

A
  1. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)

2. Department of Labor

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571
Q

In regards to EEO investigations, the EEO investigator shall be what rank?

A

At least 1 rank higher than any alleged-discriminatory employee.

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572
Q

A discrimination complaint must be filed with the EEOC within how many DAYS of the last discriminatory act?

A

300 days

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573
Q

A discrimination complaint must be filed with the Department of Labor within how many DAYS of the last discriminatory act; UNLESS extended by who?

A
  1. Within 180 days, unless…

2. Extended by the Deputy Assistant Secretary

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574
Q

For those covered under the Rehabilitation of Veteran’s Act, a discrimination complaint must be filed with the Department of Labor within how many DAYS of the last discriminatory act?

A

300 days

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575
Q

A discrimination complaint must be filed with the DFEH within how many DAYS of the last discriminatory act, or termination?

A

365 days

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576
Q

A discrimination complaint must be filed with the DIR within how many DAYS of the last discriminatory act?

A

180 days

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577
Q

For those who allege retaliation against victims of DV or sexual assault, a discrimination complaint must be filed with the DIR within how many YEARS of the alleged violation?

A

1 year

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578
Q

For those who allege they are being paid less than an employee of the opposite sex doing the same job, a discrimination complaint must be filed with the DIR within how many YEARS of the alleged violation?

A

2 years

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579
Q

If a complainant becomes aware an act was discriminatory after all timelines have expired, the external compliance agency will do what?

A

Allow an additional 90 days to file a complaint.

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580
Q

In regards to the discrimination complaint process, can an employee file BOTH a grievance and a complaint FOR the SAME violation?

A

No, they shall use one or the other procedure.

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581
Q

What are the 2 distinct levels of the INTERNAL discrimination complaint process?

A
  1. Informal level (EEO counselors)

2. Formal level (EEO investigators)

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582
Q

At the INFORMAL level, the complainant has how many months from the last date of incident, to contact an EEO counselor?

A

11 months

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583
Q

In regards to a discrimination complaint, when can the complainant NOT be assured their anonymity will be kept?

A

When the complaint involves allegations of an egregious nature.

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584
Q

What is the only circumstance where anonymity CAN be maintained during the EEO complaint process?

A

When an informal EEO complaint is resolved by an EEO COUNSELOR at the lowest possible level.

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585
Q

If an employee is not satisfied with the results of an EEO COUNSELOR’S inquiry at the INFORMAL level, within how many days of the results are they required to appeal to the Division Commander?

A

10 WORKING days

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586
Q

An employee who alleges discrimination as the motive for an AA or RDP must file an appeal directly with who?

A

SPB

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587
Q

An employee who alleges DISCRIMINATION in AA’s must file an appeal with SPB within how many days of what?

A

30 CALENDAR days after service of the Notice of Adverse Action

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588
Q

An employee who alleges DISCRIMINATION in RDP’s must file an appeal with SPB within how many days of what?

A

15 CALENDAR days of the effective date of RDP

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589
Q

When investigating discrimination complaints filed directly through the EEOC/DFEH, when the complainant is NOT a CHP employee, who’s permission must be obtained to contact the complainant?

A

OEEO

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590
Q

The “title page” of an EEO investigation must contain what 3 elements?

A
  1. Equal Employment Opportunity Investigation
  2. Applicable case numbers (Division and EEO #’s)
  3. The word “CONFIDENTIAL”
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591
Q

In regards to discrimination complaints, to establish a prima facie case of retaliation, the employee must show what 3 things (PAL)?

A
  1. Employee engaged in protected activity
  2. The employer subjected employee to an “adverse action”
  3. A causal link exists between the protected activity and “adverse action”

**EEOC defines “adverse action” as: an action taken to try and keep someone from opposing a discrimination practice, or from participating in an employment discrimination proceeding.

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592
Q

In regards to the EEO policy, how often does the Department conduct language surveys?

A

Every 2 years (even numbered)

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593
Q

Who has the authority to approve IN-state travel and related expenses for their employees?

A

Division Commander

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594
Q

Who has the authority to approve OUT of state travel, BORDERING state travel, and NON-departmental conference travel along with related expenses?

A

Deputy Commissioner

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595
Q

With the exception of short-term rentals, all travel arrangements shall be booked through who?

A

Concur Travel - CalTravel Store

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596
Q

What system shall employees use to request travel advances and submit travel claims?

A

CalATERS

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597
Q

What is defined as short-term travel?

A

Travel of less than 24 hours to 30 days

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598
Q

What is defined as long-term travel?

A

Travel of 31+ days

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599
Q

Per diem will not be allowed within how many miles of an employee’s home location (HQ)?

A

50 miles

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600
Q

Travel advance requests shall not exceed expenses for how many days?

A

30 days

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601
Q

Travel advances shall not be requested for expenses less than what amount?

A

$25

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602
Q

Travel advances shall be submitted within how many days minimum and maximum of travel?

A
  1. At least 2 days prior to, but…

2. No earlier than 2 weeks prior to

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603
Q

Employee’s shall clear (provide verification for) their travel advances within how many days after their travel?

A

10 CALENDAR days

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604
Q

For employee’s with state-sponsored charge cards, within how many days of receiving the bill, shall they pay the bill in full?

A

30 days

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605
Q

Generally, all original receipts shall be furnished when seeking reimbursement over what amount?

A

$25

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606
Q

All original receipts shall be furnished when seeking reimbursement for continuous parking fees over what amount?

A

$10

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607
Q

All original receipts shall be furnished when seeking reimbursement for telephone, fax, or other business charges related to state business over what amount?

A

$5

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608
Q

All original receipts shall be furnished when seeking reimbursement for bridge and road tolls, streetcar, ferry, etc., fees over what amount?

A

$10

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609
Q

Can an employee use AirBnB to book short-term lodging?

A

Yes

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610
Q

Can an employee use Expedia, Travelocity, and/or Priceline to book short-term lodging?

A

No

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611
Q

When is an employee entitled to an incidental allowance while traveling?

A

For each full 24-hour period

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612
Q

When shall employee’s not claim lunch or incidentals on travel?

A

When travel is less than 24 hours

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613
Q

When an employee who is traveling on state business gets sick, up to how many sick days can a commander approve?

A

3 days max

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614
Q

When may an employee claim additional OT meals?

A

For each additional 6-hour period.

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615
Q

How many OT meals can be claimed in a 24-hour period?

A

3 max

616
Q

Under what circumstances would an employee be authorized to book a rental car for state related travel?

A
  1. When automobile travel is essential, and…

2. A state vehicle is not available

617
Q

While employees are generally not entitled to per diem (meal and lodging) expenses while they are in 50 miles of their home location (HQ), under what circumstances would they be entitled to one?

A

When they’re required to remain on duty at a specific location during a declared emergency.

618
Q

Employee’s who qualify for relocation status may claim relocation per diem allowances for a maximum of how many days?

A

60 days

619
Q

Generally, all INVOICES must be sent to FMS (HQ) within how many days of receipt?

A

3 days

620
Q

The Department does not automatically refund payments of how much, unless what?

A
  1. $5 or less, unless…

2. The customer requests a refund in WRITING

621
Q

Victims Compensation and Government Claims Board (VCGCB) forms are for claims against the Department in EXCESS of what monetary amount?

A

$1000

622
Q

When a citizen submits a Victims Compensation and Government Claims Board (VCGCB) form for claims against the Department in excess of $1000, what shall the area prepare and submit to ORM?

A

A CHP 268, Potential Civil Litigation Report

623
Q

Within how many months of the date of incident shall a citizen file a Victims Compensation and Government Claims Board (VCGCB) claim against the Department?

A

Within 6 months of the date of incident

624
Q

When a person is filing a claim against the Department for $1000 or less, what form shall they be provided with?

A

CHP 287, Claims of $1000 or less

625
Q

For property damage claims, when a citizen files a CHP 287, Claims of $1000 or less, against the Department, how many estimates should they normally be requested to provide for substantiation?

A

2

626
Q

Within how many months of the date of incident should a citizen file a CHP 287, Claims of $1000 or less, against the Department?

A

Within 6 months of the date of incident

**Under certain circumstances, the time frame may be extended for up to a year.

627
Q

What is the Expedited Claim Settlement Program?

A

A program that entitles local Areas to swiftly mitigate claims of $1000 or less when the Department is clearly liable for the damages.

628
Q

Although the Area has the authority to approve them, claims eligible for the Expedited Claim Settlement Program will be processed through who during normal business hours?

A

ORM

629
Q

A check issued to a citizen as a result of the Expedited Claim Settlement Program shall be provided to them within how many hours of it being issued?

A

As soon as practical, but in no case later than 24 hours.

630
Q

When properly served at the Area level, certified copies of records shall be provided within how many days after the receipt of a subpoena for any CRIMINAL action.

A

5 days

631
Q

When properly served at the Area level, certified copies of records shall be provided within how many days after the receipt of a subpoena for any CIVIL action.

A

15 days

632
Q

Records that contain personal or confidential information are not to be placed in waste receptacles for normal trash pickup unless they are what?

A

Cross-shredded

633
Q

What must the Department do when personal or confidential material is destroyed by a private company?

A

Witness the destruction

634
Q

If arrest logs are PRA’d, how many weeks of arrests shall be turned over?

A

1 week

635
Q

In regards to PRA’s, IF exempt records are WITHHELD, OR information is REDACTED, HOW and WHAT shall the requestor be notified of?

A
  1. Notified in WRITING, of…

2. The LEGAL BASIS why their request want not fulfilled in its entirety

636
Q

How can a member of the public submit a PRA request?

A
  1. In writing
  2. Over the phone
  3. In person
637
Q

Who shall fill out the CHP 370C, Public Records Act Request?

A

Departmental employee

638
Q

What information can the department NOT request from the requestor when they submit a PRA?

A
  1. Name

2. ID

639
Q

What PRA requests do not need prior approval from ORM before fulfilling?

A

Arrest logs

640
Q

PRA’s shall be responded to/fulfilled within how many days of receiving the request?

A

10 CALENDAR days

641
Q

In regards to PRA’s, in certain circumstances, the Department can extend the the 10-day response/fulfillment requirement by how many additional days?

A

14 additional days

**The extension letter shall be sent within the initial 10-day requirement.

642
Q

When a report is released to an arrestee at an Area office, what information shall be redacted?

A
  1. Home address of victims and witnesses

2. Telephone numbers of victims and witnesses

643
Q

WHEN is a juvenile arrest report releasable by PRA, and WHAT is it limited to?

A
  1. If they’re 14+ years old and have committed a SERIOUS felony
  2. Juveniles name and alleged offense(s)
644
Q

Water heaters shall be set at a maximum of what?

A

105 degrees

645
Q

Interior air (HVAC) shall not be heated above what?

A

68 degrees

646
Q

Interior air (HVAC) shall not be cooled below what?

A

78 degrees

647
Q

An earthquake ABOVE what magnitude, within how many MILES of the epicenter, requires an inspection of what at the Area?

A
  1. An earthquake 4.0 and above
  2. Within 50 miles of the epicenter
  3. Inspection of all lines, tanks, and monitoring systems for leaks and damage
648
Q

In cases involving the return of asset forfeiture funds, interest shall only be disbursed to the litigant under what circumstances?

A
  1. Upon their request, or…

2. Upon order of the court or local DA

649
Q

In regards to DUI reimbursement/cost recovery, what is a driver’s maximum liability?

A

$12,000

650
Q

Within how many days of receiving the BAC results/conviction information, shall the Area forward the CHP 735, Incident Response Reimbursement Statement, to FMS?

A

10 BUSINESS days

651
Q

The Department is required to pay invoices within how many days of receipt from the vendor?

A

45 days

652
Q

When shall a CHP 262, Travel Expense Claim, be submitted instead of an employee using CalATERS?

A
  1. Employee is assigned to a resident post or other office with no internet connectivity.
  2. Employee is in transition between commands.
  3. Internet connectivity issues exist due to power outages and/or other natural disasters.
  4. Employee is requesting reimbursement for relocation costs.
653
Q

In regards to classified materials, who determines the classification level?

A
  1. Owner, or..
  2. Author, or…
  3. Originator
654
Q

In regards to classified materials, what are the classification levels (CLeTSS)?

A
  1. Law Enforcement Sensitive
  2. Confidential
  3. Sensitive
  4. Secret
  5. Top Secret
655
Q

What shall PETTY CASH funds be used for?

A

For “minor” purchases (up to $50, excluding tax), necessary for the daily operation of the command.

656
Q

The total “CHANGE FUND” shall be limited to what?

A

$100

657
Q

The “PETTY CASH” fund shall be limited to what?

A

$200

658
Q

PETTY CASH purchases shall be limited to what dollar amount?

A

$50

659
Q

When a shortage of the Area’s cash fund is discovered, within how many days of discovery shall FMS be notified?

A

1 BUSINESS day

660
Q

In regards to the Cal-Card program, the approving official shall not be who?

A

The card-holder

661
Q

In regards to the Cal-Card program, the loss/theft of the card must be reported within how many HOURS so the Department’s LIABILITY is LIMITED to HOW MUCH?

A
  1. Reported within 48 hours, to…

2. Limit the Department’s liability to $50

662
Q

The Cal-Card program is the primary method for obtaining what?

A
  1. Office

2. Janitorial supplies

663
Q

In regards to the supply requisition schedule, EMERGENCY REQUISITIONS require who’s prior approval?

A

Appropriate AC

664
Q

In regards to the acquisition of items valued at less that $5000, how many price QUOTES are required to be obtained from RESPONSIBLE suppliers?

A

2

665
Q

Departmental owned equipment is classified under what 3 categories?

A
  1. Major
  2. Sensitive
  3. Minor
666
Q

In regards to departmental owned equipment, what is considered “MAJOR” equipment?

A

$5000 or MORE in value

667
Q

In regards to departmental owned equipment, what is considered “SENSITIVE” equipment?

A
  1. A value of LESS than $5000, and…

2. Requiring stringent accountability controls

668
Q

In regards to departmental owned equipment, what is considered “MINOR” equipment?

A
  1. A value of LESS than $5000, and…

2. NOT requiring stringent accountability controls

669
Q

In regards to departmental owned equipment, “MAJOR” and “SENSITIVE” equipment have what assigned to them for accountability/tracking controls?

A

CHP numbered decals

670
Q

In regards to departmental owned equipment, “MINOR” equipment has what assigned to it for accountability/tracking controls?

A

CHP unnumbered decals

671
Q

In regards to departmental owned equipment, “TAGS” are assigned to what for accountability/tracking controls?

A
  1. Items that have a normal useful life of 4 years, and…

2. Have a unit acquisition cost of AT LEAST $500

672
Q

How often is a commander required to conduct a physical inventory of all vehicles and equipment in their command?

A

Annually

673
Q

At the completion of an annual inventory, how shall a commander certify all items were inventoried?

A

CHP 51 (memo) to Division

674
Q

Missing/lost/stolen “R” numbered equipment shall be reported how often, to whom, and for how many consecutive inventory reporting cycles?

A
  1. Reported quarterly, to…
  2. Appropriate AC, for…
  3. 5 consecutive inventory reporting cycles
675
Q

Missing/lost/stolen “regular” numbered equipment shall be reported to whom, and for how many consecutive inventory reporting cycles?

A
  1. Reported to the appropriate AC, for…

2. 3 consecutive inventory reporting cycles

676
Q

Within how many days shall an Area’s annual physical inventory be completed?

A

60 days

677
Q

When changes are made to an Area’s inventory, who shall be notified and how shall they be notified?

A
  1. FMS, ICU shall be notified of changes, by…

2. A CHP 266, Credit Memo

678
Q

At who’s discretion is it to allow an employee to reimburse the Department for equipment that is lost or damaged?

A

Commander

679
Q

When an employee has to prepare a memo describing the state equipment that was lost or damaged, what shall not be disclosed in the memo?

A
  1. Employee’s name

2. ID#

680
Q

When an employee or the commander prepares a memo outlining either the circumstances surrounding the loss or theft of state owned equipment, or a description of the item, within how many days of notification of the incident shall it be prepared?

A

5 BUSINESS days

681
Q

An Area’s SHELF SUPPLY of forms shall not exceed how long?

A

6 months

682
Q

If an Area receives a shipment of new forms from HQ, forms OLDER THAN HOW LONG shall be destroyed?

A

1 year

683
Q

Who shall commands use as the PRIMARY shipping carrier for small parcels?

A

UPS; if they’re unavailable, FedEx can be used.

684
Q

When can a local common carrier be used to ship departmental freight?

A
  1. When it falls outside of UPS or FedEx requirements, and…
  2. It cannot be shipped via departmental transportation (CHP truck)
685
Q

Can a command keep a supply of temporary BADGES on hand?

A

No

686
Q

As far as command inspections go, typically what is the scope of all inspections?

A
  1. Typically, at least 10% of each item/category, with a minimum of 10 items/categories per process shall be inspected.
  2. If discrepancies are found, and additional 10%, or 10 items/categories shall be inspected.
  3. If more discrepancies are found, a full inventory shall be conducted.
687
Q

According to the Command Inspection manual, who is authorized to conduct an AUDIT?

A

A trained auditor

688
Q

According to the Command Inspection manual, who is authorized to conduct an INSPECTION?

A

Any member of the Department

689
Q

At minimum, how many CHAPTER INSPECTIONS shall be conducted each calendar year?

A

2

690
Q

The evidence/property room shall be secured with a what?

A

Deadbolt

691
Q

The 2 PILLARS of community outreach are what (PP)?

A
  1. Community partnerships

2. Problem solving

692
Q

The 5 PRINCIPALS of community outreach are (CRIPP)?

A
  1. Responsibility
  2. Public support
  3. Communication
  4. Problem solving
  5. Identification of traffic safety problems
693
Q

The application of what 5 things can be used to impact potential problems with traffic safety problems (4 E’s and a P)?

A
  1. Enforcement
  2. Education
  3. Engineering
  4. Expectations
  5. Partnerships
694
Q

In regards to community outreach, what are the 3 levels of developing trust with community residents (FOI)?

A
  1. Formally
  2. On the working level
  3. Informally
695
Q

In regards to community outreach, commanders are responsible for what?

A

Taking the initiative to develop, implement, and support viable community outreach/public relations programs.

696
Q

Who’s prior approval does an employee need to participate in parades, community organization celebrations, or advocacy events while on-duty?

A

Commander

697
Q

Who’s prior approval is needed to wear the uniforms, equipment, or any recognizable portions thereof, to any event while off-duty?

A

Commissioner

698
Q

The Right Turn Program is designed to reach what age group?

A

Middle school students, ages 11 to 14.

699
Q

The Smart Start Program is designed to reach who?

A

Teenagers, ages 15-19, and their parents.

700
Q

What are the limitations on the creation of supplemental CHP 415’s?

