Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PMP > Glossary of Terms 101-200 > Flashcards

Glossary of Terms 101-200 Flashcards

1
Q

An analytical technique to determine the information needs of the project stakeholders through interviews, workshops, or study of lessons learned from previous projects, etc.

A

Communication Requirements Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A technique to identify the preferred communication method, format, and content for stakeholders for planned communication activities.

A

Communication Styles Assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Specific tools, automated systems, computer programs, etc., used to transfer information among project stakeholders.

A

Communication Technology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan that describes how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated.

A

Communications Management Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

As described by E. Wenger in his book, Cultivating Communities of Practice, the CoP uses the same basic idea as used by Shell in their offshore drilling platforms to establish local forums of “experts” with the specific mandate to create an arena in which project managers would feel comfortable sharing their findings and learnings from their projects.

A

Community of Practice (CoP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A type of contract that is completed when the vendor delivers the product to the buyer and the buyer accepts the product.

A

Completion Contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A characteristic of a program, project, or its environment, which is difficult to manage due to human behavior, system behavior, or ambiguity.

A

Complexity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The state of meeting—or being in accord with—organizational, legal, certification or other relevant regulations.

A

Compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

An option in conflict management in which both parties give up something to reach an agreement.

A

Compromise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract.

A

Conduct Procurement Process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Agile term describing the difficulty of estimating early due to unknowns and how that should improve over time.

A

Cone of Uncertainty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Any component or project element that needs to be managed to ensure the successful delivery of the project, services, or result.

A

Configuration Item

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A tool used to manage changes to a product or service being produced as well as changes to any of the project documents—for example, schedule updates.

A

Configuration Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A component of the project management plan that describes how to identify and account for project artifacts under configuration control and how to record and report changes to them.

A

Configuration Management Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A collection of procedures used to track project artifacts and monitor and control changes to these artifacts.

A

Configuration Management System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Difference of opinion or agenda on a project amongst team members, stakeholders, or customers.

A

Conflict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The application of one or more strategies for dealing with disagreements that may be detrimental to team performance.

A

Conflict Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The process of working to reach an agreement after a conflict situation arises.

A

Conflict Resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Group decision technique in which the group agrees to support an outcome even if the individuals do not agree with the decision.

A

Consensus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

An external factor that limits the ability to plan. Constraints and assumptions are closely linked.

A

Constraint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A visual depiction of the product scope showing a business system (process, equipment, computer system, etc.), and how people and other systems (actors) interact with it.

A

Context Diagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A risk response strategy developed in advance before risks occur; it is meant to be used if and when identified risks become reality.

A

Contingency Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Time or money allocated in the schedule or cost baseline for known risks with active response strategies.

A

Contingency Reserve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A theory credited to Fred. E. Fielder which states that the set of skills and attributes that helped a project manager in one environment may work against them in another environment.

A

Contingency Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The ongoing effort to improve products, services, or processes.

A

Continuous Improvement (CI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The practice of regularly merging all software code into a shared environment, several times a day, to check code quality and functionality.

A

Continuous Integration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The systematic, ongoing effort to improve products, services, or processes in an organization.

A

Continuous Process Improvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A mutually binding agreement that obligates the seller to provide the specified project or service or result and obligates the buyer to pay for it.

A

Contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The system used to collect, track, adjudicate, and communicate changes to a contract.

A

Contract Change Control System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A management control point at which scope, budget, actual cost, and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement.

A

Control Account

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A graphic display of process data over time and against established control limits, which has a centerline that assists in detecting a trend of plotted values toward either control limit. These charts are often associated with control limits, specification limits, means, and standard deviation. Control charts are used to analyze and communicate the variability of a process or project activity over time. See also “Variability Control Charts”.

A

Control Charts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Monitor and control project costs to ensure they align with the cost baseline/budget.

A

Control Costs Process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, making changes and corrections as appropriate, and closing out contracts.

A

Control Procurements Process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, this process is performed by the buyer to ensure compliance by the seller and the other party; it compares the terms in the agreement/contract.

A

Control Procurements Process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, this process focuses on the quality of deliverables.

A

Control Quality Process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, this process ensures that the flow and usage of physical resources line up with the plan.

A

Control Resources Process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, this process compares the planned work to the actual work.

A

Control Schedule Process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, this process ensures that changes to scope are properly controlled.

A

Control Scope Process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A type of PMO that provides support and requires compliance through various means. Compliance may involve adopting project management frameworks or methodologies; using specific templates, forms, and tools; or conformance to governance.