A
  1. No limitation on the number of supplemental documents that can be created, but…
  2. The total number of hours cannot exceed 24 hours
701
Q

A minimum of how many minutes may be taken off and charged to CTO?

A

15 minutes

702
Q

A minimum of how many minutes may be charged to “dock”?

A

6 minutes

703
Q

A minimum of how many minutes may be charged to “AWOL”?

A

6 minutes

704
Q

Informal Time Off can only be burned in increments of what?

A

4 hours

705
Q

The OT “total Activity” must equal, within how many minutes, the OT minus standby, call back, and reimbursable non-worked hours?

A

5 minutes

706
Q

All commands shall conduct or participate in how many emergency preparedness drills annually?

A

At least 2

707
Q

What are the 3 types of emergency proclamations?

A
  1. Local emergency
  2. State of emergency
  3. War emergency
708
Q

According to OES, what are the 5 levels of emergency response (FLORS)?

A
  1. Field response level
  2. Local government level
  3. Operational area level
  4. Regional level
  5. State level
709
Q

What does NIMS stand for?

A

National Incident Management System

710
Q

What does SEMS stand for?

A

Standardized Emergency Management System

711
Q

NIMS and SEMS require the use of what at the field response level for all incidents?

A

ICS

712
Q

What should be the maximum the “span-of-control” for CHP ICS operations be?

A

1 to 8 (1 sergeant to 8 officers)

713
Q

As a rule, what is the “optimum” span-of-control for CH ICS operations?

A

1 to 5 (1 sergeant to 5 officers)

714
Q

What are the 5 basic ICS functions (FLOP-C)?

A
  1. Finance
  2. Logistics
  3. Operations
  4. Planning and intelligence
  5. Command
715
Q

Outside of approved mutual aid requests for assistance, what calls shall CHP personnel respond to?

A
  1. Officer needs assistance

2. Emergency traffic assistance

716
Q

When would it be necessary to initiate a tactical alert?

A

When one command needs to alert other commands that an event is occurring, or may occur, which may exceed the originating command’s resources.

717
Q

Who may initiate a tactical alert?

A
  1. On-duty supervisor, or…

2. OIC

718
Q

What are the 5 types of plans the Departments uses to prepare for, respond to, and mitigate anticipated or actual emergency incidents?

A
  1. EOP
  2. IAP
  3. OP
  4. 72-hour self sufficient operations plan
  5. EAP
719
Q

In regards to emergency and event planning, what is an EOP used for?

A

Preparedness documented intended to be read and understood PRIOR to an emergency incident.

720
Q

In regards to emergency and event planning, what is an IAP used for?

A

Written or verbal plan determined necessary by the IC to mitigate an EXISTING emergency incident.

721
Q

In regards to emergency and event planning, what is an OP used for?

A

Used for one SCHEDULED or ANTICIPATED event requiring non-routine deployment of CHP personnel.

722
Q

In regards to emergency and event planning, what is a 72-hour self sufficient operations plan used for?

A

Works under the assumption that operational assistance will not be available for 72 hours following a major disaster.

723
Q

In regards to emergency and event planning, what is an EAP used for?

A

A facility-specific plan designed to assist employees with planning for and responding to an emergency AT THEIR HEADQUARTERS.

724
Q

In regards to emergency incident reporting and documentation, when would it be appropriate to complete an after action MEMO?

A
  1. CHP personnel respond to an emergency incident within their Division, or…
  2. Division/Area commander participates in an emergency exercise.
725
Q

In regards to emergency incident reporting and documentation, when would it be appropriate to complete an after action REPORT?

A

At the conclusion of a tactical alert

726
Q

Within how many days of the conclusion of a localized emergency operation shall the after action MEMO be submitted to Division?

A

30 CALENDAR days

727
Q

Within how many days of the conclusion of a tactical alert shall the after action REPORT be submitted to Division?

A

60 CALENDAR days

728
Q

In regards to emergency incident reporting and documentation, an after action MEMO shall be divided into what 3 sections (FOI)?

A
  1. Incident summary
  2. Financial summary
  3. Operational critique
729
Q

A mobile field force is comprised of how many personnel?

A
  1. A minimum of 52 people, and…

2. 14 general purpose patrol vehicles

730
Q

When are agencies allowed to exceed the minimum number of 52 people to form a mobile field force?

A

When it’s agreed up DURING the request process

731
Q

Generally, what percentage of available on-duty personnel will accommodate a mutual aid request?

A

50%

732
Q

In regards to civil disturbances, when deployed in a tactical formation, the STANDARD holding position of the baton should be what?

A

The long extended holding position

733
Q

In regards to civil disturbances, when confronting PASSIVE RESISTERS, generally, the standard holding position of the baton should be what?

A
  1. Secured in the ring, or…

2. Basic tuck position

734
Q

In regards to civil disturbances, when confronting ACTIVE RESISTERS, generally, the standard holding position of the baton should be what?

A

The long extended holding position

735
Q

In regards to civil disturbances, prior to utilizing pain compliance through control holds to disentangle demonstrators, what shall be given?

A

A lawful order to disperse

736
Q

In regards to civil disturbances, when confronting ASSAULTIVE RESISTERS, generally, the standard holding position of the baton should be what?

A

The long extended holding position

737
Q

In regards to tactical formations and mobile tactics, a SQUAD is normally comprised of what?

A
  1. 1 sergeant

2. 11 officers

738
Q

In regards to tactical formations and mobile tactics, a PLATOON is normally comprised of what?

A
  1. 2-3 squads

2. 1 lieutenant

739
Q

In regards to tactical formations and mobile tactics, a COMPANY is normally comprised of what?

A
  1. Minimum of 4 squads
  2. 2 lieutenants
  3. 1 commander
740
Q

In regards to tactical formations and mobile tactics, a BATTALION is normally comprised of what?

A
  1. 2+ companies
  2. 1 commander
  3. 1 assistant chief or higher
741
Q

What are the 5 tactical formations (SEL-CC)?

A
  1. Column of files
  2. Line formation
  3. Encirclement
  4. Separation
  5. Crossbow
742
Q

During a civil disturbance, if a person between the ages of 12-17 is NOT arrested, but in the company of an adult who is, what may happen to them?

A

They may be released to a responsible adult provided the parent or guardian gives WRITTEN consent.

743
Q

During a civil disturbance, if a person under the age of 12 is NOT arrested, but in the company of an adult who is, what shall happen to them?

A

The shall be transported to a CPS facility or released to a CPS agency rep.

744
Q

What training is required to be completed before a person can perform the duties of a grenadier during a civil disturbance?

A
  1. Chemical Agents/Specialty Munitions Familiarization course, and…
  2. Annual Grenadier Training Course
745
Q

If chemical agents and/or specialty weapons are deployed during a civil disturbance, how shall it be documented?

A
  1. In the after-action report/memo, and…

2. On all applicable departmental forms/programs

746
Q

The primary mission of the SRT is what?

A

To maintain safety and security for all, including those expressing their 1st Amendment rights.

747
Q

Each SRT should strive for a response time of what, to get to their pre-determined staging area?

A

2 hours

748
Q

SRT will normally be comprised of what?

A
  1. 5 squads
  2. 1 grenadier squad
  3. Support squad
749
Q

For employees interested in joining SRT, who shall they submit a memo to?

A

Area commander

750
Q

Assignments to, and removal from SRT, will be at who’s discretion?

A

Division commander

751
Q

Selection as an SRT grenadier requires who’s approval and/or recommendation?

A
  1. Area commander
  2. Grenadier sergeant
  3. SRT and Division commanders
752
Q

SRT grenadiers are authorized to deploy what specialty weapons?

A
  1. 12-gauge shotgun with kinetic energy munitions
  2. 37mm launcher
  3. 40mm launcher
  4. Tactical smoke
753
Q

When, and against whom, are target specific (i.e. 12-gauge shotgun with kinetic energy munitions and 40mm launcher) specialty weapons, authorized to be used?

A
  1. Only authorized to be deployed against a DIRECT THREAT, when…
  2. Grenadier has a clear unobstructed target and is reasonably sure innocent bystanders will not be struck.
754
Q

During a SRT deployment, who’s approval is needed prior to deploying chemical agents?

A

On-scene SRT manager, unless deadly force is authorized.

755
Q

In regards to SRT, an Disentanglement Team is comprised of what?

A
  1. 1 team leader; sergeant
  2. 7 team members; officers
  3. 3 alternates; 1 sergeant and 2 officers
756
Q

What are the 3 basic types of evidence?

A
  1. Testimonial
  2. Documentary
  3. Physical
757
Q

Controlled substances (related to a single case), in excess of what, may be destroyed without a court order?

A

10 pounds

758
Q

In regards to evidence, packages containing controlled substances and money shall be sealed with what?

A

Blue sensitive item serialized evidence tape strips

759
Q

When evidence is booked incorrectly, what shall the evidence officer do upon returning it to the booking officer?

A

Send an email with instructions to the booking officer and their supervisor

760
Q

When booking evidence that requires the use of blue sensitive item serialized evidence tape strips, where shall the tapes serial number be noted?

A

In the evidence management software system

761
Q

Drugs with a street value of what amount, or greater, shall not be stored in a temporary storage locker?

A

$10,000

762
Q

How shall nylon tie, flex-cuffs, be looped through semi-automatic firearms when they are booked into evidence?

A

Looped through the magazine well and out through the ejection port.

763
Q

How shall nylon tie, flex-cuffs, be looped through revolvers when they are booked into evidence?

A

Looped through the cylinder and trigger guard.

764
Q

What 6 purposes does a CHP 36 serve?

A
  1. Record
  2. Receipt
  3. Report
  4. Notice
  5. Declaration
  6. Affidavit
765
Q

CHP 36 forms shall be retained for how long?

A

The life of the evidence, plus 5 years.

766
Q

The DOJ APS system is primarily used for what?

A

Tracking stolen, lost, and found serialized property.

767
Q

The DOJ AFS system is used for what?

A

Tracking all FIREARMS and CEW’s coming into the possession of the Department, whether found, seized as evidence, or held for safekeeping.

768
Q

The case status on misdemeanor/infraction evidence shall be checked when?

A

After 6 months

769
Q

The case status on felony evidence shall be checked when?

A

1 year after booking, and every year thereafter

770
Q

In the event the appropriate prosecutor declines to file a case, the evidence shall be disposed of how many days after the date of arrest?

A

90 days

771
Q

Within how many days of receiving the adjudication records, shall the court officer forward them to the evidence officer?

A

2 days

772
Q

In the event a suspect is NOT known, there is no reasonable chance they’ll be identified, and no further investigation will be conducted, what may happen to the associated case evidence?

A

It may be disposed of with the concurrence of the investigating officer and a supervisor.

773
Q

In regards to cases pending adjudication, when the case involves an offense which is punishable by death, or involves the embezzlement of public money or falsification of public documents, how long shall the evidence be held for?

A

Indefinitely

774
Q

In regards to cases pending adjudication, when the case involves felony sexual offenses, how long shall the evidence be held for?

A

10 years

775
Q

In regards to cases pending adjudication, when the case involves offenses punishable by imprisonment for 8+ years, how long shall the evidence be held for?

A

6 years

776
Q

In regards to cases pending adjudication, when the case involves 386 PC felonies (theft and abuse of elders), how long shall the evidence be held for?

A

5 years

777
Q

In regards to cases pending adjudication, when the case involves offenses punishable by imprisonment in state prison, how long shall the evidence be held for?

A

3 years

778
Q

In regards to cases pending adjudication, when the case involves misdemeanor/infractions offenses (except 647.6 PC and 729 BP), how long shall the evidence be held for?

A

1 year

779
Q

How long shall evidence from threshold incidents be retained for?

A

At least 10 years

780
Q

In regards to adjudicated cases, felony evidence shall continue to be held for how many days, until the period of appeals has expired?

A

90 days

781
Q

In regards to adjudicated cases, misdemeanor evidence shall continue to be held for how many days, until the period of appeals has expired?

A

60 days

782
Q

In regards to adjudicated cases, evidence from juvenile cases shall continue to be held for how many days, until the period of appeals has expired?

A

90 days

783
Q

In regards to evidence, what are the 8 approved methods of evidence disposal?

A
  1. Return to owner/finder
  2. Recycle
  3. Sale or auction
  4. Departmental use
  5. Donations to charity
  6. Destruction
  7. Discard; items of little or no value
  8. Other claims of ownership; civil, pawn, insurance company
784
Q

All firearms shall be held locally for how many days prior to disposal?

A

180 days

785
Q

Lost/found property shall be held for how many days prior to disposal?

A

90 days

786
Q

Property, with a KNOWN owner, shall be held for how many days prior to disposal?

A

60 days

787
Q

In regards to found property, if the value of the property is LESS than $250 and remains unclaimed after 90 days, what may happen?

A

It may be given to the finder.

788
Q

In regards to found property, if the value of the property is MORE than $250 and remains unclaimed after 90 days, what must happen?

A
  1. The evidence officer must place an ad describing the property in a local newspaper for 1 day.
  2. If the item is still unclaimed after 7 days from the date of public notice, it shall be given to the finder after payment for the ad cost.
789
Q

How long is the Department required to hold property if the owner informs us they cannot pick up the property within the 60 day time frame?

A

An additional 10 months (totaling, but NOT exceeding 12 months).

790
Q

What is required prior to the destruction of controlled substances?

A

A court order

791
Q

If the Department confiscated someones firearm per a 5150 WI hold, and the person is released from the facility and informs the Department of their desire to retrieve their firearm, how long does the Department have to file a petition with the court for a hearing to determine whether the return of the the firearm would be likely to result in endangering the person or others?

A

30 days

792
Q

Weapons seized out of DV incidents shall be held for at least how long?

A

48 hours

793
Q

With the exception of cases where the Department believes returning a firearm to a DV suspect would likely endanger the victim or person reporting the assault or threat, firearms sized out of DV incidents shall be returned to the owner within how many days of the seizure?

A

5 BUSINESS days

794
Q

In the event the Department wants to appeal a court ordered release of a weapon (for crimes not related to 5150 WI), within how many days of learning of the owners intention to retrieve the weapon, shall the commander request a hearing/appeal with the judge who issued the order?

A

10 days

795
Q

INSPECTIONS of the property (evidence) system shall be conducted how often?

A

Quarterly

796
Q

How many unscheduled (unannounced) inspections of the property (evidence) system shall the commander conduct per calendar year?

A

At least one

797
Q

INVENTORIES of the property (evidence) system shall be conducted how often?

A

Annually

798
Q

When shall a property (evidence) INVENTORY be conducted?

A
  1. Change of command
  2. Change of property officer(s)
  3. Any time there is doubt as to the integrity of the system
799
Q

In addition to conducting a 100% INVENTORY, whenever a change of property (evidence) officer(s) occurs, what shall happen?

A

The locks shall be changed

800
Q

When a vehicle is towed for evidence, and a CHP 36 is completed, how, and where, shall the “chain of custody” portion of the CHP 36 form be placed?

A
  1. It shall be placed in a plastic CHP evidence bag, and…

2. Placed in a conspicuous location within the vehicle

801
Q

When a vehicle is towed for evidence, within how many hours shall the evidence officer notify the local DA of the impound?

A

72 hours

802
Q

In addition to notifying the local DA of an evidence vehicle impound within 72 hours, what else shall the DA be notified of?

A

Whether there was an in-custody arrest or no arrest made

803
Q

When a vehicle impounded for evidence is no longer needed as evidence, how shall the Department notify the R/O or L/O?

A
  1. In writing, by…

2. CERTIFIED mail, return receipt requested

804
Q

In regards to DUI, what are the 3 phases of detection and evaluation of drivers?

A
  1. Phase one - vehicle in motion
  2. Phase two - personal contact
  3. Phase three - pre arrest screening
805
Q

What the the 3 standardized FST’s?

A
  1. HGN
  2. Walk and Turn
  3. One-leg stand
806
Q

When using the 3 standardized FST’s to evaluate a driver, what is the reliability rate for identifying drivers “at or above” the legal BAC limit?

A

90%

807
Q

How many validated clues are there in HGN?

A

6

808
Q

How many validated clues are there in the Walk and Turn?

A

8

809
Q

How many validated clues are there in the One-leg stand?

A

4

810
Q

When a subject is arrested for an alcohol or drug DUI, and an Admin Per Se (APS) action is not applicable (i.e. BAC below .08 if the are 21+ years old, and/or the subject submits to a chemical test), what are the only things that should be forwarded to the DMV?

A
  1. 1st and 2nd page of the DS 367 or DS 367M,

2. Copy of the relevant report

811
Q

When a subject is arrested for an alcohol or drug DUI, and an Admin Per Se (APS) action is not applicable (i.e. BAC below .08 if the are 21+ years old, and/or the subject submits to a chemical test), what happens to the CA DL and/or the pink copy of the DS 367 or DS 367M?

A
  1. The DL shall not be confiscated

2. The pink copy shall not be served

812
Q

When an officer contacts a commercial driver with a BAC of .01, but less than .04, what shall they do?

A
  1. Issue the driver a CHP 215 for 34506.3 CVC
  2. Order the driver out-of-service for 24-hours
  3. Make a notation in the log book
813
Q

When do Admin Per Se requirements apply to commercial drivers?

A

BAC of .04 or greater.

814
Q

What is 23136 CVC?

A

It’s unlawful for a person under the age of 21, who has a BAC of .01 or greater (measured by a PAS or other chemical test), to drive a vehicle.

815
Q

What is 23140 CVC?

A

It’s unlawful for a person under the age of 21, who has a BAC of .05+ (measured by a PAS or other chemical test), to drive a vehicle.

816
Q

What is 23154 CVC?

A

It’s unlawful for a person on DUI probation, who has a BAC of .01+ (measured by PAS or other chemical test), to drive a vehicle.

817
Q

CVC’s 23136, 23140, and 23154, are punishable as what?

A

Infractions

818
Q

CVC’s 23136, 23140, and 23154, shall only be enforced when the violations are corroborated by what?

A
  1. PAS, or…

2. Chemical test

819
Q

40300.5 CVC is not applicable to what violations?

A
  1. CVC 23136
  2. CVC 23140
  3. CVC 23154
820
Q

What is 23550 CVC?

A

Makes a CONVICTION for 23152 CVC punishable as a felony, IF the offense occurs within 10 years of 3+ DUI related convictions.

821
Q

What is 23550.5 CVC?

A

Makes a DUI conviction occurring within 10 years of a PRIOR FELONY DUI conviction, or anytime after a specified vehicular manslaughter conviction, punishable as a FELONY.

822
Q

While 40300.5 CVC applies to 21200 CVC (bicycle DUI), what does NOT apply in this situation?

A

13353 CVC, Refusal of chemical tests.

823
Q

What is 21200 CVC?

A

Bicycle DUI

824
Q

In regards to APS hearings, chemical test results shall be forwarded to the DMV within how many days of receipt?

A

15 CALENDAR days

825
Q

In regards to APS, are CA DL’s confiscated when the driver is arrested for a drug DUI?

A

No

826
Q

When are PAS accuracy checks conducted?

A
  1. Every 10 calendar days, or…
  2. 150 tests

**Whichever comes first

827
Q

Prior to conducting a sobriety checkpoint, within how many weeks of the event shall the Area submit the operations plan to Division?

A

1 week

828
Q

While operating a checkpoint, employees shall wear what while in public view?

A
  1. Full uniform, including…

2. Campaign hat

829
Q

Sobriety checkpoints should normally run for how many hours?

A

4-6

830
Q

At the completion of each sobriety checkpoint, within how many hours are Areas required to send the applicable paperwork to Division?

A

48 hours

831
Q

In regards to sobriety checkpoints, how many hours PRIOR TO the operation are Areas required to provide a printed news release?

A

48 hours

832
Q

In regards to sobriety checkpoints, specific checkpoint locations shall not be released sooner than how many hours prior to the operation?

A

2 hours

833
Q

In regards to sobriety checkpoints, how many warning signs shall be used when setting up the operation?

A

At least 6

834
Q

In regards to Boating Under the Influence arrests, a CHP officer’s probable cause to arrest a subject may be based solely on what?

A

Information obtained from a commissioned, warrant, or petty officer of the US Coast Guard who directly observed the offense.

835
Q

What 4 modes does the Explorer Program simultaneously operate in (SOFT)?

A
  1. Training
  2. Operational support
  3. Fundraising
  4. Social
836
Q

Level 1 Explorer training is comprised of what?

A

48-hour curriculum conducted at the area level; required for ride-a-longs.

837
Q

Level 2 Explorer training is comprised of what?

A

16-hour block dedicated to CPR and first-aid, at the area level.

838
Q

Level 3 Explorer training is comprised of what?

A

7-day, live-in Academy; held annually during the summer.

839
Q

Level 4 Explorer training is comprised of what?

A

6-day, live-in Academy; designed as the final component in preparation for Explorers transitioning to Cadet.

840
Q

Donations received by the Explorer post shall be deposited into the post account within how many hours of receipt?

A

72 hours

841
Q

In regards to the Explorer Program, what position does the Area Commander hold in the organizational chart?

A

The commander chairs the Advisory Committee for the post.

842
Q

In regards to the Explorer Program, the Area Commander is responsible for appointing who?

A
  1. A post coordinator, and…

2. A post advisor

843
Q

In regards to the Explorer Program, the Area shall have how many post advisors?

A

1

844
Q

In regards to the Explorer Program, the post coordinator shall be at least what rank?

A

Sergeant or above

845
Q

In regards to the Explorer Program, who can serve as Associate Post Advisors?

A

Anyone approved by the Area Commander, who is at least 21 years old, and who has registered with Learning for Life.

846
Q

In regards to the Explorer Program, what are the requirements to be an Explorer?

A
  1. 15-21 years old; age out at 21
  2. No felony arrests or convictions
  3. Minimum 2.0 GPA
  4. In good standing with work, family, and school
847
Q

In regards to the Explorer Program, what are the limits on a suspension and who’s concurrence is needed?

A
  1. The concurrence of the Area commander is needed

2. The suspension shall not exceed 6 months

848
Q

In regards to the Explorer Program, who’s authorization is needed for the disbursement of funds in excess of $1,000?

A

Area Commander

849
Q

In regards to the Explorer Program, who’s authorization is needed for the disbursement of funds in excess of $5,000?

A

Division Commander

850
Q

In regards to the Explorer Program, who’s authorization is needed for the disbursement of funds in excess of $10,000?

A

Board of Directors

851
Q

In regards to the Explorer Program, what are the advisor requirements when taking the Explorers on trips or outings?

A
  1. 2 leaders, at least 21 years or older, are required on all trips or outings.
  2. If male and female Explorers are present, the advisors shall be male and female.
852
Q

In regards to the Explorer program, who’s authorization is needed to take the Explorers on LOCAL trips or outings within the Division?

A

Area Commander

853
Q

In regards to the Explorer program, who’s authorization is needed to take the Explorers on out-of-state trips or outings?

A
  1. The appropriate AC, and…

2. Commissioner

854
Q

In regards to the Explorer Program, what shall be obtained prior to conducting travel UNDER 500 miles?

A

A Learning for Life LOCAL outing permit

855
Q

In regards to the Explorer Program, what shall be obtained prior to conducting travel OVER 500 miles?

A

A NATIONAL outing permit

856
Q

In regards to the Explorer Program, Explorers shall not operate marked patrol vehicles in public view unless what?

A
  1. It’s during authorized competitions, and…

2. Prior approval has been approved through the Board of Directors

857
Q

In regards to the Explorer Program, uniform inspections shall be conducted how often?

A

Annually

858
Q

What court case has been used to establish the legal standard regarding the use of force?

A

Graham vs. Connor

859
Q

According to Graham vs. Connor, “the reasonableness of a particular use of force…” must be judged from what?

A

“…The perspective of a reasonable officer on the scene, rather than with the 20/20 vision on hindsight…”

860
Q

An officer is authorized to use deadly force when?

A
  1. Defend themselves or other from an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury.
  2. Apprehension of a person reasonably believed to have committed a felony involving the use or threatened use of deadly force; except for a vehicle ADW.
  3. Apprehension of a person who has committed a vehicle ADW and it’s reasonably believed it resulted in serious injury or death.
861
Q

What are the 7 use of force options (BALD-PEC)?

A
  1. Control holds
  2. Aerosol subject restraint
  3. Baton
  4. Electronic control device (CEW)
  5. Less-lethal shotgun
  6. Personal weapons
  7. Deadly force
862
Q

Whenever a firearm, baton, aerosol subject restraint, personal weapon, or other defensive instrument is used in an enforcement situation, what CHP document shall be completed?

A

A CHP 268, Potential Civil Litigation Report

863
Q

When the use of a control hold or handcuffs on an individual results in an apparent, complaint, or subsequent claim, of injury, what CHP document shall be completed?

A

A CHP 268, Potential Civil Litigation Report

864
Q

When high-risk or felony procedures are used and the subject is later found to be an innocent party, what CHP document shall be completed?

A

A CHP 268, Potential Civil Litigation Report

865
Q

Under what 2 circumstances would an officers be justified in placing their finger on the trigger of their firearm when displayed?

A
  1. When actually firing the firearm

2. When the firearm is pointed at an identified target and the use of deadly force is justified

866
Q

When is an officer justified in firing warning shots?

A
  1. Under the same circumstances where the use of deadly force is justified, and…
  2. It’s not likely to endanger innocent persons
867
Q

The departmental shooting policy shall be reviewed when, and by who?

A
  1. Quarterly

2. By everyone at the rank of sergeant and below

868
Q

When conducting a standard enforcement stop, the desired minimum stopping behind the violators vehicle is what?

A

10 feet

869
Q

When conducting a felony enforcement stop, the desired minimum stopping behind the violators vehicle is what?

A

30 feet

870
Q

21055 CVC grants operators of authorized emergency vehicles exemptions to the rules of the road when the vehicle displays a red light visible to the front and the siren is activated as reasonably necessary in conjunction with one or more of what 4 things?

A
  1. Response to an emergency call
  2. While engaged in rescue operations
  3. In the immediate pursuit of an actual or suspected violator of the law
  4. In response to, but not returning from, a fire alarm.
871
Q

What are the 6 legal intervention/forcible stop options?

A
  1. Channelization
  2. Roadblocks
  3. Ramming/PIT
  4. Hollow-spike strip
  5. Boxing-in
  6. Use of firearms
872
Q

The departmental pursuit policy shall be reviewed when, and by who?

A
  1. Quarterly

2. By everyone at the rank of sergeant and below

873
Q

How is the firearm displayed, and what is the finger placement during a “HIGH RISK” stop?

A
  1. Firearms displayed at the “LOW READY” position

2. Finger OFF the trigger

874
Q

How is the firearm displayed, and what is the finger placement during a “FELONY” stop?

A
  1. Firearms displayed at the “READY” position, pointed at the subject
  2. Finger OFF the trigger
875
Q

During officer safety training and certification exercises, the commander shall ensure the ratio of instructors to officers is what?

A

1 to 10 (1 instructor to 10 officers)

876
Q

What are the 2 approved methods of misdemeanor control holds?

A
  1. Twist lock

2. Bent wrist

877
Q

What are the 2 approved arrest techniques for misdemeanors?

A
  1. Standing/kneeling twist lock

2. Bent wrist

878
Q

What are the 2 approved arrest techniques for felonies?

A
  1. Kneeling twist lock

2. Prone hand switch or step over

879
Q

In the rare event a stip/body cavity search is required, what shall be obtained PRIOR to conducting?

A

WRITTEN authorization from the on-duty supervisor

880
Q

What is the optimal deployment range for the less-lethal shotgun?

A

5-60 feet

881
Q

The ECD/CEW holster shall only be placed on the duty belt in what one of two places?

A
  1. On support side

2. On primary side, IN FRONT OF primary duty pistol holster

882
Q

What is the optimum deployment range for the ECD/CEW?

A

7-15 feet

883
Q

What is the maximum effective deployment range for the ECD/CEW?

A

25 feet

884
Q

What is the minimum effective deployment range for the ECD/CEW?

A

0 inches

885
Q

ECD’s/CEW’s shall be downloaded how often, and the records shall be retained for how long?

A
  1. ECD’s/CEW’s shall be downloaded each month

2. Records shall be retained for the life of the device PLUS 10 years

886
Q

In regards to K-9 officers, when utilizing a “dual purpose” K-9, at minimum, how many verbal warning should be given prior to releasing the K-9?

A

2

887
Q

In regards to K-9 officers, when utilizing a “dual purpose” K-9 to locate a juvenile suspect, who’s approval is required to be obtained PRIOR utilizing the K-9?

A
  1. The field supervisor, and/or…

2. The K-9 team supervisor

888
Q

In regards to the firearm policy, what are officers required to have when traveling in marked patrol vehicles, regardless of destination or attire?

A

Their primary firearm

889
Q

Under what circumstances would an officer be authorized to only carry their secondary weapon in lieu of their primary firearm.

A

When they are traveling to, during, and returning from court in civilian attire, in a privately owned vehicle.

890
Q

When authorized to fly arm, what shall uniformed employees carry in conjunction with their badge?

A
  1. Their ID card with “POLICE” printed on the front

2. DL

891
Q

Uniformed employees who have to fly armed are prohibited from consuming alcohol for how many hours prior to flying?

A

8 hours

892
Q

Prior to flying armed, uniformed employees shall obtain what from the TSA?

A

2 alphanumeric identifiers (1 for departure and 1 for return)

893
Q

In regards to shooting qualification and training, how many primary firearm shoots shall uniformed employees have per year?

A

12

894
Q

In regards to shooting qualification and training, of the 12 required annual shoots, how many are required to be conducted during the hours of darkness?

A

2

895
Q

In regards to shooting qualification and training, of the 12 required annual shoots, how many are required to incorporate tactical movement during the shoot?

A

1

896
Q

For employees who have been involved in shooting incidents, what are they required to obtain prior to retuning to full duty?

A

A qualifying score on the TOQC - Primary Firearm

897
Q

Uniformed employees are required to qualify with the primary firearm how often?

A

Annually

898
Q

How many SHOTGUN rounds shall be fired by officers and sergeants QUARTERLY?

A

18

899
Q

Sergeants and officers are required to qualify with the SHOTGUN how often?

A

2 times per year

900
Q

How many RIFLE rounds shall be fired by officers and sergeants QUARTERLY?

A

60

901
Q

Sergeants and officers are required to qualify with the RIFLE how often?

A

2 times per year

902
Q

In regards to shooting qualification and training, how many rifle practice shoots shall be held per year?

A
  1. At least 2, with…

2. 1 being required to happen during the hours of darkness

903
Q

While employees who are off duty for 3+ months may be exempt from making up all required shoots, what shall they complete prior to returning to duty?

A

A qualification course with a qualifying score

904
Q

An employee shall not expend over how many rounds in any single training session?

A

100

905
Q

Black bottom magazines shall be used in how many training sessions per year?

A

At least 1

906
Q

Each command shall maintain a spare supply of duty magazines equal to what % of the uniformed command?

A

5%

907
Q

How often shall departmental pistols be completely disassembled by the Area’s certified weapons inspection officer?

A

Once yearly

908
Q

Approximately how long after the Area’s certified weapons inspection officer completely disassembles the pistol, shall second “field strip” inspection take place?

A

Approximately 6 months after

909
Q

Departmental shotguns shall be inspected and cleaned how often?

A

Quarterly

910
Q

Departmental rifles shall be inspected and cleaned how often?

A

Quarterly

911
Q

In regards to carrying personally owned rifled magazines while on-duty, how many can an employee carry and what is the round capacity?

A
  1. An employee can carry up to 2 magazines

2. 20-round capacity

912
Q

In regards to “modified training firearms”, how are they distinctively marked?

A
  1. Grips painted red

2. Barrel ends are painted red

913
Q

In regards to “modified training shotguns”, how are they distinctively marked?

A
  1. Butt stock painted red

2. Fore-end are painted red

914
Q

Who may be authorized to purchase their primary firearm upon separation from the Department?

A
  1. Those who retire honorably after 120 months of service

2. Those who disability retire (unrelated to mental or emotional disorder)

915
Q

Within how many days of their effective retirement date shall an employee inform the Department of their intention to purchase their primary firearm?

A

30 CALENDAR days

916
Q

Within how many days of a line of duty death, shall the spouse/domestic partner of the deceased, inform the Area commander in writing of their desire to purchase the primary firearm?

A

30 days

917
Q

How many less-lethal rounds shall be fired by employees annually?

A

2

918
Q

When using Non-Lethal Training Ammunition during scenarios, a minimum of how many training instructors shall be present?

A

2

919
Q

In regards to the motor program, an employee is not eligible for motor training if their most recent CHP 118 or CHP 118S reflects what?

A

A rating of substandard in any critical task

920
Q

In regards to the motor program, applicants who fail to complete the training program (motor school) due to lack of riding skills must wait a minimum of how long before returning?

A

6 months

921
Q

In regards to the motor program, commanders are discouraged from sending applicant back to motor school after how many unsuccessful attempts?

A

3

922
Q

In regards to the motor program, candidates will be denied training if their weight (in full uniform) exceeds what?

A

The motorcycle manufacturers gross vehicle weight rating of any motorcycle currently used by the Department.

923
Q

In regards to the motor program, mow many pounds must candidates be able to properly lift?

A

Approximately 700-850 pounds

924
Q

In regards to the motor program, while candidates are sitting astride on the motorcycle, they must be able to back the motorcycle up what?

A

A 6% grade for a distance of at least 3 feet

925
Q

In regards to the motor program, what is a Category 1 rider?

A

One who is presently capable of performing motorcycle enforcement duty.

926
Q

In regards to the motor program, what is a Category 2 rider?

A

One who is on a 1-year probationary period; will be assigned a CMTO for a 240-hour training period upon completing motor school.

927
Q

In regards to the motor program, what is a Category 3 rider?

A

One who does not meet riding standards or physical requirements; shall not be assigned to motorcycle enforcement duty.

928
Q

In regards to the motor program, when does a Category 2 rider attain Category 1 status?

A

When they are assigned to permanent motorcycle and have worked a minimum of 1,680 hours during the 1-year probationary period.

929
Q

In regards to the motor program, new riders should complete their 240-hours CMTO training within how many days after graduating motor school?

A

Within 60 days from the first day of the pay period following completion of motor school.

930
Q

In regards to the motor program, when new riders with previous departmental riding time are authorized to have their 240-hour CMTO period shortened, the new CMTO period shall not be less than how many hours?

A

160 hours

931
Q

In regards to the motor program, what are the 4 ways of rider can be removed from motorcycle duty?

A
  1. Voluntary
  2. Involuntary
  3. Temporary re-assignment
  4. Motorcycle reduction
932
Q

In regards to the the motor program, within how many days of a collision involving a departmental motorcycle shall the applicable reports be forwarded to the Academy?

A

10 days

933
Q

In regards to the motor program, the sergeant and/or lieutenant shall inspect the motorcycles at a minimum of what?

A

Once per month

934
Q

In regards to the motor program, Area Commanders shall conduct a physical inspection of what, when what takes place?

A
  1. The employee’s storage facility (garage), whenever…
  2. A rider is newly assigned, or…
  3. A change of residence is made
935
Q

In regards to the motor program, at least how many days shall pass between the next required inspection by a supervisor?

A

20 days

936
Q

The maximum travel distance from residence to work for non-command employees using a state motorcycle shall not exceed what?

A

50 miles

937
Q

In regards to the motor program, Areas shall have how many CMTO’s?

A

At least 1

938
Q

In regards to the Senior Volunteer Program, when volunteer’s are suspended, what are the limitations?

A

They shall not be suspended for more than 10 WORK days

939
Q

In regards to the flag policy, when may flags be flown 24 hours a day?

A
  1. When they are properly illuminated during the hours of darkness, and…
  2. The office is occupied
940
Q

In addition to the Colors (US Flag) and the CA State flag, what other flags may be displayed at departmental facilities?

A
  1. CHP flag
  2. POW/MIA flag
  3. Service flag (Blue Star flag)
941
Q

What is the only authorized flag that can be used at the scene of a line-of-duty death?

A

The 5 x 7 1/2 foot cotton California “Bear” Flag

942
Q

In regards to the flag policy, no more than how many flags shall be flown on a single staff at one time?

A

4

943
Q

In regards to the flag policy, what does a ceremonial hand salute to the flag consist of?

A

Raising the right hand slowly (four second count)

944
Q

In regards to the flag policy, what does a traditional hand salute to the flag consist of?

A

Raising the right hand quickly and firmly

945
Q

How many California State Flags are commanders authorized to requisition and maintain for use at the scene of a line-of-duty deaths ?

A

Maximum of 3

946
Q

If the line-of-duty death involves an officer from an allied agency, who’s approval shall be obtained before draping the body with a California State Flag?

A

From the command element of the fallen officer’s agency

947
Q

In the event of a death in the immediate family of a departmental employee, a total of how many uniformed/non-uniformed employees may attend the funeral on state time with approval from the commander?

A

4 uniformed/non-uniformed

948
Q

Within how many hours of a line of duty death shall the Area commander complete a CHP 162A, Peace Officer Funeral Worksheet, and forward it to the Academy and the Commissioner’s Office?

A

Within 24 hours hours of the notification fo death

949
Q

What are the 4 types of work uniforms authorized to be worn?

A
  1. Formal
  2. Work
  3. Utility
  4. Cold Weather
950
Q

All employees, regardless of rank, shall maintain what type(s) of work uniform(s)?

A
  1. Formal uniform

2. Long sleeved utility uniform

951
Q

When the green jacket is worn, what shall be worn in conjunction with it?

A
  1. Long sleeved shirt

2. Tie

952
Q

When operating patrol vehicles, what uniform item are employees to have readily available within the patrol vehicle?

A

The campaign hat (felt or straw)

953
Q

Under what 3 circumstances shall the campaign hat be worn?

A
  1. Attending official functions
  2. Performing traffic control or crowd control duties
  3. On the grounds or within the confines of the State Capitol.
954
Q

As far as the accouterment portion of the uniform policy, what pins is the left pocket flap of the uniform shirt solely reserved for?

A
  1. Medal of Valor
  2. Officer of the Year
  3. US Flag
  4. US Military Flag
  5. Other special pin as determined by the Commissioner
955
Q

As far as the accouterment portion of the uniform policy, how many pins can be worn on the right pocket at any one time?

A

No more than 3

956
Q

In regards to the uniform policy, what are the earring requirements for female employees in civilian attire?

A
  1. Only 2 allowed; one in each earlobe
  2. Stud type only
  3. Solid color
  4. Not over 4.0 millimeters
957
Q

In regards to the uniform policy, what cannot be used to cover tattoos?

A
  1. Fabric sleeves

2. Non-adhesive coverings

958
Q

Whether the body armor is state-issued or privately owned, is shall be outfitted with a minimum of how many ballistic panels??

A

4

959
Q

In regards to the uniform policy, body armor shall be worn under what 3 circumstances?

A
  1. Personnel assigned to field enforcement duties
  2. Personnel who operate a marked patrol vehicle in uniform
  3. Personnel participating in “live-fire” weapons training
960
Q

In regards to the uniform policy, body armor is NOT required to be worn under what 4 circumstances?

A
  1. Area special duty OTHER THAN primary front counter officer
  2. HQ or Division staff positions
  3. Comm. center and TMC center personnel
  4. Commanders; except when doing enforcement or driving marked patrol vehicle
961
Q

Within how many days after an incident involving an employee’s soft body armor, shall the commander send the required report to the Office of Legal Affairs?

A
  1. As soon as practical, but…

2. NLT 10 WORKING days after

962
Q

When wearing the green jacket, all equipment on the duty belt may be removed at who’s discretion.

A

Area Commander

963
Q

In regards to the uniform policy, anytime socks are visible, what are the requirements?

A
  1. Shall be solid-colored

2. Shall be royal blue, navy blue, or black in color

964
Q

In regards to the uniform policy, do service stripes go on the left or right sleeve?

A

Left

965
Q

In regards to the uniform policy, when tribute of mourning ribbons are worn, when shall they be removed?

A

The next calendar day following the funeral services.

966
Q

The tribute of mourning ribbon shall be worn across the the face of the badge under what 4 conditions?

A
  1. Departmental employee killed in the line of duty
  2. All line of duty deaths within CA
  3. At all freeway dedications
  4. As otherwise directed by the Commissioner
967
Q

In regards to the uniform policy, when shall the high-visibility reflective safety vest be worn?

A
  1. While actively engaged in traffic control duties at the scene of a stabilized highway closure or obstructed roadway.
  2. While actively engaged in the investigation of a crime, collision, or other high-profiled incident (after scene stabilization) close enough to the right of way of an active traffic lane so as to constitute a hazard.
  3. When outside of a patrol vehicle while engaged in traffic control duties at a COZEEP/MAZEEP.
  4. As directed by the on-scene commander during activation of ICS, when officer safety and/or ID would be enhanced by wearing the vest
968
Q

In regards to the uniform policy, if a scarf is worn, what color shall it be?

A
  1. Navy blue

2. Without design

969
Q

In regards to the uniform policy, a scarf may be worn with what?

A
  1. Blue patrol jacket
  2. Leather motorcycle jacket
  3. Cold weather parka
  4. Cold weather jumpsuit
970
Q

In regards to the uniform policy, when can employees wear the baseball cap?

A
  1. With rainwear

2. Only when the rain jacket hood is up

971
Q

In regards to the uniform policy, who is authorized to wear the brass buckle trouser belt?

A
  1. HQ
  2. Division
  3. Special Duty
972
Q

When lining up for a uniform inspection, officers shall arrange themselves in what order?

A
  1. In descending order, according to height

2. Tallest to the right of each rank

973
Q

When lining up for a uniform inspection, what shall be the maximum number of officers lined up per rank?

A

9

974
Q

When lining up for a uniform inspection, how many spaces shall be between the employees when they’re lined up?

A

2

975
Q

Being that vehicles carried as cargo are considered property when being towed, how shall they be documented on the CHP 180 in the event they are towed in conjunctions with another vehicle?

A

The license number, VIN, and description shall be documented in the “Remarks” section of the CHP 180.

976
Q

When an amendment needs to be made to a CHP 180, how shall it be documented?

A
  1. A brief memo describing the reason for the amendment

2. Prepared and attached to the CHP 180

977
Q

A “Notice of Stored Vehicle” shall be mailed or personally served to the R/O or L/O within how many hours of the tow?

A

48 hours

978
Q

In regards to towed vehicles, a post-storage hearing shall be conducted within how many hours of the request from the R/O or L/O?

A

48 hours

979
Q

In regards to towed vehicles, how may a R/O or L/O request a post-storage hearing?

A
  1. In writing
  2. In person
  3. By telephone
980
Q

When there is reason to believe that a vehicle/component theft has been falsely reported, what shall the commander do?

A

Notify the appropriate insurance carrier IN WRITING within 30 days.

981
Q

Who can accept vehicle/component theft reports over the phone?

A

Uniformed personnel ONLY

982
Q

If a report of a stolen vehicle is received via telephone, and the “possible stolen vehicle” is broadcasted, after how many hours shall it be cancelled if no physical stolen report is taken?

A

6 hours

983
Q

Upon establishing a suspense system for stolen vehicle or component reports, when shall the theft victim be contacted to see if their vehicle or component has been recovered?

A
  1. After 3 days of the date of the theft report, and…

2. After 60 days of the date of the theft report

984
Q

When a stolen vehicle or component is recovered, within how many hours shall the reporting party be advised of the recovery?

A

24 hours

985
Q

When lost or stolen plates are recovered, how long shall the Department hold them before turning them over to the DMV?

A

30 days

986
Q

When a vehicle is impounded for 14602.6 CVC or another impound section, at it is not released early (after a post-storage hearing), what shall be completed?

A
  1. A CHP 422B, Vehicle Storage Hearing Report, shall be completed, and…
  2. The reason for the non-release shall be included in the “Summary of Finding”
987
Q

When a vehicle is towed, within how many days of the date on the notice is the R/O or L/O required to request a hearing, if they want one?

A

Within 10 days of the date on the notice

988
Q

If a storage/impound is determined to be valid, but the R/O or L/O wishes to appeal the decision by filing a claim, what are their options?

A
  1. CHP 287, Claim of Less Than $1000

2. VCGCB, Claim in Excess of $1000

989
Q

If a storage/impound is determined to be valid, but the R/O or L/O wishes to appeal the decision by filing a claim, how much time from the date of the tow do they have to file the claim?

A

6 months

990
Q

In regards to evidence impounds, during what period of time is the Department responsible for the tow charges?

A

From the date of the seizure, to the day the charges are filed.

991
Q

In regards to evidence impounds, in the event the DA refuses to pay their portion of the fees, what shall the commander advise the DA of?

A

The commander shall advise the DA the Department will not accept financial responsibility and the case will become a civil matter between the storage facility owner and the county.

992
Q

In regards to the evidence impounds, when the contract allotment is running low, Areas can request up to how much more?

A

Up to an additional 30% above the total contract amount

993
Q

In regards to evidence impound reimbursement, when an Area sends an invoice to has sought reimbursement from a defendant and they are routing the invoice to HQ (FMS), what shall be marked on the CHP 180 and all applicable invoices?

A

“535.05” shall be marked in red in on the top right-hand corner of each document.

994
Q

In regards to school bus collision investigations, what 3 items must be contained in the special condition box?

A
  1. School bus category
  2. Type of school bus
  3. Number of pupils on board
995
Q

Within how many hours of knowledge of a fatal, severe, or visible injury school bus collision, shall the Area prepare a detailed Comm-Net message?

A

24 hours

996
Q

When shall enforcement of CA registration renewal commence?

A

The day following expiration

997
Q

Vehicles should NOT be stopped solely for failure to display year-round registration indicia until when?

A

The beginning of the 2nd month following the month of the registration.

998
Q

What are the 3 types of fees collected for the registration of commercial motor vehicles?

A
  1. Basic registration
  2. Vehicle license fee
  3. Weights fees
999
Q

In regards to commercial enforcement, enforcement action shall not be taken against military vehicles operating in convoys unless what?

A

The violation is such that other users of the highways are endangered

1000
Q

In regards commercial vehicle inspections, how many inspection levels are there?

A
  1. Level 1 through Level 5, and…

2. Farm Labor Vehicle inspections

1001
Q

In regards to commercial vehicle inspections, vehicles passing what level of inspection(s) are eligible for a CVSA decal?

A
  1. Level 1, and…

2. Level 5

1002
Q

In regards to commercial vehicle inspections, vehicles passing what level of inspection are eligible for a CHP-FLV decal?

A

Farm Labor Vehicle inspection

1003
Q

In regards to commercial vehicle inspections, what does a Level 1 inspection entail?

A

North American Standard Inspection

1004
Q

In regards to commercial vehicle inspections, what does a Level 2 inspection entail?

A

Walk Around Driver/Vehicle Inspection

1005
Q

In regards to commercial vehicle inspections, what does a Level 3 inspection entail?

A

Driver-Only Inspection

1006
Q

In regards to commercial vehicle inspections, what does a Level 4 inspection entail?

A

Special Inspections

1007
Q

In regards to commercial vehicle inspections, what does a Level 5 inspection entail?

A

Vehicle-Only Inspections (driver NOT present)

1008
Q

In regards to commercial vehicle enforcement facilities (CVEF’s), what are the 5 categories of facilities?

A
  1. Class A
  2. Class B
  3. Class C
  4. Class D
  5. Mini-site
1009
Q

In regards to commercial vehicle enforcement facilities (CVEF’s), what facilities are staffed 24/7?

A
  1. Class A, and…

2. Class B

1010
Q

In regards to commercial vehicle enforcement facilities (CVEF’s), how are Class C and Class D facilities staffed?

A

Generally, less than 24/7

1011
Q

In regards to vehicle size and weight requirements, the total outside width of any vehicle shall not exceed what?

A

102 inches

1012
Q

In regards to vehicle size and weight requirements, when a vehicle has pneumatic tires, its total width shall not exceed what?

A

108 inches

1013
Q

In regards to vehicle size and weight requirements, when a vehicle is carrying loads of certain loosely piled bulk agriculture products crated, baled, boxed, or sacked, the total width shall not exceed what?

A

120 inches

1014
Q

In regards to vehicle size and weight requirements, a vehicles height shall not exceed what?

A

14 feet measured from the surface upon which it stands

1015
Q

In regards to vehicle size and weight requirements, a single vehicle’s length shall not exceed what?

A

40 feet

1016
Q

In regards to vehicle size and weight requirements, a combination vehicle’s length shall not exceed what?

A

65 feet

1017
Q

In regards to vehicle size and weight requirements, booms, masts, machinery, and other equipment, shall not exceed what?

A

3 feet to the front of a vehicle

1018
Q

In regards to the transportation permits, when is a pilot car required?

A
  1. When a vehicle or load is more than 12 feet in width, and…
  2. Its move is permitted under a permit issued by CalTrans.
1019
Q

In regards to HAZMAT incidents, within how many hours of the incident shall the County Health Officer and the Board of Supervisors be notified?

A

72 hours

1020
Q

In regards to HAZMAT incidents, the Department is obligated to remain at the scene until what?

A

All emergency operations are completed

1021
Q

In regards to HAZMAT incidents, within how many days of the conclusion of the incident shall the Area submit the completed CHP 407E to Division?

A

10 days

1022
Q

Under what circumstances would it be appropriate for an officer to deny the media access to scene?

A
  1. Declared a crime scene
  2. Unrestricted access may interfere with emergency operations
  3. Incident involves the collision of a military aircraft and the federal military authorities have declared the scene a disaster site
1023
Q

How often are patrol vehicle speedometers calibrated?

A
  1. Every 90 days, or…

2. 30,000 miles

1024
Q

Within how many hours of a shooting incident shall the involved employee(s) attend a Critical Incident Stress Debriefing?

A

72 hours

1025
Q

In regards to enforcement documents, when would an officer be authorized to use the parental notification program?

A

When violations are committed by persons under 14 years old as pedestrians or bicycle/scooter related.

1026
Q

In regards to enforcement documents, when a CHP 215 is issued out of an allied agency turnover warrant arrest, what special code shall be used?

A

110

1027
Q

In regards to enforcement documents, when would an officer be justified as marking a correctible violation as “non-correctible”?

A
  1. Evidence of fraud or persistent neglect
  2. Violation presents immediate safety hazard
  3. Violator does not agree to, or can’t promptly correct violation
1028
Q

In regards tot enforcement documents, who is not required to sign the CHP 215?

A
  1. Verified diplomatic agents, and…

2. Consular officers, including staff and family

1029
Q

In regards to enforcement documents, why would an officer request to have a CHP 215 DISMISSED (as opposed to voided)?

A

The citation has already been ISSUED

1030
Q

In regards to enforcement documents, why would an officer request to have a CHP 215 VOIDED (as opposed to dismissed)?

A

The citation has NOT been issued

1031
Q

In regards to enforcement documents, if an officer has issued a CHP 267, Notice of Parking-Registration Violation, but now wants to cancel it, within how many days of issuance shall they inform the commander?

A

21 days

1032
Q

What are the 3 levels of appeal for a citizen who wants to appeal the CHP 287, Notice of Parking-Registration Violation?

A

1st - Initial review by citation processing agency

2nd - If dissatisfied with initial review, may request an administrative hearing

3rd - If dissatisfied with administrative hearing, may request a trial de novo in superior court

1033
Q

In regards to mutual aid requests, what are the 4 levels of activation (from smallest to largest; LORS):

A
  1. Local (cities)
  2. Operational areas (counties)
  3. Regional (2+ counties)
  4. State
1034
Q

Who’s approval is needed before CHP resources are committed to a mutual aid request?

A

Commissioner

1035
Q

When an incorporated city is embroiled in a job action (strike), and CHP assistance is requested, CHP response will be limited to what?

A
  1. Life-saving, or…

2. Property protection

1036
Q

Under what circumstances would CHP personnel respond to mutual aid requests in National Parks?

A

None

**Local and State law enforcement personnel are prohibited from assisting in mutual aid situations because of a complete lack of authority.

1037
Q

If requested by the governing body of a newly incorporated city, the CHP will continue to provide traffic law enforcement services without reimbursement for how long?

A
  1. Through the remainder of the final year of incorporation, or…
  2. Until the establishment of a police department
1038
Q

In regards to providing traffic law enforcement services to newly incorporated cities, generally, services will not be provided for a period longer than what?

A

12 months from the date of incorporation

1039
Q

In regards to interstate mutual assistance, the CHP has reciprocal assistance agreements with who?

A
  1. Oregon State Police
  2. Nevada Highway Patrol
  3. Arizona Department of Public Safety
1040
Q

In regards to interstate mutual assistance, all assistance rendered voluntarily or in response to a request, shall be limited to what distance?

A

An area within 50 statute miles of any point along the common border.

1041
Q

What does the Fresh Pursuits Act do?

A

It extends peace officer authority to officers from other states when in “fresh pursuit” of a fleeing FELON.

1042
Q

What does the Interstate Mutual Assistance Agreement do?

A

Convey’s limited peace officer authority to officers acting outside of their state, but WITHIN 50 stature miles of the state border while:

  1. Responding to a request for services initiated by an agency participating in the IMAA.
  2. Responding to an incident requiring immediate LE action or other emergency action.
1043
Q

In regards to the Interstate Mutual Assistance Agreement or the Fresh Pursuits Act, what are the 2 means by which a suspect who is physically located in one state may be returned to another state to face criminal charges?

A
  1. Voluntarily (suspect NOT in custody)

2. Per the state’s “Extradition Acts” (suspect IN custody)

1044
Q

While the Fresh Pursuits Acts only covers fleeing FELONS, what permits officers to pursue MISDEMEANOR violations into neighboring states?

A

The Interstate Mutual Assistance Agreement (50 statute mile max.).

1045
Q

Under the Interstate Mutual Assistance Agreement, CHP officers may conduct MISDEMEANOR FOLLOW-UP within 50 statute miles of the border as long as they ESTABLISH WHAT?

A

Follow-up is being conducted in a TIMELY manner

1046
Q

In regards to the Interstate Mutual Assistance Agreement or the Fresh Pursuits Act, when are DUI implied consent provisions applicable?

A

Only when the suspect is placed under lawful arrest (confiscate CA DL too).

1047
Q

What are the 4 categories of federal jurisdiction (PEP-C)?

A
  1. Exclusive
  2. Partial
  3. Concurrent
  4. Proprietary
1048
Q

In regards to EXCLUSIVE federal jurisdictional matters, what has the state retained the right to do?

A

Serve criminal and civil processes

1049
Q

All national FORESTS fall under what category of federal jurisdiction?

A

Concurrent

1050
Q

Under what federal jurisdiction category is the CHP obligated to provided its full range of services?

A

Proprietary

1051
Q

Under what circumstances would the Department enforce Fish and Game Codes on Indian reservations/rancherias?

A

When the violators are non-Indians

1052
Q

In circumstances where CHP mutual aid is requested by an exclusive or partial jurisdiction federal agency, what must happen before officers go out on patrol and take enforcement actions?

A

Officers shall be deputized as U.S. Marshals

1053
Q

Diplomatic AGENTS and their families are exempt and/or immune from what?

A
  1. Exempt from arrest or detention

2. Immune from all criminal (most civil) prosecution by the host state.

1054
Q

Consular OFFICERS are immune from what?

A

Immune from arrest or detention (except felonies), when prosecution arises from OFFICIAL ACTS

1055
Q

Consular EMPLOYEES are immune from what?

A

Immunity ONLY for official acts.

**They may be arrested or detained.

1056
Q

Diplomatic AGENTS and consular OFFICERS are immune from arrest or detention, UNLESS what?

A
  1. They have no ID, and…

2. The detention is to verify their diplomatic status

1057
Q

In regards to enforcement action taken against an identified diplomatic and/or immunity claimant, a photocopy of the enforcement document or arrest report shall be sent to who and within how long after issuance?

A
  1. AC Field
  2. Within 48 hours of issuance; via email

**Whether or not claim was verified.

1058
Q

When a foreign national is arrested or detained, after how long is the officer required to contact their embassy?

A

If the arrest or detention exceeds 2 hours

1059
Q

What are the 5 options an officer has when taking appropriate enforcement action against a violator?

A
  1. Physical Arrest
  2. CHP 215, Notice to Appear
  3. CHP 281, Notice to Correct Violation
  4. CHP 214, Written Warning
  5. Verbal Warning
1060
Q

In regards to traffic enforcement, who’s approval is required to monitor traffic from the center median?

A

Division

1061
Q

An arrestee is entitled to how many phone calls within how many hours of arrest?

A
  1. 3 phone calls

2. Within 3 hours of arrest

1062
Q

In addition to the 3 phone calls within 3 hours they are entitled to, how many additional phone calls is an arrestee entitled to, and within what time frame, if they are ID’d as the custodial parent with responsibility of a minor child?

A
  1. 2 additional phone calls for the purposes of arranging child care
  2. Given immediately upon request or as soon as practical
1063
Q

In regards to the custody and arrest of minors, the custody of minors shall be handled is what manner?

A
  1. The manner which least restricts the minor’s freedom of movement
  2. Provided such disposition is compatible with the best interests of the minor and the community
1064
Q

In regards to the custody and arrest of minors, the place of appearance specified on the CHP 215 shall be what?

A

“Before the juvenile court, a juvenile court referee, or a juvenile hearing officer within the county in which the offense charged is alleged to have been committed…”

1065
Q

A MINOR is entitled to how many phone calls within how many hours of arrest?

A
  1. 2 phone calls

2. Within 1 hour of arrest (to parent, relative, employer, or attorney)

1066
Q

Secure and non-secure detention of a minor in a LAW ENFORCEMENT FACILITY shall not exceed how long?

A

6 hours

1067
Q

A minor shall not be present in an ADULT DETENTION FACILITY or JAIL from a continuous period exceeding what?

A

2 hours

1068
Q

If an arrested minor will NOT be interviewed, when shall officers advise them of their constitutional rights (Miranda).

A

Just prior to their release to a jail facility or parent

1069
Q

In regards to arrests by private persons, when accepting custody of a person, is an officer required to first establish probable cause?

A

No

1070
Q

When a person is arrested, but released from custody without being formally charged with an offense, what shall they be issued?

A

CHP 103

1071
Q

What document are CHP supervisors required to have in their possession while on duty?

A

CHP 103

1072
Q

In regards to minors with provisional DL’s, when they’re driving outside of the provisions and have a SIGNED note, what are the 5 circumstances they are allowed to drive under (SEE-MI)?

A
  1. Medical necessity
  2. School or school-authorized activity
  3. Employment necessity
  4. Immediate need of family member
  5. Emancipated minor
1073
Q

What are the stopping/citing guidelines for Prima Facie speed limits?

A
  1. 10+ MPH above: shall stop
  2. 5-9 MPH above: should stop
  3. 1-4 MPH above: may stop
1074
Q

What are the stopping/citing guidelines for Absolute speed limits?

A
  1. 5+ MPH above: shall stop

2. 1-4 MPH above: may stop

1075
Q

What are the stopping/citing guidelines for slow moving vehicles (in other than right-hand lane)?

A
  1. 10+ MPH below normal flow: shall stop
  2. 5-9 MPH below normal flow: should stop
  3. 1-4 MPH below normal flow: may stop
1076
Q

The deployment of Primary Collision Factor Vehicle’s shall be focused on what?

A
  1. Roadways with high fatal/injury collisions.
  2. Roadways where traditional strategies have proven ineffective.
  3. Roadways warranting supplemental and/or selective enforcement.
1077
Q

The use of UNMARKED vehicles for the purpose of apprehending 23109 CVC violations requires who’s approval?

A

Commissioner

1078
Q

Patrol vehicles should only be used in lieu of ambulances in emergencies under what circumstances?

A
  1. When time is of the utmost importance, and…

2. Where the patient does not object

1079
Q

Zero and low-emission vehicles are issued how many decals?

A

3, white “clean air” decals

1080
Q

Hybrid vehicles are issued how many decals?

A

4

1081
Q

Children under the age of 2 shall be properly secured in a rear-facing child passenger restraint system unless what?

A
  1. The child weighs 40+ pounds, or…

2. The child is 40+ inches tall

1082
Q

When a person is being transported in the back of a pick-up truck during a police supervised parade, the speed of the truck shall not exceed what?

A

8 MPH

1083
Q

When an officer issues a CHP 215 out of a collision, what shall be written/marked on the citation?

A
  1. “Issued per CVC Section 40600”

2. Check “AI” box

1084
Q

What is an Emergency Protective Order?

A

A court order prepared by an officer and issued by a judge, whether or not the superior court is in session when there is an immediate and present danger of domestic violence to a victim.

1085
Q

What is a Restraining Order?

A

An order issued by the court during normal business hours.

1086
Q

Weapons seized pursuant to a DV investigation shall be held a minimum of how long, but released within how many days of the subject receiving the Law Enforcement Gun Release Application approval?

A
  1. Held a minimum of 48 hours, but…

2. Released within 5 BUSINESS days of the subject receiving the LEGRA approval

1087
Q

Court protective or restraining orders shall be entered into the DOJ Domestic Violence Restraining Order System within how many days after issuance?

A

1 BUSINESS day

1088
Q

Within how many hours of service of a protective order is the subject required to relinquish possession or control of any firearms?

A
  1. Immediately if they’re in their possession, or…

2. Within 24 hours if they’re not in their possession

1089
Q

When does an Emergency Protective Order expire?

A
  1. NLT the close of judicial business on the 5th COURT day, or…
  2. The 7th CALENDAR day following the day of issuance
1090
Q

What is the only court order that will be both issued and served by a CHP officer?

A

An Emergency Protective Order

1091
Q

In regards to child abuse/child neglect investigations, within how many hours is the CHP required to forward the DOJ report to the Local County Designated Agency (LCDA)?

A

36 hours

1092
Q

Within how many hours of locating/finding a missing person, shall the CHP notify the AG’s office via MUPS?

A

Immediately

1093
Q

Within how many hours of accepting a report of a missing person under the age of 21 or at risk, shall the CHP notify the DOJ for inclusion into the Violent Crime information Center and the NCIC databases?

A

2 hours

1094
Q

Within how many hours of taking a preliminary missing persons report, shall the CHP forward a copy of the CJIS 8568 to the appropriate law enforcement agencies (location where reported missing and location of residence)?

A

24 hours

1095
Q

Within how many hours of the MUPS entry, shall the CHP ascertain whether the local law enforcement agency has established their own MUPS record?

A

24 hours

1096
Q

Within how many days of initiating a missing child investigation, shall the CHP inform, in writing and with a photograph, the school district, other educational agency, or private school in which the child is enrolled, that the child is missing?

A

10 days

1097
Q

When is a law enforcement entity allowed to provide information to the public about a person required to register as a sex offender, by whatever means the entity deems appropriate?

A

When its necessary to ensure public safety

1098
Q

The CHP may not post on an internet website any info ID’ing an individual as a person required to register as a sex offender unless what?

A

There is an outstanding warrant for that persons arrest

1099
Q

Who shall be notified of any investigation involving an unintentional or self-inflicted gunshot wound involving a victim 18 years old or younger?

A

The California Department of Public Health

1100
Q

What is the AMBER Alert criteria?

A
  1. Confirmation an abduction has occurred
  2. Victim is 17yo or younger, or they have a physical/mental disability
  3. Victim is in imminent danger of serious bodily injury/death
  4. There’s info available, if disseminated to the public, could assist in the safe recovery of the victim
1101
Q

What is the BLUE Alert criteria?

A
  1. Officer has been killed, seriously injured, or assaulted with a deadly weapon and the suspect has fled
  2. Investigating agency has determined suspect poses an imminent threat to public or there LE’s
  3. Description of suspect’s vehicle or license plate is available for broadcast
  4. Dissemination of info may help avert further harm or accelerate apprehension of the suspect
1102
Q

What is the SILVER Alert criteria?

A
  1. Missing person is 65yo or older, developmentally disabled, or cognitively impaired
  2. Investigating agency has utilized all available local resources
  3. Investigating agency believes disappearance is inexplicable or suspicious
  4. Investigating agency believes person is in danger because of health, age, mental or physical disability, etc., and/or the person they’re with is dangerous.
  5. There’s info available, if disseminated to the public, could assist in the safe recovery of the victim
1103
Q

What is the YELLOW Alert criteria?

A
  1. Person has been killed or suffered serious bodily injury as a result of hit and run
  2. Indication suggesting suspect has fled the scene utilizing the state highway system or is likely to be observed by the public on the state highway system
  3. Investigating agency has additional information concerning the suspect or the suspect’s vehicle (i.e. complete/partial license plate, identity of suspect)
  4. Dissemination of info may help avert further harm or accelerate apprehension of the suspect
1104
Q

When shall a STD. 99 be prepared?

A

When crimes and criminally caused property damage occurring on state-owned, or state-leased property is reported.

1105
Q

Upon completing of a STD. 99, within how many days of the incident shall it be entered into the State Crimes Automated Reporting System (SCARS)?

A

10 days

1106
Q

In regards to the Safety Services Investigation Program, how many investigative categories are there, and what are they?

A
  1. Priority 1 - requires immediate investigation
  2. Priority 2 - require follow-up; no immediate investigation required
  3. Priority 3 - do not have any leads and are reported solely for statistical purposes
1107
Q

Within how many days of appointment, shall newly appointed Safety Services Officers (SSP) complete the required training?

A

90 days

1108
Q

What is the purpose of the CHP Crime Prevention and Security (CPS) Program?

A

To assist in the prevention of criminal and terrorist threats against state employees and resources.

1109
Q

What are the 4 elements of the Crime Prevention and Security (CPS) Program?

A
  1. Security Inspection (SI)
  2. Crime Prevention Plan (CPP)
  3. Site Vulnerability Assessment Memorandum (SVA)
  4. Crime Prevention and Security Program Training
1110
Q

In regards to the Crime Prevention and Security (CPS) Program, when would a Site Vulnerability Assessment Memorandum (SVA) be completed?

A
  1. Only upon request from a state agency head, and…

2. Subsequent approval from Protective Services Division

1111
Q

In regards to the event (on state property) permit approval process, when is a permit NOT required?

A

When distributing leaflets, pamphlets, etc, of a non-commercial nature on state property

1112
Q

In regards to the event (on state property) permit approval process, permits will normally be issued within how many days of receiving a properly completed application?

A

10 WORKING days

1113
Q

In regards to the event (on state property) permit approval process, when is a license from Alcohol Beverage Control required?

A

If alcohol is to be SOLD and CONSUMED on the premises

1114
Q

In regards to the event (on state property) permit approval process, if an applicants permit request is denied, how many days do they have to file an appeal?

A

5 WORKING days

1115
Q

In regards to insurance requirements for permits on state property, what is the minimum acceptable limit of insurance for hazardous activities or events?

A

$1 million per occurrence

1116
Q

What are the 3 categories of “DOJ Stops”?

A
  1. Stop Code “A” - person may be armed and dangerous
  2. Stop Code “W” - person may be wanted
  3. Stop Code “F” - vehicle associated with felony
1117
Q

What are the 4 categories of Workplace Violence?

A
  1. Type 1 - Criminal Intent
  2. Type 2 - Customer/Client
  3. Type 3 - Worker-on-Worker
  4. Type 4 - Personal Relationship
1118
Q

If an employer seeks a temporary restraining order, and an injunction on behalf of an employee who has been the victim of violence, or a threat of violence in the workplace, within how many days of the filing of the petition for the injunction, shall a hearing be held?

A

15 days

1119
Q

If an employer is granted a temporary restraining order, and an injunction on behalf of an employee who has been the victim of violence, or a threat of violence in the workplace, how long shall it be good for?

A

3 years

1120
Q

Assignments of CHP personnel to task forces should be for a minimum of what, and a maximum of what?

A
  1. Minimum of 3 years

2. Maximum of 4 years

1121
Q

As far as ORM is concerned, What 4 incidents are considered THRESHOLD incidents?

A
  1. Member of CHP is seriously injured/killed during performance of their duties
  2. Incident involving CHP where member of the public is seriously injured/killed/hospitalized
  3. Member of CHP intentionally/accidentally discharges firearm at a person, whether on/off duty, regardless of if they were struck
  4. Any sensitive/complex investigation when liability appears to be that of CHP

CONFIRM there are only 4

1122
Q

Within how long of a THRESHOLD incident shall ORM be notified via ENTAC?

A

Immediately

1123
Q

Within how long of a NON-THRESHOLD PCL incident shall the Area transmit a CHP 268 to Division?

A

7 CALENDAR days

1124
Q

Within how long of a THRESHOLD incident shall the Area transmit a CHP 268 to Division?

A

7 CALENDAR days

1125
Q

Is ENTAC required to be notified following a NON-THRESHOLD PCL incident?

A

No

1126
Q

All materials/documents marked “Preserved for Threshold Incidents” shall be retained for how long?

A

10 years

1127
Q

All materials/documents marked “Preserved for Non-threshold PCL Incidents” shall be retained for how long?

A

5 years

1128
Q

Prior to the destruction of materials/documents preserved for threshold and non-threshold PCL incidents, who shall be contacted for approval?

A
  1. ORM, and…

2. OLA, Case Management Unit

1129
Q

Which CHP form is subject to PRA disclosures and is NOT protected under the umbrella of attorney-client privilege?

A

CHP 275, Risk Management Use of Force Report

1130
Q

When a use of force occurs and there is no injury, what form(s) shall be completed?

A

CHP 275

1131
Q

When a use of force occurs and there is an injury, what form(s) shall be completed?

A
  1. CHP 275, and…

2. CHP 268

1132
Q

Within how long of a use of force incident shall the Area transmit a CHP 275 to Division?

A

7 CALENDAR days

1133
Q

When a control hold is used to overcome physical resistance from an uncooperative subject, what form(s) shall be completed?

A

CHP 275

1134
Q

When an officer discharges their firearm, what form(s) shall be completed, regardless of if the subject was struck?

A

CHP 275

1135
Q

When an officer uses force to overcome physical resistance from an uncooperative subject, what form(s) shall be completed?

A

CHP 275

1136
Q

Within how many days of an in-custody death is the CHP required to notify the AG’s office in writing?

A

10 CALENDAR days

1137
Q

Within how many days of an in-custody death is the CHP required to notify ORM?

A

7 CALENDAR days

1138
Q

When any incident involving a state vehicle being driven by a state driver which results in injury or property damage, whether on or off highway occurs, what form(s) shall be completed?

A
  1. CHP 208, Collision Prevention Report
  2. STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report
  3. CHP 555, Traffic Collision Report
1139
Q

When any incident in which a state vehicle is legally parked, whether or not the state vehicle is in transport, and is struck by another vehicle occurs, what form(s) shall be completed?

A
  1. CHP 208, Collision Prevention Report
  2. STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report
  3. CHP 555, Traffic Collision Report
1140
Q

When an incident where it is/may be alleged the state vehicle was the proximate cause of a collision, what form(s) shall be completed?

A
  1. “LIABILITY ONLY” STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report

A CHP 208 and CHP 555 are required if it is determined the state vehicle was involved as a “non-contact” party to the collision

1141
Q

Anytime unreported damage to a state vehicle is discovered, what form(s) shall be completed?

A
  1. CHP 208, Collision Prevention Report
  2. STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report

The last driver of the state vehicle shall be documented as the party responsible for the damage, if deemed appropriate by the Area Commander*

1142
Q

Anytime hidden damage to a state vehicle is discovered, what form(s) shall be completed?

A
  1. STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report

A CHP 208 and CHP 555 are required, if deemed appropriate by the Area Commander

1143
Q

When any collision or an occurrence when other than a state employee is the driver of the state vehicle occurs (i.e. mechanic), what form(s) shall be completed?

A
  1. STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report

A CHP 555 is required, if deemed appropriate by the Area Commander

1144
Q

When any incident involving legal intervention which meets the definition of a collision occurs, what form(s) shall be completed?

A
  1. CHP 208, Collision Prevention Report
  2. STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report
  3. CHP 555, Traffic Collision Report
1145
Q

When any incident in which a state vehicle is used to push a vehicle and the pushed vehicle is involved in a collision with another person, object, or 3rd party vehicle(s) occurs, what form(s) shall be completed?

A
  1. CHP 208, Collision Prevention Report
  2. STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report
  3. CHP 555, Traffic Collision Report
1146
Q

When unintentional damage is sustained to a patrol vehicle by the acts of persons in-custody, what form(s) shall be completed and routed to who?

A
  1. A CHP 51, Memo, shall be completed and…

2. Submitted to FMS

1147
Q

When malicious damage is sustained to a patrol vehicle by the acts of persons in-custody, WHAT form(s) shall be completed, and WHO shall it be routed to?

A
  1. A CHP 221, Malicious Damage Report, shall be completed, and…
  2. Routed to FMS with a court order of restitution
1148
Q

When malicious damage is sustained to a patrol vehicle by the acts of persons in-custody, within how many days of the incident shall a CHP 221, Malicious Damage Report, be sent to the local DA?

A

5 days

1149
Q

Within how many hours of an incident shall the completed or preliminary STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report, be routed to ORM?

A

48 hours

1150
Q

Within how many days of an incident shall the completed STD. 270, Vehicle Accident Report, be routed to Division?

A

7 CALENDAR days

1151
Q

Within how many days of an incident shall the completed CHP 208, Collision Prevention Report, be routed to Division?

A

7 CALENDAR days

1152
Q

Within how many days of a pursuit shall the PRS be routed Division?

A

7 CALENDAR days

1153
Q

How often shall Area Commanders audit their area PRS system?

A

Quarterly

1154
Q

When does and officer create a special relationship?

A
  1. When they place a person in peril
  2. When their actions affect, or increases risk of harm
  3. When they make an expressed or implied promise
1155
Q

Upon establishing a special relationship, under what circumstances would an officer be allowed to leave the scene?

A
  1. Properly relieved by a CHP employee
  2. Relinquished scene management responsibilities to appropriate agency responsible for incident
  3. Learned of a reasonably apparent emergency requiring their immediate attention elsewhere
  4. Received direction from a supervisor to assume duties elsewhere
  5. Assistance/protection is no longer reasonably necessary
1156
Q

What is the Early Intervention System?

A
  1. A data-driven management tool used for ID’ing issues which could bring discredit to the CHP, increase civil liability exposure or demonstrate training needs.
  2. The EIS will also ID positive performance of CHP employees through the tracking of written performance documents.
1157
Q

In regards to the Early intervention System (EIS) dashboard, which is located in Blue Team, what does a GREEN colored dot next to an employee’s name indicate?

A

The employee is NOT nearing a threshold

1158
Q

In regards to the Early intervention System (EIS) dashboard, which is located in Blue Team, what does a YELLOW colored dot next to an employee’s name indicate?

A

The employee is ONE incident away from reaching an identified threshold.

1159
Q

In regards to the Early intervention System (EIS) dashboard, which is located in Blue Team, what does a RED colored dot next to an employee’s name indicate?

A

The employee has reached or surpassed an identified threshold.

RED is the only indication which requires evaluation by Area management and/or supervision

1160
Q

What 3 incidents require a MAIT call-out?

A
  1. Any fatal or severe injury collision involving on-duty CHP or CalTrans employees (includes sub-contractors)
  2. Any accident involving fatal or severe injury, or substantial damage involving CHP aircraft
  3. Any other collision of unusual significance
1161
Q

What is a Pitchess Motion?

A

A legal process which enables the defense to attempt to obtain an officers personnel records or information contained therein.

1162
Q

What Penal Code section establishes confidentiality of officers personnel records and records of complaints, and allows for disclosure of such records only through the discovery process described in Evidence Code Section 1043?

A

832.7 PC

1163
Q

In regards to Pitchess Motions, what did People v. Harold Memro do?

A

The case broadened the Pitchess requirements to include any type of complaint in the officer’s personnel file as long as the defense attorney had effectively shown the relevancy of the complaint to the defense’s case.

1164
Q

In regards to Pitchess Motions, if done by mail, how many days prior to the hearing shall the defendant serve the agency having custody or control of the records?

A

20 days

1165
Q

In regards to Pitchess Motions, if done in person, how many days prior to the hearing shall the defendant serve the agency having custody or control of the records?

A

15 days

1166
Q

In regards to Pitchess Motions, in the event a judge orders the production of an officer’s personnel records without adhering to the Pitchess Motion process, what shall be done?

A

An affidavit, prepared by the Area and signed by the Commander, shall accompany the records to court in a sealed envelope.

1167
Q

What is the CHP’s mission?

A

To provide the highest level of safety, service, and security.

1168
Q

What is the CHP’s Vision Statement?

A

To be a trusted leader in law enforcement while ensuring California is the safest place to live and travel.

1169
Q

The Citizen Advisory Board consists of how many members?

A

11 total members

**8 representing each of the divisions and 3 at large appointments.

1170
Q

The primary focus of the Citizen Advisory Board is what?

A
  1. Use of force policies
  2. Citizen’s complaints
  3. EEO
  4. Management and supervisory practices
  5. Public perception
  6. Hiring
1171
Q

In regards to the CHP motto, what shall managers answer supervisors do?

A
  1. Learn, internalize and support it, and…

2. Thereafter serve as a model for subordinates to emulate

1172
Q

What are the 7 points of the CHP badge (LICK HJC)?

A
  1. Loyalty
  2. Integrity
  3. Courtesy
  4. Knowledge
  5. Honor
  6. Judgment
  7. Character
1173
Q

The overall length of all long guns must be what?

A

26 inches

1174
Q

Shotgun barrels must be at least how many inches?

A

18 inches

1175
Q

Rifle barrels must be at least how long?

A

16 inches

1176
Q

In regards to staff meetings, Area minutes shall be sent to Division and posted at the Area for how long?

A

5 days

1177
Q

In regards to staff meetings, when uniformed members are absent, what are they supposed to do with the meeting minutes?

A
  1. Read, and…

2. Initial the printed copy of the minutes

1178
Q

Notices of open Area meetings shall be posted how far in advance of the meeting; to anyone who submits a written request for notification?

A

At least 10 days prior to the meeting

1179
Q

Smoking shall not be within how many feet of doorways, ground level air intake structures, and windows?

A

25 feet

1180
Q

In regards to lactation accommodation, what shall supervisors provide employees with?

A
  1. An enclosed room, other than a restroom
  2. Away from public view, provides privacy
  3. Available for the time requested by the employee
1181
Q

CALEA was established in what year and by whom?

A

Created in 1979 by:

  1. International Association of Chiefs of Police
  2. National Organization of Black Law Enforcement Executives
  3. National Sheriff’s Association
  4. Police Executive Research Forum
1182
Q

Promotional lists are valid for how long?

A
  1. At least 12 months

2. No more than 48 months

1183
Q

CHP 220’s shall not be submitted more than how many days prior to the completion of probation for officers, sergeants, and non-command lieutenants?

A

90 days

1184
Q

A search warrant without night night service shall be served between what times?

A

0700 hours to 2200 hours

1185
Q

Misdemeanor arrest warrants without night service shall be served between what times?

A

0600 hours to 2200 hours

1186
Q

What are the 3 reasons the CHP must engage in the Public Trust Initiative?

A
  1. Public and officer safety is built upon mutual trust
  2. Public support is essential for safer communities
  3. Provides an opportunity for CHP to assume a leadership role in building a public trust framework that could serve as a model to others
1187
Q

In regards to the Public Trust Initiative, together, we must embrace what 3 principals (RUI)?

A
  1. Individual evaluation
  2. Respect and dignity
  3. Unified vision
1188
Q

In regards to the Early Intervention System in Blue Team, how many Citizen Complaint entires warrant an intervention advisory and supervisory review?

A

3 in 18 months

1189
Q

In regards to the Early Intervention System in Blue Team, how many Use of Force entires warrant an intervention advisory and supervisory review?

A

3 in 12 months

1190
Q

In regards to the Early Intervention System in Blue Team, how many MOD entires warrant an intervention advisory and supervisory review?

A

2 in 12 months

1191
Q

In regards to the Early Intervention System in Blue Team, how many CHP Form 2 entires warrant an intervention advisory and supervisory review?

A

2 in 12 months

1192
Q

In regards to the Early Intervention System in Blue Team, how many “positive” documentation entires warrant an intervention advisory and supervisory review?

A

2 in 12 months

1193
Q

Supervisors, managers, or other commander designers shall make Blue Team entries when what incidents occur?

A
  1. Citizen complaints

2. Written performance documents; positive or negative

1194
Q

What are the 2 categories of Threshold incidents?

A
  1. Category A

2. Category B

1195
Q

When shall ORM be notified (via ENTAC) of Category A Threshold incidents?

A

Immediately

1196
Q

When shall ORM be notified (via ENTAC) of Category B Threshold incidents?

A

The next BUSINESS day

1197
Q

In regards to grants, private grant funding shall not be sought without specific approval from who?

A

Executive Management

1198
Q

In regards to grants, OTS grant funding applications shall be sent to who?

A

Special Projects Section, Grant Management Unit

1199
Q

Organizational rosters shall be updated when?

A

The beginning of each quarter

1200
Q

The use of the AVLS system shall not be used solely to determine what?

A

Patrol vehicle speed

1201
Q

LPR data shall be purged after how long?

A

60 days

1202
Q

The retention period for Tier 1 and Tier 2 AVLS data is how long?

A

90 days

1203
Q

The retention period for Tier 3 AVLS data is how long?

A

1 year

1204
Q

AVLS data can be used for training purposes if what?

A
  1. No on-going civil/criminal proceedings

2. Area commander approval

1205
Q

How often shall employees receive training on Special Relationships?

A

Annually

1206
Q

Every office is required to schedule how many days a week for child safety seat inspections?

A

1

1207
Q

Car seat technicians are required to participate in how many events per year?

A

At least 2

1208
Q

Beat revisions necessitated by addition, loss, or change in patrol responsibility shall be submitted to Division at least how many days prior to the date they are to become effective?

A

60 days

1209
Q

What is the retention period for “open” felony CHP 216 and CHP 202 reports?

A

7 years

1210
Q

What is the retention period for felony CHP 216 and CHP 202 reports?

A

4 years

1211
Q

What is the retention period for misdemeanor CHP 216 and CHP 202’s and incident reports?

A

3 years

1212
Q

For criminal cases, MVARS release must be coordinated through who?

A

Local DA

1213
Q

For civil cases, MVARS release must be coordinated through who?

A

OLA

1214
Q

In regards to conducting Field Interviews, field photos may only be taken of suspects under what circumstances?

A
  1. Suspect gives consent

2. Reasonable suspicion of criminal activity

1215
Q

The public can use 1-800-TELL CHP to report what 5 things?

A
  1. FLV violations
  2. Child safety seat violations
  3. AMBER Alert sightings
  4. Non-emergency incident reporting
  5. Victim and witness information
1216
Q

To be considered a fatal collision, the death must occur within how many days of the collision?

A

30 days

1217
Q

CHP employees are not permitted at parole board hearings unless what?

A

They’re requested by the family as a support person

1218
Q

If a uniformed CHP employee attends a parole board hearing, what shall they not do?

A
  1. Make comments or participate

2. Wear uniform

1219
Q

Search and seizure training shall be completed how often?

A

Quarterly

1220
Q

Active shooter policy shall be reviewed how often?

A

Annually

1221
Q

How often are sergeants and below required to attend refresher active shooter training?

A

Every 2 years

1222
Q

Area commanders shall establish policy to perform security/welfare checks at the district office of elected state officials in their area how often?

A

Monthly

1223
Q

Area commanders shall personally contact their state and federal elected officials, Sheriff’s, and county Board of Supervisors or state at least how often?

A

Quarterly

1224
Q

Area commanders shall be available for contact by county, state, and federal elected officials, for how many hours a day?

A

24 hours a day

1225
Q

Key Contacts may only be delegated to someone other than the Area commander by who?

A

Division Commander

1226
Q

Area commanders are allowed up to how much money per year to join professional law enforcement organizations?

A

$250

1227
Q

Public Safety Officers Procedural Bill of Rights Act (POBR) is contained within what Government Code sections?

A

GC 3300 through GC 3313

1228
Q

Area reps are allowed how much release time to prepare for grievance/complaints at each level?

A

4 hours

1229
Q

Area reps are allowed how much release time to prepare for arbitration?

A

8 hours

1230
Q

If an employee donates leave credits to the CAHP, in what increment must the time be donated?

A

1 hour increments

1231
Q

In regards to a grievance, the employee must have an informal discussion with the supervisor within how many days of the event?

A

21 WORKING days

1232
Q

In regards to grievances, who serves as the final level of review at Level 4?

A

CalHR

1233
Q

In regards to a grievance, within how many days of the informal discussion shall the supervisor render a response or decision?

A

7 WORKING days

1234
Q

In regards to a grievance, if the issue isn’t resolved at the informal discussion level, within how many days shall the employee appeal to Level 1?

A
  1. Within 21 WORKING days of the original event, or…

2. Within 7 WORKING days of receiving the supervisors response during the informal discussion

1235
Q

In regards to grievances, within how many days of the employees appeal to Level 1, shall the department respond to the employee?

A

14 WORKING days

1236
Q

In regards to a grievance, if the issue isn’t resolved at Level 1, within how many days shall the employee appeal to Level 2?

A

14 WORKING days

1237
Q

In regards to grievances, within how many days of the employees appeal to Level 2, shall the department respond to the employee?

A

21 WORKING days

1238
Q

In regards to grievances, within how many days of the employees appeal to Level 4, shall the Department of Personnel Administration respond to the employee?

A

45 days

1239
Q

In regards to grievances, what happens if the employee misses the time limits?

A

It shall be null and void

1240
Q

In regards to grievances, what happens if the department misses the time limits?

A

It shall proceed to the next level

1241
Q

In regards to a grievance, as a last ditch effort, what can be done if the CAHP disagrees with the decision rendered at Level 4?

A

The CAHP can request to go to arbitration

1242
Q

In regards to grievances, the CAHP must request arbitration within how many days of receiving the Level 4 response?

A

30 days

1243
Q

In regards to grievances, the arbitrator must render a decision and provide a response to the CAHP within how many days?

A

60 days

1244
Q

In regards to complaints, who serves as the final level of review at Level 3?

A

Commissioner

1245
Q

How much money are K-9 officers allotted each month for maintenance?

A

$156.65 per month

1246
Q

What is the educational incentive for an AA or Intermediate POST certificate?

A
  1. 2.5%, or…

2. No LESS than $120 per month

1247
Q

What is the educational incentive for a BA or Advanced POST certificate?

A
  1. 5%, or…

2. No LESS than $240 per month

1248
Q

What is the Physical Performance Pay incentive for an employee of less than 60 months?

A

$65 per month

1249
Q

What is the Physical Performance Pay incentive for an employee of more than 60 months?

A

$130 per month

1250
Q

What is the rate of bilingual pay per month?

A

$100 per month

1251
Q

What is the pay incentive to ride a motorcycle?

A
  1. 4%, or…

2. No LESS than $175 per month

1252
Q

What is the pay incentive to be an investigator?

A

$50 per month

1253
Q

What is the pay incentive to be a paramedic?

A

$50 per month

1254
Q

For business calls of less than 29 minutes, how much money is an employee entitled to?

A

$10

1255
Q

Officers have to work how many hours, in how many days, before they are “eligible” to earn OT?

A
  1. 171 hours, in…

2. A 28-day work period

1256
Q

OT is to be paid within how many days of the end of the FLSA period?

A

14 days

1257
Q

In regards to standby pay, 4 hours of standby is equivalent to how many hours of paid OT?

A

1 hour

1258
Q

In regards to the standby pay, what is the maximum amount of standby hours you can be paid for in a 24-hour period?

A

5 hours

1259
Q

How much bereavement leave do you get for the death of an immediate family member, domestic partner, step-parent, or anyone residing in your household?

A

3, 8-hour days PER OCCURRENCE

1260
Q

How much bereavement leave do you get for the death of a grandchild, grandparent, niece, nephew, or in-laws?

A

3, 8-hour days PER FISCAL YEAR

1261
Q

In regards to catastrophic leave, an employee who wishes to donate, must donate a minimum of how many hours?

A

2 hours

1262
Q

In regards to catastrophic leave, what is the maximum amount of time that can be donated to the receiving employee, unless extended by the Commissioner?

A

6 months

1263
Q

How much do employees receive per year for the uniform allowance?

A

$920

1264
Q

In regards to per diem /meal reimbursement, what are the maximum reimbursement amounts for breakfast, lunch, dinner, and incidentals?

A
  1. Breakfast: $7
  2. Lunch: $11
  3. Dinner: $23
  4. Incidentals: $5
1265
Q

In regards to per diem /meal reimbursement, what is the total amount employees are allowed to request in a 24-hour period?

A

$46 per 24-hour period

1266
Q

In regards to grievances, annual, interim, or transfer performance appraisals are grievable up to what level?

A

Level 3

1267
Q

BWC policy shall be reviewed how often?

A

Annually

1268
Q

The BWC shall be activated under what 5 circumstances (CAVE-P)?

A
  1. ENFORCEMENT contacts (pedestrians included)
  2. VEHICLE searches and inventories
  3. ASSISTING disabled motorists
  4. CONFRONTATIONAL interactions with the public
  5. PAT-DOWN frisks or searches
1269
Q

BWC footage shall be retained for a minimum of how long?

A

1 year

1270
Q

Recordings from the accidental activation of the BWC can be deleted after how long?

A

60 days

1271
Q

In conjunction with an officers CHP 118, supervisors shall review a minimum of how many BWC recordings?

A

2

1272
Q

External rifle rated body armor shall have what on the back?

A

POLICE

1273
Q

External rifle rated body armor may have POLICE on the front in what color writing?

A

Gold

1274
Q

An officer shall have what on the front of their external rifle rated body armor?

A
  1. Cloth badge, and…

2. ID and/or last name

1275
Q

Per 16740 PC, a large capacity magazine is an ammunition feeding device with the capacity to accept more than how many rounds?

A

10

1276
Q

Commands shall have at least how many distracted driving surveys completed per quarter?

A

2

1277
Q

In regards to correspondence, a paragraph of less than what shall not be divided between pages?

A

4 lines

1278
Q

In regards to FTEP, FTO’s shall turn in end of phase reports when?

A

On the last day of training or extension

1279
Q

What Government Code Section covers rejections during probation?

A

19173 GC

1280
Q

In regards to progressive discipline, what are the 4 levels of counseling?

A
  1. Informal
  2. Formal
  3. Corrective documentation
  4. Adverse action
1281
Q

In regards to internal investigations, upon notification of, and at the conclusion of an interview/interrogation, employees shall be give what?

A

A direct order not to discuss the interview/interrogation with anyone other than their chain of command or rep

1282
Q

Related employees will not be assigned to the same command when either one holds what position?

A

Commander

1283
Q

Non-uniformed employees can be placed on Industrial Disability Leave (IDL) of they miss more than how many days of work because of an injury?

A

3 days

1284
Q

For employees eligible for Non-Industrial Disability Leave (NDI), how many days must they wait before their payments start?

A

7 days

1285
Q

If the department decides to disability retire someone, how much written notice is the department required to give them?

A

15 days

1286
Q

What types of leave are considered temporary separations (STILL-D)?

A
  1. Leave of absence or military
  2. Suspensions
  3. Termination for medical
  4. Involuntary leave
  5. Layoff
  6. Disability retirement
1287
Q

What types of leave are considered permanent separations (FARR-DD)?

A
  1. Dismissal
  2. AWOL
  3. Resignation
  4. Rejection during probation
  5. Death
  6. Failure to meet conditions of employment
1288
Q

If a Commander realizes on January 1 that employees are over the maximum allowable vacation hours of 816, by which date are they to send a memo to HRS listing the employees who have been directed to burn their leave credits down?

A

By March 1

1289
Q

By which date is the Commander required to review the vacation leave balances for EXCLUDED employees to determine if they need to burn leave credits down?

A

By June 1

1290
Q

An employee is entitled to review ALL of their employee records with the exception of what?

A

Any medical or psychiatric reports that the employer believes would be detrimental to the employee

1291
Q

OT shall not be authorized to augment patrol strength to meet a continuing problem without prior approval from who?

A

Commissioner

1292
Q

An employee must work a minimum of how many hours in order to earn a 30-60 minute lunch?

A

5 hours

1293
Q

CHP 415’s, CHP 71’s and STD. 634’s must be submitted by the timekeeper within how many days of the end of the pay period?

A

4 days

1294
Q

Employees should maintain a balance of how many “excess” hours?

A

16-40 hours

1295
Q

A Commander may certify a sergeant as on-call if they have been on-call for at least how many days in a pay period?

A

10

1296
Q

When a Commander makes a copy of the “pay and direct deposit dates chart” and posts it, what shall be printed at the bottom of it?

A

The command name and address

1297
Q

By which date shall Commanders submit Special Pay Reports to HRS each year?

A

By May 1

1298
Q

If an employee requests a bilingual audit, within how many days of the request shall it be completed?

A

90 days

1299
Q

Organizational Charts are due to HQ by which date of each year?

A

November 15

1300
Q

If an EXCLUDED employee performs higher class duties for more than how many days, they shall receive the pay of the higher class?

A

15 consecutive WORKING days

1301
Q

Managerial employees can receive the “out of class” higher pay if they perform acting duties for more than how many days?

A

90 days

1302
Q

In regards to Citizen’s Complaints, what is the CHP 240B?

A

Complaint against officer

1303
Q

In regards to Citizen’s Complaints, what is the CHP 240D?

A

Complaint against non-uniformed

1304
Q

In regards to Citizen’s Complaints, can the parent of a juvenile file a 3rd party complaint?

A

No, but anyone else who was NOT present can

1305
Q

In regards to forced blood draws, is a warrant required when the person is on PRCS, parole, probation, or has a search clause?

A

No

1306
Q

In regards to forced blood draws, is a warrant required for a blood draw on an unconscious person?

A

Yes

1307
Q

In regards to DUI, what is the presumptive DUI BAC limit?

A

.05

1308
Q

What is the preferred chemical test when testing for Depressants?

A

Blood

1309
Q

Under what 5 circumstances could an officer make a warrantless DUI arrest inside a residence?

A
  1. Driver is DUI
  2. Driver is home
  3. DUI is an element of the crime being investigated
  4. BAC evidence is in danger of imminent destruction
  5. Time between crime and arrest is brief enough to still show BAC is present
1310
Q

If a DUI suspect is cited and released, what shall be noted on the CHP 215?

A
  1. Responsible person name and DL is noted in “violation” section
  2. Check “booking required”; completed CHP 194

Responsible party shall be requested to sign the CHP 202F

1311
Q

In regards to DUI, a minimum of how much blood is required to be collected for the chemical test?

A

3 milliliters

1312
Q

In regards to DUI, urine tests may only be taken how many minutes after the bladder was voided?

A

20 minutes

1313
Q

In regards to the use of legal intervention during pursuits, ramming (PIT) should not occur at speeds over what?

A

35 MPH

1314
Q

In regards to the use of legal intervention during pursuits, school buses with kids, buses with passengers, haz-mat vehicles or other vehicles that may be hazardous should not or shall not be spiked?

A

Should not

1315
Q

In regards to the use of legal intervention during pursuits, what vehicle(s) shall not be spiked?

A
  1. Motorcycles, or…

2. Mopeds

1316
Q

In regards to the use of legal intervention during pursuits, when would an officer be authorized to ram a motorcycle or moped?

A

When deadly force is authorized

1317
Q

Under what circumstances would an officer be authorized to employ a roadblock?

A
  1. When attempting to apprehend a felon who committed a forcible or atrocious felony, or…
  2. While assisting with disaster relief
1318
Q

In regards to using personal weapons, what are the areas that should be targeted (BENT-G)?

A
  1. Back
  2. Eyes
  3. Neck
  4. Throat
  5. Groin
1319
Q

In regards to handcuffing, under what circumstances would an officer consider handcuffing a subject to the FRONT (SIDE-V)?

A
  1. Sick
  2. Injured
  3. Disabled
  4. Elderly
  5. Visibly pregnant
1320
Q

How many spit socks should be carried in each patrol vehicle?

A

1

**In the truck (in the first aid kit)

1321
Q

When transporting a combative subject, who shall be notified?

A

The jail, prior to arrival

1322
Q

When OC is used on a subject, within how many minutes must their face and eyes be flushed?

A

30 minutes

1323
Q

How many less lethal shotguns shall be deployed per shift?

A

At least 1

1324
Q

In regards to the ECD/CEW, what areas shall the officer avoid targeting?

A
  1. Head
  2. Neck
  3. Face
  4. Throat
  5. Groin
  6. Spine
1325
Q

In regards to the ECD/CEW, when shall the officer not deploy the ECD/CEW?

A
  1. Subject exposed to, or near, FLAMMABLE environment
  2. Subject could fall a substantial HEIGHT
  3. Subject could fall into WATER
1326
Q

In regards to the ECD/CEW, officers shall not remove probes from what areas?

A
  1. Head and eyes
  2. Groin
  3. Breast area of females
  4. Throat
  5. Neck
  6. Spinal column
  7. Joints
1327
Q

In regards to transporting prisoners, when the patrol vehicle is equipped with an eye bolt, what color strap shall be used to secure them?

A

Blue

1328
Q

What does a U-Visa do, and within how many days must it be reviewed?

A
  1. A U-Visa grants relief from deportation and permission to work in the US to specified crime victims.
  2. The application must be reviewed within 90 days.

**If the victim is subject to immigration removal, the application must be reviewed within 14 days.

1329
Q

In regards to immunity procedures for Honorary Consular and Consular Employees, employees from what countries shall not be arrested or detained, regardless of the circumstances?

A

Russia or China

1330
Q

A minor may be detained in lock-up under what circumstances?

A
  1. 14+ years old
  2. In custody for breaking criminal law
  3. Officer believes they are serious security risk of harm to self or others
1331
Q

If a minor is 14+ years old, in custody for breaking the law, and believed to be a serious security risk of harm to self or others, they may be locked in a room or cell under what conditions?

A
  1. Can’t be longer than 6 hours (or go to juvie)
  2. Detention must be to further investigate, or to facilitate release or booking
  3. Must be separated from adults
  4. Must be told how long incarceration will last
  5. Must be supervised
  6. Agency must document and keep record
1332
Q

When CHP 215’s are issued by an officer assigned to drive a PCFV vehicle, what special code shall be used?

A

66

1333
Q

What constitutes an emergency incident zone?

A

500 feet in same direction of stationary emergency vehicle with lights on

1334
Q

What constitutes a Farm Labor Vehicle?

A

Any motor vehicle that is designed, used, or maintained for the transportation of 9+ farmworkers, in addition to the driver to or from the place of employment; excluded is any vehicle carrying only immediate family of the owner/driver.

1335
Q

What color are permanent handicap placards, and when do they expire?

A
  1. Blue

2. Expire 6/30 of ODD numbered years

1336
Q

What color are temporary handicap placards, and when do they expire?

A
  1. Red

2. Expire every 6 months

1337
Q

When shall victims of sexual, hate, or DV crimes be advised of their right to remain confidential?

A

Prior to the initiation of a report

1338
Q

What is a DV victim entitled to during any interview by law enforcement, prosecutors, or defense attorneys?

A

They are entitled to have a counselor or support person present

1339
Q

In regards to DV incidents, served Protective Orders shall be retained at the Area for how long?

A
  1. Felonies - 4 years

2. Misdemeanors - 2 years

1340
Q

In regards to DV incidents, if an officer can’t arrest a suspect because there’s no proof or verification of service of a Restraining Order or Emergency Protective Order, what shall they advise the victim of?

A

That they can make a private persons arrest

1341
Q

When a PUBLIC school teacher is arrested for controlled substances or sexual crime, who shall immediately be notified by phone, and in writing?

A
  1. Phone - Superintendent of school district

2. Writing - Commission on teacher credentialing and Superintendent in their county

1342
Q

When a NON-TEACHER in any PUBLIC school is arrested for controlled substances or sexual crime, who shall immediately be notified by phone, and in writing?

A
  1. Phone - Superintendent of school district

2. Writing - Governing board of school district

1343
Q

When a PRIVATE school teacher is arrested for controlled substances or sexual crime, who shall immediately be notified by phone, and in writing, of the arrest?

A
  1. Phone - Private school authority employing the teacher

2. Writing - Same

1344
Q

When a COMMUNITY COLLEGE TEACHER/INSTRUCTOR is arrested for controlled substances or sexual crime, who shall immediately be notified by phone, and in writing, of the arrest?

A

Phone - Superintendent of the community college district employing the teacher/instructor

Writing - Office of the Chancellor of the California Community Colleges

1345
Q

In regards to employee relations and employee rights, supervisory employees are NOT entitled to what (CREB)?

A
  1. Contracts
  2. Right to file unfair labor practice charge
  3. Exclusive representation
  4. Bargaining units
1346
Q

In regards to employee relations and employee rights, managerial, confidential, and other non-supervisory excluded employees are NOT entitled to what (CREB)?

A
  1. Contracts
  2. Right to file unfair labor practice charge
  3. Exclusive representation
  4. Bargaining units
1347
Q

Area reps are allowed how much release time to prepare for officer involved shootings?

A

8 hours

1348
Q

A copy of a grievance or complaint shall be sent to Division and OER within how many days?

A

Within 5 WORKING days after issuance of the response at Level 1

1349
Q

In regards to grievances for EXCLUDED employees, the employee must have an informal discussion with the supervisor within how many days of the event?

A

10 WORKING days

1350
Q

In regards to grievances for EXCLUDED employees, within how many days of the informal discussion shall the supervisor render a response or decision?

A

5 WORKING days

1351
Q

In regards to grievances for EXCLUDED employees, if the issue isn’t resolved at the informal discussion level, within how many days shall the employee complete a CHP 94 and submit a formal grievance to Level 1?

A
  1. Within 10 WORKING days of original event, or…

2. Within 5 WORKING days of the supervisor response at the informal discussion level

1352
Q

In regards to grievances for EXCLUDED employees, within how many days of the employees appeal to Level 1, shall the department respond to the employee?

A

10 WORKING days

1353
Q

In regards to grievances for EXCLUDED employees, if the issue isn’t resolved at Level 1, within how many days shall the employee appeal to Level 2?

A

10 WORKING days

1354
Q

In regards to grievances for EXCLUDED employees, within how many days of the employees appeal to Level 2, shall the department respond to the employee?

A

15 WORKING days

1355
Q

In regards to grievances for EXCLUDED employees, within how many days of the employees appeal to Level 4, shall CalHR respond to the employee?

A

20 WORKING days

1356
Q

Grievances shall be kept at the Area for how many years following final action?

A

3 years

1357
Q

Complaints shall be kept at the Area for how many years following final action?

A

1 year

1358
Q

If relocation reimbursement has been approved for an employee, within how many years of the move is the employee required to sell their home?

A

2 years

1359
Q

If a citizen uses a credit card to purchase a collision report or photos, within how many hours of the purchase shall the Area send the credit card info to FMS?

A

24 hours

1360
Q

A book of 25 vouchers for collision reports can be purchased for how much?

A

$250

1361
Q

In regards to reimbursable services OT contracts, within how many days of the end of the detail shall all billing documents be sent to FMS?

A

10 BUSINESS days after detail

1362
Q

In regards to reimbursable services OT contracts, if the contract is for LESS than 30 days, how much of the deposit shall be collected?

A

Full deposit

1363
Q

In regards to reimbursable services OT contracts, if the contract is for MORE than 30 days, how much of the deposit shall be collected?

A

At least 50%

1364
Q

In regards to NON-CHP employees, DOJ, fingerprint, and DL checks shall be done when they are present for contracted work at our facilities for how long?

A

90+ days

1365
Q

In regards to NON-CHP employees, ONLY DL checks shall be done when they are present for contracted work at our facilities for how long?

A

30+ days

1366
Q

In regards to X-numbers, how many quotes are required before obtaining good or services from CERTIFIED businesses?

A

2

1367
Q

In regards to X-numbers, how many quotes are required before obtaining good or services from NON-CERTIFIED businesses?

A

3

1368
Q

In regards to X-numbers, how many quotes are required before obtaining good or services in an emergency?

A

None

1369
Q

In regards to invoices, a vendor must be notified in writing of a disputed invoice within how many days of receiving it?

A

15 BUSINESS days

1370
Q

In regards to the Information Privacy Act, if an employee wishes to inspect any/all records pertaining to them, how, and to whom, shall they submit their request.

A
  1. In WRITING, to…

2. The AREA WHERE THE RECORDS ARE KEPT

1371
Q

In regards to the Information Privacy Act, if an employee wishes to inspect any/all records pertaining to them, within how many days of submitting their request, shall they be allowed the opportunity to review them during normal business hours?

A

30 days

1372
Q

In regards to the Information Privacy Act, if an employee wishes to inspect any/all ARCHIVED records pertaining to them, within how many days of submitting their request, shall they be allowed the opportunity to review them during normal business hours?

A

60 days

1373
Q

What are the 4 objectives of the Injury and Illness Case Management program (BRCR)?

A
  1. Benefits
  2. Reporting
  3. Communication
  4. Return to Work
1374
Q

What are the 5 elements of the Occupational Safety program (HIP-DH)?

A
  1. Injury and Illness Prevention Program
  2. Hazardous Substances Program
  3. Defensive Driver Training
  4. Hazardous Exposure Control Program
  5. Personal Protective Equipment
1375
Q

The Cal OSHA 300 log shall be posted in the Area from when to when?

A

February 1 to April 30

1376
Q

Recordable collisions are separated into what 5 categories (SUMA-M)?

A
  1. Marked auto sedans
  2. Unmarked auto sedans
  3. Special purpose
  4. Motorcycles
  5. Aircraft
1377
Q

During the Annual Fitness Challenge, who/what shall be present before the event starts?

A
  1. CHP EMT with oxygen

2. EMT bag

1378
Q

In regards to the Annual Fitness challenge, who shall not be allowed to participate?

A
  1. Those on limited duty

2. Those pending an AA with a recommendation for termination

1379
Q

In regards to the Annual Fitness Challenge, are injuries sustained wile PREPARING for the event considered work-related?

A

No

1380
Q

In regards to the Annual Fitness Challenge, an employee’s heart rate must be below what in order to participate?

A

90 bpm

1381
Q

In regards to the Annual Fitness Challenge, an employee’s blood pressure must be below what in order to participate?

A

140/90 within 30 minutes of the start

1382
Q

In regards to the Occupational Safety program, the TARGET numbers are set by who, and based on what?

A
  1. Set by Executive Management

2. Based on 3 year average

1383
Q

In regards to the Occupational Safety program, commanders shall schedule safety inspections at their facility how often?

A

Semi-annually; preceding the COSC meeting

1384
Q

In regards to the Occupational Safety program, uniformed personnel are required to complete how much commentary driving annually?

A

1 hour

1385
Q

In regards to the Occupational Safety program, non-uniformed personnel are required to complete how much commentary driving annually?

A

30 minutes to 1 hour

1386
Q

In regards to the Occupational Safety program, employees are required to wear hearing protection when the noise exceeds what?

A

90 decibles

1387
Q

In regards to the facility HVAC system, air monitoring results shall be posted within how many days of receipt by the Area?

A

5 WORKING days

1388
Q

In regards to performance appraisals, what are the 7 potential rater errors?

A
  1. Halo or Horns Effect
  2. Lenient or Harsh Effect
  3. Central Tendency Effect
  4. Similar to Me Effect
  5. Contrast Effect
  6. First or Last Impression Effect
  7. Stereotype Effect
1389
Q

In regards to performance appraisals, what are the 3 rating categories on CHP 118’s?

A
  1. Excellent
  2. Proficient
  3. Deficient
1390
Q

In regards to performance appraisals, what are the 3 rating categories on CHP 100’s?

A
  1. Excellent
  2. Proficient
  3. Needs Improvement
1391
Q

Cultural Awareness and Ethics training is conducted how often and by who?

A
  1. Every 4th calendar year, by…

2. A sergeant or above, who has attended AICC and been certified by a Museum of Tolerance trainer

1392
Q

When does the CHP conduct language surveys?

A

October 1, EVEN numbered years

1393
Q

In order to participate in the LEAP program, the employee must have what kind of disability?

A

A certified visual, hearing, speech, physical, or developmental disability

1394
Q

In regards to CHP 415 entries, what information shall be documented for a VERBAL WARNING?

A
  1. Violation
  2. DL#; if none, name and DOB
  3. LP# or VIN; if DL# or name wasn’t obtained
1395
Q

In regards to CHP 415 entries, what information shall be documented for a MOTORIST SERVICE?

A
  1. LP# or VIN
1396
Q

In regards to CHP 415 entries, what information shall be documented for an ADV?

A
  1. LP# or VIN
1397
Q

In regards to CHP 415 entries, what information shall be documented for a CHP 422?

A
  1. LP# or VIN
1398
Q

In regards to CHP 415 entries, what information shall be documented for an “assist”?

A
  1. Name of agency or CHP ID#

2. Comment on type of assistance

1399
Q

In regards to evidence processing, shall pills be weighed or counted?

A

Weighed, regardless of quantity

1400
Q

In regards to crime scenes, what are the 7 types of searches you can conduct?

A
  1. Point-to-point
  2. Strip search
  3. Double strip search
  4. Quadrant
  5. Aerial
  6. Wheel
  7. Circular
1401
Q

All evidence shall be entered into AIS within how many days of seizure?

A

2 BUSINESS days

1402
Q

MVARS DVD’s shall be pre-flighted with what information?

A
  1. Date
  2. Shift
  3. PV#
  4. ID#
1403
Q

What are the priorities and objectives of an Incident Action Plan (LIP)?

A
  1. Life safety
  2. Incident Stabilization
  3. Property Conservation
1404
Q

CHP Operational Plans for scheduled or anticipated events shall be documented using what 5 operation plan headings (MACES)?

A
  1. Mission
  2. Administrative instructions
  3. Concept of operations
  4. Execution
  5. Situation
1405
Q

In regards to possible bomb incidents, CHP employees shall only conduct what kind of searches?

A
  1. Visual, and…

2. Facility searches

1406
Q

In regards to possible bomb incidents, CHP radios shall not be used within how many feet of a suspicious vehicle?

A

300 feet

1407
Q

In regards to civil disturbances, what color should be worn by each squad (for differentiation) for uniformity throughout the state?

A
  1. Managers - Yellow
  2. Squad 1 - Red
  3. Squad 2 - White
  4. Squad 3 - Blue
  5. Squad 4 - Green
  6. Squad 5 - Orange
  7. Grenadiers - Black
1408
Q

In regards to the less-lethal shotgun, when it’s stored in the trunk, how many rounds are stored with it?

A
  1. 7 on the butt stock

2. 5 in the case

1409
Q

In regards to the uniform policy, US Flag decals shall be worn on what helmets?

A
  1. Motorcycle helmets
  2. Bicycle helmets
  3. Aviation helmets
1410
Q

In regards to registration enforcement, ONE-DAY trip permits must be completed within how many days and cannot exceed how many miles round-trip?

A
  1. Within 60 days

2. 100 miles round-trip

1411
Q

Golf carts are required to be registered if driven on the road, unless what?

A

The person driving can’t move as a pedestrian

1412
Q

The CHP is required to inspect and certify school buses, youth buses, and SPABS’s, at least how ofter?

A

Every 13 months

1413
Q

School buses may stop (double-park) to unload/load children if what?

A
  1. Speed limit is 25 MPH or less

2. 200 feet of visibility in each direction

1414
Q

In regards to vehicle storage/impound procedures, if the officer doesn’t enter the estimated value of a vehicle within how many days, the tow operator is required to?

A

3 days

1415
Q

To release a vehicle to a repossessor, the repossessor shall present a copy of the assignment, and which 1 of 3 documents?

A
  1. Certificate of repossession
  2. Title showing ownership
  3. Security agreement
1416
Q

In regards to DL’s, what are the “good service” codes?

A

A, B, D, H, J, I, M

**A, needs to be 45 days old to be considered “good service”

1417
Q

When issuing a CHP 215, other than the violator’s signature, what can go into the signature box (CORPIS)?

A
  1. Complaint to be filed
  2. Owner’s responsibility
  3. Refused
  4. Parental notification
  5. In-custody
  6. Statistical purposes only
1418
Q

In regards to air Ops, the maximum weight for crew-members is how much?

A

275 pounds

1419
Q

In regards to Air Ops, when flying the airplane, flight shall terminate how long prior to an empty gas tank when flying at day and night?

A
  1. Day - 30 minutes

2. Night - 45 minutes

1420
Q

In regards to Air Ops, when flying the helicopter, flight shall terminate how long prior to an empty gas tank ?

A

20 minutes

1421
Q

In regards to Air Ops, actual pilot flight time shall not exceed what per day?

A

8 hours

1422
Q

In regards to Air Ops, how much rest shall pilots have between shifts?

A

At least 10 hours

1423
Q

In regards to publications, a GO shall not exceed how many pages, including attachments?

A

25 pages

1424
Q

In regards to publications, a MM shall not exceed how many pages, including attachments?

A

20 pages

1425
Q

In regards to publications, MM’s are generally good for up to how many months?

A

9 months, but may be extended an additional 6 months

1426
Q

In regards to publications, what is the purpose of MM’s?

A

To provide temporary issuance of policy

1427
Q

In regards to publications, what is the purpose of IB’s?

A

To make CHP employees aware of changes to law

1428
Q

In regards to publications, what is the purpose of HPH’s?

A

To quote law and policy; available to public

1429
Q

In regards to publications, what is the purpose of HPG’s?

A

To restate policy

1430
Q

Comm-Nets containing policies or procedures expire how many days from the date of message?

A

90 days

1431
Q

When a Comm-Net expires, within how many days shall the policy or procedure be put into a HPM, GO, or MM?

A

45 days

1432
Q

Policy is established in what publications?

A
  1. GO’s
  2. HPM’s
  3. Sometimes Comm-Net’s and MM’s
1433
Q

Per the EMS policy, if an AED is used by an employee at the scene of an incident, within how many days of the event shall the CHP 330 be forwarded to the Academy?

A

2 BUSINESS days

1434
Q

Generally, marked pursuit rated vehicles, including motorcycles, PCFV’s, and canine vehicles, which are NOT all-terrain (4x4), should be replaced after how many miles?

A

100,000

1435
Q

Generally, MARKED special purpose, undercover, pick-ups, all-terrain (4x4), and other Class-C vehicles, should be replaced after how many miles?

A

125,000

1436
Q

Generally, UNMARKED special purpose sedans (pool vehicles), light and heavy trucks, motor carrier vans, and other transportation or vocational vehicles, should be replaced after how many miles?

A

150,000

1437
Q

A state gas card can be used up to how many TIMES A DAY, for a maximum of how much PER DAY, and for a maximum of how much PER MONTH?

A
  1. Used a maximum of 5 times per day
  2. Spend a maximum of $500 per day
  3. Spend a maximum of $2500 per month
1438
Q

Per the hazmat policy, how many radiological response kits shall be kept at each Area office?

A

2

1439
Q

In regards to Departmental Awards, what are the 4 state-level awards available to all state employees?

A
  1. Medal of Valor, Special Act (Gold Medal)
  2. Medal of Valor, Special Service (Silver Medal)
  3. Superior Accomplishment (Gold and Silver Award)
  4. Sustained Superior Accomplishment
1440
Q

Who does the CHP serve tax seizure warrants for?

A
  1. Board of Equalization
  2. Franchise Tax Board
  3. Employment Development Department
1441
Q

All CHP tax seizures must be done within how many days of receipt?

A

60 days

1442
Q

Kaitlyn’s Law prohibits anyone from leaving a child of what age unattended in a motor vehicle without the supervision of someone at least how old?

A
  1. A child of 6 years of age or younger

2. Someone at least 12 years of age or older

1443
Q

What are the 4 departmental goals according to the 2020-2024 Strategic Plan?

A
  1. Protect life and property
  2. Enhance Public Trust through superior service
  3. Invest in out people
  4. Anticipate public safety and law enforcement trends and provide assistance to allied agencies
1444
Q

What are the CHP’s Organizational Values (R.E.E.F.)?

A
  1. Respect for others
  2. Ethical practices
  3. Equitable treatment for all
  4. Fairness
1445
Q

When is a CHP 468A, Enforcement Vehicle Shortage Report, required to be completed?

A

Each time a shortage of enforcement vehicles is experienced during a shift

1446
Q

All commands shall submit a CHP 468, Vehicle Allocation, along with any CHP 468A’s, Enforcement Vehicle Shortage Report, to Division by which date?

A

June 1

1447
Q

All vehicles, OTHER THAN WHAT, are assigned to the command pool?

A

Motorcycles

1448
Q

In regards to fleet operations, motorcycles may be allocated to who?

A

Individual riders

1449
Q

In regards to fleet operations, Commanders’ and enforcement vehicles are designated as what CLASS vehicles?

A

E

1450
Q

In regards to fleet operations, motorcycles, are designated with what PREFIX?

A

M

1451
Q

In regards to fleet operations, a request for a “cold plated” undercover vehicle shall be routed to who for approval?

A

Commissioner

1452
Q

Commands with canine vehicles shall inform fleet operations they need a new vehicle how many days prior to it reaching the replacement mileage?

A

90 days

1453
Q

In regards to fleet operations, who’s permission is required before an employee transports a vehicle point-to-point within the state for official state business?

A

Commander

1454
Q

In regards to fleet operations, what is a NON-UNIFORMED employee required to complete before they can transport a vehicle point-to-point within the state for official state business?

A

Driver training

1455
Q

In regards to fleet operations, UNLESS the driver is a uniformed member of the Department and is in full uniform while driving, what shall be posted conspicuously in the rear side windows when transporting a marked enforcement vehicle point-to-point?

A

“Out-of-Service” signs

1456
Q

In regards to fleet operations, when is a vehicle subject to survey?

A
  1. Vehicle repair expenses exceed .10 cents per remaining mile of service, or…
  2. Vehicle has exceeded 100,000 miles
1457
Q

Upon receiving the fuel summary report from Division, within how many days shall the Area reconcile it (with receipts and CHP 33’s), and forward it back to Division?

A

15 days

1458
Q

Prior to affixing bumper stickers and accouterments to patrol vehicles, who’s permission is required?

A

Commissioner

1459
Q

When using Fleet-Focus, each vehicle’s mileage shall be entered by what day each month?

A

The 10th

1460
Q

All part expenditures, purchase orders, and transfer information for vehicle parts and supplies with a unit COST of MORE THAN what amount, shall be entered into Fleet-Focus?

A

$5

1461
Q

CHP 33, Driver’s Equipment Check, and CHP 33E’s, Vehicle Inspection Checklist, shall be retained in the vehicle folder for how long?

A

3 years after the vehicle survey

1462
Q

Under what 3 circumstances shall a CHP 57, Motor Vehicle Assignment and Transfer, be prepared?

A
  1. Vehicle originally assigned to a command
  2. Vehicle transferred between commands
  3. Vehicle going out-of-service
1463
Q

In regards to vehicle utilization, in a 6-month period, all state-owned vehicles need to be used how many MILES, or what PERCENTAGE of the work days it is available?

A
  1. At least 6,000 miles, or…

2. 80%

1464
Q

In regards to vehicle utilization, Commanders shall be responsible for conducting a utilization review of their departmental fleet at what interval?

A

Semi-annually

1465
Q

In regards to vehicle utilization, vehicles NOT meeting minimum-usage requirements shall be returned to Fleet Operations within how many days following the utilization review reporting period?

A

60 days

1466
Q

In regards to vehicle utilization, any vehicle underutilized for HOW MANY many utilization review reporting periods, shall be returned to Fleet Operations?

A

2

1467
Q

A speedometer found to be inaccurate by MORE than how many MPH’s shall be replaced?

A

4 MPH

1468
Q

Road flares shall be carried WHERE and HOW?

A
  1. In the trunk/cargo area

2. Capped

1469
Q

The 4-point lug wrench shall be stored in the trunk, in what position?

A

Vertical

1470
Q

The shovel shall be stored in the trunk, in what position?

A

Horizontal

1471
Q

Under what circumstance can gasoline be stored in a vehicle?

A

None, regardless of container

1472
Q

In regards to vehicle damage repairs, what are the 3 types or repair work(CON)?

A
  1. Operational
  2. Collision
  3. Not-due-to-collision
1473
Q

Whenever possible, how many repair estimates should be obtained if the repair costs EXCEED $500?

A

3

1474
Q

What is a minimum gasoline order?

A

90% of tank size for both underground or aboveground storage tanks.

1475
Q

If a gasoline contractor attempts to deliver fuel to a site, but gets detained for reasons caused by the ordering agency (i.e. locked gates, unavailable receiving personnel), the contractor shall be entitled to what?

A

A demurrage fee

1476
Q

If a gasoline contractor is delayed in delivering to an Area office, and ends of charging a demurrage fee, the fee shall not exceed what?

A
  1. $2.50 per minute, and…

2. $150 per delivery

1477
Q

There shall be NO smoking, open flame, or use of cellular telephone within how many feet of the fuel delivery system?

A

25 feet

1478
Q

Commanders shall ensure a supply of vehicle parts and supplies for HOW MANY DAYS is always maintained?

A

90 days

1479
Q

When using the State Fuel Credit Card, the maximum amount for an EMERGENCY purchase of MINOR vehicle parts shall not exceed what?

A

$50

1480
Q

How often shall a Commander designate someone to physically count/inventory ALL tires (and related tools and receipts), vehicle parts, accessories, and fluids?

A

Quarterly

1481
Q

When a Commander designates someone to physically count/inventory ALL tires (and related tools and receipts), vehicle parts, accessories, and fluids on a QUARTERLY basis, how long shall the inventory records be retained for?

A
  1. 6 months after an inspection by OIG, or…

2. 3 years

1482
Q

The Departments Coaching/Mentoring Program policy extends to WHO, and WHY?

A
  1. All ranks and classifications, except the rank of officers
  2. Officers participate in FTEP
1483
Q

In regards to the Coaching/Mentoring Program, who is a COACH?

A

The mentee’s direct supervisor

1484
Q

In regards to the Coaching/Mentoring Program, the COACH and MENTOR shall initially meet with the MENTEE within how many days of the mentee’s new assignment?

A

30 days

1485
Q

OUT-SERVICE training is comprised of what 4 categories?

A
  1. Job-required training
  2. Job-related training
  3. Upward mobility training
  4. Career-related training
1486
Q

In regards to out-service-training, when requesting tuition assistance for accredited university/college courses, what must an employee ALREADY have on file at their Division?

A

Career Development Plan

1487
Q

In regards to out-service-training, when seeking reimbursement for expenses incurred, within how many days of completing the course shall the employee send their request through CalATERS.

A

30 days

1488
Q

When traveling into bordering states for out-service-training, if it’s less than how many days, approval is NOT required from the Governor’s Operation Office?

A

5 consecutive WORKING days

1489
Q

Candidates attending Command College and SBSLI must reside in the host hotel even if they reside within how many MILES of the training location?

A

50 miles

1490
Q

Training documented on the CHP 270, Service Record, shall be entered into ETRS by the command within how many days of the completion of training?

A

10 BUSINESS days

1491
Q

Upon transfer, an employee’s ETRS records shall be forward to their new command within how many days of the official reporting date?

A

10 BUSINESS days

1492
Q

When an employee separates from the Department, or is terminated, what shall happen to their ETRS file?

A
  1. Made inactive, and…

2. Remain under last command

1493
Q

For Organizational Development Section-mandated courses, in order to obtain credit for the course, students are only allowed to miss up to what PERCENTAGE of the scheduled course, before they will be required to make up the entire training course?

A

10%

1494
Q

During the probationary period, Commanders shall evaluate all newly promoted or newly hired first-line supervisors using what DIMENSION CRITERIA; formerly used during the assessment center process?

A

12-dimension criteria

1495
Q

During the one-year probationary period, Commanders shall evaluate all newly promoted or newly hired middle managers using what DIMENSION CRITERIA; formerly used during the assessment center process?

A

8-dimension criteria

1496
Q

What does SROVT stand for?

A

Solid, Realistic, Ongoing, Verifiable Training Program

1497
Q

SROVT training scenarios should be able to be presented within what TIME-SPAN?

A

6 minutes

1498
Q

It is incumbent on field commanders and managers to understand the SROVT Program is a WHAT?

A

A risk management tool

1499
Q

Commanders shall review and submit copies of completed CHP 330’s to the Academy by what date, each month?

A

5th WORKING day

1500
Q

Who is exempt from having to take CPR training?

A

Lieutenants and above

1501
Q

CPR training, for sergeants and below, is required to be completed when?

A
  1. Within the FIRST quarter, of…

2. ODD numbered years

1502
Q

Uniformed employees who desire to instruct a first-aid course to the GENERAL PUBLIC must receive authorization from WHO first?

A
  1. Local chapter of the American Red Cross, or…

2. American Heart Association in the area where the class will be held

1503
Q

Departmentally-issued CPR masks which include a one-way valve shall be readily available WHEN, and USED when?

A
  1. Readily available while on duty

2. Used when administering CPR

1504
Q

How long shall CHP 121’s, CHP 121A’s, and/or CHP 51’s (memo) for HIV or communicable diseases be retained for?

A

30 years beyond the involved employee’s date of separation from the Department

1505
Q

When an employee has been exposed to HIV or communicable disease, what shall the supervisor do to the SOURCE PATIENT?

A

Question them

1506
Q

In regards to HIV or communicable disease exposure, when the SOURCE PATIENT is deceased, and INFORMED CONSENT is NOT available, can a blood test sample be taken from the deceased?

A

Yes

1507
Q

In regards to HIV or communicable disease exposure, if a SOURCE PATIENT refuses to authorize an HIV antibody test, they may subsequently be required to do so by who?

A
  1. Court, or…

2. County health officer

1508
Q

Any uniformed employee having a positive TB screening test shall immediately notify WHO and WHEN?

A
  1. On-duty Area supervisor

2. Prior to leaving the healthcare providor’s office

1509
Q

Who shall be immediately notified when a potential anatomical gift donor is identified?

A
  1. Coroner (if dead)

2. Hospital (if near death)

1510
Q

An AED device should be accessible within what distance of a patient?

A

3-minute, fast paced walk, to retrieve and return to the patient

1511
Q

Per CVC 2413(a), who is designated as the Statewide Vehicle Theft Investigation and Apprehension coordinator?

A

Commissioner

1512
Q

The Commander shall ensure at least how many officers in their command are proficient in VIN identification functions?

A

At least one

1513
Q

Secondary VIN location information shall only be divulged to who?

A

Persons who’s names appear on the list of personnel authorized to have access to such information

1514
Q

In regards to the requisition, security, and accountability VIN plates, RIVETS are to be ordered in increments of what?

A

50

1515
Q

In regards to the requisition, security, and accountability VIN plates, UNNUMBERED VIN plates are to be ordered in increments of what?

A

5

1516
Q

In regards to the requisition, security, and accountability VIN plates, PRE-NUMBERED VIN plates are to be ordered in increments of what?

A

10

1517
Q

Any replacement VIN plate which is damaged prior to, or during application, or on which a typing error occurs, shall be rendered WHAT, and documented HOW?

A
  1. Rendered unusable, and…

2. Attached to a CHP 51 (memo) explaining the errors

1518
Q

Prior to using an informant who has a PENDING criminal case, who’s permission shall be obtained first?

A

The prosecutor or the agency responsible for the case against the informant

1519
Q

Per PC 701.5, a peace officer or agent of a peace officer, is prohibited from using a person under the age of what as a minor informant?

A

12 years of age, or younger

1520
Q

Per policy, CHP officers shall not conduct traffic enforcement stops for the primary purposes of WHAT, in the absence of WHAT?

A
  1. Drug interdiction
  2. Probable cause or reasonable suspicion to believe the motorist or an occupant of the vehicle is involved in illegal drug-related activity
1521
Q

In regards to asset forfeiture, a supervisors approval SHOULD OR SHALL be obtained prior to departmental personnel seizing any any asset?

A

Shall

1522
Q

In regards to asset forfeiture, when more than one agency is involved in an investigation , the Department will negotiate what?

A

An equitable share of the asset forfeiture proceeds

1523
Q

In regards to asset forfeiture, in the event the involved departments can’t agree on the equitable shares, who shall be the decisive arbitrator for STATE forfeitures?

A

Local DA

1524
Q

In regards to asset forfeiture, in the event the CHP is the only agency involved, what is the full equitable share amount the Department can request for STATE cases?

A

65%

1525
Q

In regards to asset forfeiture, in the event the CHP is the only agency involved, what is the full equitable share amount the Department can request for FEDERAL cases?

A

80%

1526
Q

In regards to asset forfeiture, the investigating agency may hold seized property for up to how many days to determine if there is sufficient evidence to file for forfeiture of the property?

A

15 days

1527
Q

In regards to asset forfeiture, after 15 days, what must an investigating agency do with the seized assets?

A
  1. Return to owner, or…

2. Hold for evidence for another legal reason

1528
Q

In regards to asset forfeiture, the Franchise Tax Board shall be notified when the seized property has a value in excess of what?

A

$5000

1529
Q

In regards to asset forfeiture, within how many days of an asset seizure shall the Division AFC be notified?

A

7 WORKING days

1530
Q

In regards to asset forfeiture, within how many days of a vehicle seizure shall the Division AFC be notified?

A

48 hours

1531
Q

In regards to asset forfeiture, reports and related documents for STATE cases, shall be forward to FSS through the Division AFC within how many days from the date of the seizure/incident?

A

60 days

1532
Q

In regards to asset forfeiture, reports and related documents for FEDERAL cases, shall be forward to FSS through the Division AFC within how many days from the date of the seizure/incident?

A

20 days

1533
Q

In regards to asset forfeiture, when a vehicle is seized, how many color photographs shall be taken?

A

At least 8; (4 exterior/4 interior)

1534
Q

In regards to asset forfeiture, cash assets in the Department’s possession, having no criminal evidentiary value (i.e. pending adjudication of the criminal and/or administrative forfeiture procedures), shall be deposited into an interest-bearing account within how many days?

A

10 WORKING days

1535
Q

In regards to ASSET FORFEITURE, what items/assets shall NOT be seized?

A
  1. Real property (real estate)
  2. Weapons
  3. Jewelry, cellular phones, and digital scales
1536
Q

In regards to asset forfeiture, reports and related documents for REGULAR (i.e. not STATE or FEDERAL) cases, shall be forward to the Division AFC within how many days from the date of the seizure/incident?

A

30 WORKING days

1537
Q

In regards to asset forfeiture, an officer shall complete a CHP 202 or CHP 216 within how many hours of the date of the seizure?

A

72 hours

2020 Lieutenants Test (3 decks)

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