A

Controlling PMO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Steps (action) to bring future results in line with the plan; this can change the plan or the way the plan is being executed.

A

Corrective Action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Summing the lower-level cost estimates associated with the various work packages for a given level within the project’s WBS or for a given cost control account.

A

Cost Aggregation

42
Q

The approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any management reserves, which can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results. See also “Budget”.

A

Cost Baseline

43
Q

A financial analysis method used to determine the benefits provided by a project against its costs.

A

Cost-Benefit Analysis

44
Q

Cost estimates adjusted based on performance—i.e., Estimate at complete, budget at completion, estimate to complete, etc.

A

Cost Forecast

45
Q

A component of a project or program management plan that describes how costs will be planned, structured, and controlled.

A

Cost Management Plan

46
Q

The money spent during a project to avoid failures. This includes prevention costs that build a quality product and appraisal costs that assess the quality.

A

Cost of Conformance

47
Q

The money spent after a project is complete because of failures. This includes internal and external failure costs.

A

Cost of Non-Conformance

48
Q

All costs incurred over the life of the product by investment in preventing nonconformance to requirements, appraisal of the product or service for conformance to requirements, and failure to meet requirements.

A

Cost of Quality (CoQ)

49
Q

A measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as the ratio of earned value to actual cost.

A

Cost Performance Index (CPI)

50
Q

A category of contract that involves payments to the seller for all legitimate actual costs incurred for completed work, plus an award fee representing seller profit.

A

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF) contract

51
Q

A type of cost-reimbursable contract in which the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller’s allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract) plus a fixed amount of profit (fee).

A

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF) contract

52
Q

A type of cost-reimbursable contract in which the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller’s allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract), and the seller earns its profit if it meets defined performance criteria.

A

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) contract

53
Q

The amount of budget deficit or surplus at a given point in time, expressed as the difference between the earned value and the actual cost.

A

Cost Variance (CV)

54
Q

This type of analysis allows project managers to compare if the benefits of an action outweigh the costs or, conversely, if the costs outweigh the benefits. This can be an important criterion in decision making.

A

Cost-Benefit Analysis

55
Q

A type of contract involving payment to the seller for the seller’s actual costs, plus a fee typically representing the seller’s profit.

A

Cost-Reimbursable Contract

56
Q

Applying additional resources to one or more tasks/activities to complete the work more quickly. Crashing usually increases costs more than risks. In comparison, fast-tracking increases risks. See also “Fast Tracking”.

A

Crashing

57
Q

A planning processes that involves creating the work-break-down (WBS) structure, along with the WBS dictionary. This process produces the schedule baseline, which consists of the WBS, WBS dictionary and the scope statement. The scope statement is produced from the Define Scope process.

A

Create WBS Process

58
Q

The sequence of activities that represents the longest path through a project, which determines the shortest possible duration.

A

Critical Path

59
Q

Any activity on the critical path in a project schedule.

A

Critical Path Activity

60
Q

A technique of schedule analysis in which the schedule activities are evaluated to determine the float or slack for each activity and the overall schedule. To calculate critical path, use the forward and backward pass along with float analysis to identify all network paths, including critical.

A

Critical Path Method (CPM)

61
Q

Teams that have all the capabilities to deliver the work they’ve been assigned. Team members can specialize in certain skills, but the team can deliver what they’ve been called on to build. See also “self-organizing teams.”

A

Cross-Functional Team

62
Q

A collection of lightweight agile software development methods focused on adaptability to a particular circumstance.

A

Crystal Family of Methodologies.

63
Q

Understanding the cultural differences of the individuals, groups, and organizations in the project stakeholder community to adapt communication strategies to avoid or reduce miscommunication and misunderstandings.

A

Cultural Awareness

64
Q

The individual or organization that will accept the deliverable(s) or product. They can be internal organizational groups or external to an organization.

A

Customer

65
Q

Refers to the period from the time a team starts a task until the time it is completed. See also “lead time.”

A

Cycle Time

66
Q

A short, 15-minute meeting in which the complete team gets together for a quick status update while standing in a circle. Also referred to as a “daily scrum” or “standup”.

A

Daily Standup

67
Q

Refers to gathered empirical information, especially facts and numbers.

A

Data

68
Q

The act of scrutinizing facts and numbers for typical purposes of decision-making, verification, validation, or assessment.

A

Data Analysis

69
Q

Techniques used to solicit and document ideas—i.e., brainstorming, interviews, focus groups, questionnaires, surveys, and so on.

A

Data Gathering

70
Q

A way of depicting data visually to aid in its communication/comprehension to various audiences.

A

Data Representation

71
Q

Regulations that are widely accepted and adopted through use.

A

De Facto Regulations

72
Q

Regulations that are mandated by law or have been approved by a recognized body of experts.

A

De Jure Regulations

73
Q

An informal, collaborative means of discussing the positives and the negatives of a project, what worked, and what will be done differently next time. This discussion includes technology issues, people issues, vendor relationships, and organizational culture.

A

Debriefing

74
Q

The process of selecting a course of action from among multiple options.

A

Decision Making

75
Q

A diagramming and calculation technique for evaluating the implications of a chain of multiple options in the presence of uncertainty.

A

Decision Tree Analysis

76
Q

A technique used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts.

A

Decomposition

77
Q

An acronym used in agile projects that describes desirable attributes of a product backlog.

A

DEEP (Detailed, Estimable, Emergent and Prioritize)

78
Q

Part of the Planning Process Group, this process defines the activities (tasks) necessary to complete work packages/stories.

A

Define Activities Process

79
Q

Part of the Planning Process Group, this process produces the scope statement that depicts a detailed and complete understanding of the project’s vision.

A

Define Scope Process

80
Q

A team’s checklist of all the criteria required to be met so that a deliverable can be considered ready for customer use.

A

Definition of Done (DoD)

81
Q

A team’s checklist for a user-centric requirement that has all the information the team needs to be able to begin working on it.

A

Definition of Ready (DoR)

82
Q

Any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability used to perform a service and that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or projects.

A

Deliverable

83
Q

A form of gathering expert opinions in which members of a group are asked or polled anonymously.

A

Delphi Technique

84
Q

A review at the end of each iteration with the product owner and other customer stakeholders to review the progress of the product, get early feedback, and review an acceptance from the product owner of the stories delivered in the iteration. See also “Sprint Review”.
Dependency
A relationship between one or more tasks/activities. A dependency may be mandatory or discretionary, internal or external. See also “start-to-start”; “start-to-finish”; “finish-to-start”; and “finish-to-finish”.

A

Demo

85
Q

A set of technical guidelines that may be applied during the design of a product for the optimization of a specific aspect of the design. DfX can control or even improve the product’s final characteristics.

A

Design for X (DfX)

86
Q

A data analysis technique to determine the optimal condition; typically used with multiple variables.

A

Design of Experiments (DoE)

87
Q

Part of the Planning Process Group, this process produces the cost baseline/project budget.

A

Determine Budget Process

88
Q

A collection of practices for creating a smooth flow of delivery by improving collaboration between development and operations staff.

A

DevOps

89
Q

Part of the Initiating Process Group, this process produces the project charter, which officially starts the project.

A

Develop Project Charter

90
Q

A planning process which is a guide on how the project will be managed. It is composed of 19 components.

A

Develop Project Management Plan Process

91
Q

Part of the Planning Process Group, this process arranges activities to create the schedule baseline.

A

Develop Schedule Process

92
Q

Part of the Executing Process Group, this process enhances and empowers the team to improve teamwork and individual skills.

A

Develop Team Process

93
Q

Various means of depicting a system or virtual concept such as a business or process flow that indicate entities, relationships, and interactions.

A

Diagramming Techniques

94
Q

A group decision technique in which one person makes the decision for the entire group.

A

Dictatorship

95
Q

A Monitoring and Controlling process that reviews the entire project and analyzes what is planned vs. actual (with schedule forecast and cost forecast as an input) to determine the overall project status.

A

Direct and Manage Project Work Process

96
Q

Costs that are reported against the project, which may include salaries for resources, materials, and other expenses. It does not include shared expenses or overhead expenses.

A

Direct Cost

97
Q

A classification model that groups stakeholders based on how they influence the project and/or the project team: upwards (senior management); downwards (team or specialists); outwards (external); sidewards (project manager’s peers).

A

Directions of Influence

98
Q

A type of PMO that takes control of projects by directly managing the projects.

A

Directive PMO

99
Q

Breaking down epics or large stories into smaller stories. This is similar to decomposition on predictive projects.

A

Disaggregation

100
Q

A relationship that is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or an aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired.

A

Discretionary Dependency

PMP (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions