Glossary Flashcards

1
Q

What is Agency Law?

A

Agency Law deals with someone’s ability to bind you to a contract with a third party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is required for Agency to exist?

A

Both parties must consent to the relationship and intend for an Agency relationship to exist

Agent owes Principal fiduciary duty

Principal doesn’t owe Agent fiduciary duty

A contract is NOT required and an Agency agreement is not based on Contract Law; Exception - If duties cannot be performed within a year; a signed writing is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Actual Authority in an agency?

A

Actual Authority is what is expressly granted or is implied by the duties you expect the Agent to perform and is necessary to carry them out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Implied Authority in an agency?

A

When authority is expressly granted; it is implied that the agent has the authority to carry out the duties

Does not include authority to sell or alter a business

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Apparent (Ostensible) Authority in an agency?

A

Apparent Authority is based on the third party’s perspective - they believe that the Agent has the
authority to enter into a contract based on:

  • Prior dealings with agent
  • Agent’s title leads the third party to believe they can enter into a contract
  • The Principal hires the Agent to carry out duties that normally carry with them the rights to enter into contracts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is an Agency terminated?

A
  • Both Agent and Principal agree to terminate
  • Principal fires Agent
  • Agent fires Principal
  • Agent breaches their contract by doing something like violating their obligation to act as a fiduciary to Principal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do you terminate Apparent Authority?

A
  • Let the public know
  • Let the people or entities that the Agent previously interacted with know
  • In cases of death; or Principal is otherwise not competent to contract; ALL authority is revoked
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is an Agency Coupled with an Interest?

A

Agent acquires an ownership interest in the Agency

Can only be terminated early (before the interest expiration date) by the Agent

Unless the Agency has a specific time limit spelled out in a contract; the Agent’s authority is irrevocable
by the Principal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When is an employee an Agent; and when does this make the employer liable?

A

Employees are agents while acting within the scope of their duties.

For employees who injure third parties while acting within the scope of their duties; both Employee and Employer are liable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When are Agents liable for torts (civil wrongs) they commit?

A

Agents are liable for torts (civil wrongs) committed whether they had authority or not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Are Agents who act outside of their authority liable?

A

Agents who act outside of their authority will be liable for the act

Exception - Principal ratifies the contract which relieves Agent of liability

In order to ratify; Principal must know all of the facts and must ratify before third party cancels agreement

If Principal keeps the benefits of the contract; ratification is implied

Contract must be 100% ratified or there is no contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is an Agent’s liability when acting for an undisclosed principle?

A
  • Agent liable to third party even if acting within authority
  • Third party can sue both Principal and Agent if Principal becomes disclosed
  • Agent can then sue Principal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the requirements for a Power of Attorney (POA)?

A

Must be in writing

Must be signed by person granting the POA

Ends upon death of Principal

General POA - Agent authorized to handle all affairs

Special POA - Agent authorized to handle only specific affairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the basic actions that occur in a bankruptcy?

A

Bankruptcy gives creditors protection from their creditors and stops them from either permanently (Chapter 7) or temporarily (Chapter 11 or 13) collecting a debt. The filing halts collection activity; grants automatic stay (with certain exceptions), and stops creditors from suing debtor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

For what debts does bankruptcy NOT stop collections?

A
Student Loans
Income taxes from previous 3 years
Alimony & Child Support
Debts/judgements resulting from drunk driving
Pension obligations
Debts relating to SOX violations
Debts arising from illegal activities
Debts not listed in the bankruptcy filing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does bankruptcy of a corporation affect the owner’s ability to file bankruptcy?

A

It doesn’t; because the corporation is a separate legal entity.

Under bankruptcy; corporations are dissolved

Under bankruptcy; individuals are discharged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What key action will cause a bankruptcy discharge to be denied?

A

If a debtor fails to keep good records or falsifies documents; a discharge will be denied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the basic characteristics of a Chapter 7 bankruptcy (liquidation)?

A

Discharges all non-exempt debt

Can only be filed every 8 years from previous Chapter 7 filing

Voluntary or involuntary filing

Certain businesses are disallowed from Chapter 7 bankruptcies - Railroads; Banks; Insurance companies; Savings & loans (think: 7th inning RBIs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the requirements for a voluntary bankruptcy filing under Chapter 7?

A

Must pass means test

Your income must be below the median income for your state (Note - median; i.e. middle; not mean; i.e. average)

Credit card companies made it harder for people to declare Chapter 7 when they lobbied Congress in 2005

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the requirements for an involuntary bankruptcy filing under Chapter 7?

A

In some cases; your creditors can force you into Chapter 7 or Chapter 11 BK

Creditors must be able to prove that they are not being paid on time (i.e. debtor is insolvent) or that within the past 120 days the debtor assigned a custodian of the secured property

If 12+ unsecured creditors - at least 3 must file; claims must be in excess of $15325

If less than 12 unsecured creditors - only 1 must file; claim(s) must be in excess of $15325

Upon filing; a judge will declare an order for relief unless the debtor protests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What entities are disallowed from involuntary Chapter 7 bankruptcy filings?

A

Charities

Farms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How can a debtor reclaim possession of their property from the interim bankruptcy under Chapter 7?

A

If the debtor pays the court-assigned bond to keep a property in an involuntary BK; they can
reclaim possession of their property from the interim BK trustee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the basic characteristics of a Chapter 11 bankruptcy (business repayment) filing?

A

Allows a business a reprieve from creditors
Creates a payment plan for the debt
Business remains in operation
At least 2/3 of each debt class of creditors must consent to reorganization
Ch. 11 Involuntary petitions are allowed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the basic characteristics of a Chapter 13 bankruptcy (personal repayment) filing?

A

Similar to Chapter 11; but for individuals

Gives individuals a reprieve from creditors

Creates a payment plan for the debt

Ch. 13 Involuntary petitions are not allowed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the duties and abilities of a bankruptcy trustee?

A

Represents the bankruptcy estate

Can sue or be sued

Oversees bankruptcy and watches for preferential creditor payments

Oversees priority transfer of assets to creditors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How and when is a bankruptcy trustee appointed?

A

Optional - Creditors decide

Can be elected by creditors or can be appointed by the court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What actions can a bankruptcy trustee take with respect to preferential creditor payments in a bankruptcy?

A

Trustee can void payments on antecedent (past) debts that occur within 90 days of a BK filing

A Trustee cannot void a payment made to a creditor that is an even swap (contemporaneous exchange) and for new value

A voidable preference must be on an old debt where the debtor is basically picking and choosing which creditors they send money to (AKA a voidable preference)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When can preferential transfers be voided by a bankruptcy (BK) trustee?

A

Made within One Year of BK to insider - Corporate officers/directors; Partners; Relatives

Made within 3 Months of BK non-insider

Creditor receives larger payment than BK liquidation would have granted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the treatment of a secured creditor in a bankruptcy?

A

Superior to claims of other types of creditors

Can take either collateral or cash proceeds from the sale of an asset

If collateral doesn’t satisfy amount owed; Secured Creditors become a general creditor for the difference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the order of priority given to unsecured creditors in a bankruptcy?

A
  1. Court Costs and Fees
  2. Child Support & Alimony
  3. Expenses from ordinary course of business during bankruptcy proceedings
  4. Wages owed to employees
  5. Retirement contributions within last 6 months
  6. Consumer deposits for undelivered goods
  7. Taxes
  8. Other general unsecured claims
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are key aspects of a bankruptcy involving a landlord or leases under Chapter 7?

A

The bankruptcy trustee can act in the best interest of the creditors and assign the leases under contract to the creditors

The trustee has 60 days to assume leases on equipment after bankruptcy is granted or the leases will be rejected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the bankruptcy estate?

A

The pool of assets available to creditors until liquidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What assets are exempt from creditors in a bankruptcy estate?

A

Social security

Disability payments

Unemployment; Child Support; Alimony; Wages; Pensions; Annuities to the extent that they provide reasonable support for debtor and dependents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How long after a Chapter 7 bankruptcy filing can creditors claim inheritance or insurance payments for repayment?

A

Inheritance/Insurance payments received within 180 days of filing for a Chapter 7 bankruptcy become part of the BK Estate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a garnishment with respect to a bankruptcy?

A

Court allows a creditor to garnish or take a portion of the debtor’s paycheck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a mechanics lien?

A

Lien on real property to secure payment for a repair/improvement done to the house

A contractor builds an addition to your house and you won’t pay. They can’t repo your house; so they get a Mechanics Lien that sticks until you sell your house and they get paid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is an artisan’s lien?

A

Applies to personal property like a car

If the dealership does $500 in repairs to your car; you don’t get the car back until you pay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is a surety (co-signing)?

A

A third party agrees to be liable for a loan

Example: A parent co-signs on their child’s car loan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How is a surety liable in a transaction?

A

A surety is primarily liable

Surety can be released from liability if the creditor behaves in a way that increases the risk that they
initially agreed to

Surety can be released from liability if the debtor changes the loan agreement in a way that materially
increases the surety’s risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a cosurety; and how are they liable in a transaction?

A

Two sureties are guaranteeing the same debt

Proportionately liable - If one cosurety is released from their obligation; then the remaining cosureties
have their proportionate share reduced by the released party’s percentage

If one surety pays more than their proportionate share of the risk; then the other sureties must compensate them for the difference; which is called Right of Contribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a guarantor?

A

Similar to surety; but a guarantor is secondarily liable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the basic rights of a debtor under the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act?

A

Basically - your creditors have the right to collect from you; but not abuse you or embarrass you

The can’t contact you once you’re represented by an attorney

They can call other people to find out where you are; but they cannot identify themselves as collectors

They must stop calling you at work if you send them a certified letter that says my employer doesn’t allow me to take calls at work.

They must call you only at reasonable hours of the day - according to your time zone; not theirs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the key elements of a valid Partnership?

A

Must have two or more partners. Must intend to engage in business for profit. Life of partnership is of limited duration in most cases. Agency/fiduciary relationship is created. Partnership interest is always considered personal property.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Can corporations and other partnerships become partners in a partnership?

A

Yes; corporations and other partnerships can become partners of a partnership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Name the Basics of Partnership Formation - Form of agreement and intent

A

Agreement can be very informal - either ORAL; IMPLIED or WRITTEN

Intent is to make a profit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When must a partnership agreement be in writing?

A

Must be WRITTEN if partnership activity falls within Statute of Frauds:

A. Can’t be completed in 1 year

B. Even if partners reside in different states; not necessary unless within Statute of Frauds

C. Neither dollar amount of transactions nor purchasing of real estate has bearing on whether partnership agreement must be in writing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How are profits shared in a partnership?

A

Profit sharing is equal by default

A. Unless partnership agreement says otherwise

B. Unless specified; sharing of losses follows same pattern as sharing of profits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the Liability of General Partners in a partnership?

A

Joint Liability - Partners are collectively liable for debts/torts

Several Liability - Partners are individually liable for debts/torts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which assets may creditors of a partnership go after; and in which order?

A

Creditors must go after partnership assets first before suing partners individually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the rights of a General Partner in a partnership?

A

General Partners have joint control over the management of the partnership and its affairs

Unanimous vote needed to change the structure of the partnership

Each partner has full right to inspect partnership accounting and business

Partner has the authority to assign their interest to another partner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does and does NOT happen when a General Partner assigns their partnership interest to someone else?

A
  1. Other party gets that partner’s share of the profits and/or capital contribution.
  2. Does NOT give assignee authority to vote on partnership business
  3. Assignee does NOT have right to inspect partnership books
  4. Assignor still maintains liability
  5. Partner does NOT have the right to assign their interest in partnership property or allow partner’s creditors to attach a lien.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the actual authority of a partner in a partnership?

A

Has authority to bind the partners to a contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the APPARENT authority of a partner in a partnership?

A

A third party reasonably believes partner has authority to bind partnership to contract

Cannot use apparent authority to add a new partner

Cannot use apparent authority to sell or bind partnership assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

With respect to liability on subsequent debts; what happens when a partner withdraws from a partnership?

A

Partner not liable assuming notice given.

Notice must be given to nullify apparent authority

People who had knowledge of their role must be personally notified

Public must be notified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

With respect to PRECEDING debts; what is the liability of a partner in a partnership?

A

Old partners: Jointly and severally liable unless creditors grant novation

New partners: Only capital account at risk on preceding debts. For subsequent debts; they are joint and severally liable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What happens upon the death of a partner in a partnership?

A

Partner’s estate gets share of partnership profits and capital account

Estate does NOT get any partnership assets

Remainder of partners own partnership assets

Heirs of decedent are not added as partners unless remaining partners unanimously agree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What happens during the winding up of a partnership and in what order?

A
  1. Creditors get paid; Partners can also be creditors
  2. Distributions in arrears get paid
  3. Partners get return of Capital accounts
  4. Any remaining distributions

Note: NO documents need to be filed with state to dissolve general partnership.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the requirements to form a Limited Partnership?

A

Governed by state L.P. laws

Must file L.P. certificate with Sec. of State

Only General Partners must be listed

Future additions or subtractions of G.P. require certificate to be updated with state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How are profits and losses split in a Limited Partnership?

A

Unlike G.P.; L.P. profits/losses are split according to capital contributions by default

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

True or False: In a Limited Partnership; a General Partner can also be a Limited Partner at
the same time.

A

True.

A Limited Partner; however; cannot also be a General Partner and maintain limited liability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Do limited partners have a fiduciary responsibility to a Limited Partnership?

A

No. Limited Partners are do not have a fiduciary responsibility to Limited Partnership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What authority does a limited partner have under a Limited Partnership?

A
  1. Right to inspect records of the business.
  2. Can still vote on partnership business without losing limited liability
  3. Can consult and advise partnership without losing limited liability (assuming they don’t actually make the decisions)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What limitations does a limited partner have in a Limited Partnership?

A
  1. They have no authority as an agent to bind the partnership
  2. They can’t participate in management decisions and maintain limited liability.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the liability of a limited partner in a Limited Partnership?

A

Limited partners are liable to the extent of their capital contributions only

Exception - A Limited Partner (who cannot participate in management decisions) becomes involved with management decisions

Becomes liable to third parties IF they knew of their involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

When does the dissolution of a Limited Partnership occur?

A

Automatically happens

  1. Once final General Partner leaves
  2. Time specified in certificate lapses
  3. Event specified in certificate happens
  4. Unanimous consent by partners
  5. Illegal activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is required to form a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP)?

A
  1. Majority vote required to form LLP
  2. Articles of LLP filed with Secretary of State
  3. Governed by laws of that State
  4. Limited Liability Partnership must be in name
  5. No General Partners - each LLP partner has limited liability - Exception: Negligence of partner or those under partner’s supervision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the key aspects of a Limited Liability Company (LLC)?

A

Members can participate in management and retain limited liability

Members don’t own any interest in LLC property

Members can assign interest; but not transfer it

Members divide profits equally unless otherwise stated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the key aspects of Joint Ventures (JV)?

A

Similar to a General Partnership; except generally; a JV is for a single business activity
Example: two companies promote a concert

Ability to bind other JV partners is limited

JV partners still have a fiduciary responsibility to JV

No state filings or paperwork necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the key aspects of a corporation?

A

Shareholders have limited liability to the extent of their capital contribution

C Corporations have a perpetual life and continue even after shareholder death

Corporations are a separate legal entity from their owners and can own property; sue; be sued

Corporations must file Articles of Incorporation in state of governance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are some of the advantages of a corporation?

A

Ability to raise capital

Limited liability - unless actions occur that pierce the veil

Ease of ownership transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What actions can pierce the veil of a corporation?

A

Commingling of assets

Fraud

Under-capitalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How is a corporation governed?

A

Board adopts Corporate Bylaws to govern company business

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What items are required in a corporations Articles of Incorporation?

A

Name; purpose; powers of Corporation

Name of registered agent & incorporators

Stock share classes authorized; par values

Name of corporate officers NOT required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the biggest disadvantage of a corporation?

A

Double taxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How are corporations formed by promoters?

A

Promoter issues prospectus; arranges capital; and is a fiduciary of the corporation.

A promoter may profit from work performed if the corporation is aware of it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When is a corporation liable for pre-incorporation actions taken by a Promoter?

A

Promoter personally liable unless third party agrees to a novation and releases Promoter
from liability; UNLESS the corporation adopts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

In how many states must a corporation incorporate?

A

Corporations are only incorporated in one state

Become adomestic corp. in that state

Become aforeign corp. in any other state they do business in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Describe Common Stock dividends and their rights/liabilities in relation to shareholders/corporations.

A

Dividends are NOT a shareholder right

Once declared; dividends become a liability to corporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are key aspects related to the holding of Preferred Stock?

A

No voting rights

Get first rights to dividends and liquidation

Cumulative Preferred Stock dividends that go undeclared accumulate and Corporation must pay it before issuing dividends to Common Stockholders

Participating Preferred Stock gives shareholder right to dividends in addition to what they get as Preferred Stockholders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What aspects are related to all classes of corporate stock?

A

Valid consideration must be given for shares

Cash; property; or services performed

No promises to pay or perform services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the key aspects of Treasury Stock?

A

No Gain/Loss recognized on Treasury stock

Have no voting rights

Can be re-purchased below par

Cannot produce dividends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is a stock subscription and what is required for it to be valid?

A

An offer to buy shares of stock

Must be accepted by corporation to be valid

Offer cannot be revoked for 6 months

Subscriber becomes liable once accepted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

When is a corporation liable for torts by employees?

A

If committed within the normal scope of the employee’s job

Even if they were disobeying orders

Per respondeat superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are the key aspects of a corporate officer?

A

Appointed by the Board of Directors

Act as Agents

Owe a fiduciary duty to the corporation

Can have legal fees paid by corporation for defense in lawsuit brought on them from carrying out their normal duties (exception- suit brought against officers by shareholders)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the key aspects of a corporation’s board of directors (BOD)?

A

Elected by shareholders

Owe fiduciary duty to corporation

Must act in good faith to avoid being liable for bad judgment

Good faith is NOT a defense for negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is Ultra Vires?

A

Corporation management acting beyond what the Articles of Incorporation allow

Shareholders can sue for Ultra Vires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

When is inspecting Board minutes the right of a shareholder?

A

Shareholders can inspect Board minutes and records only if request is in good faith

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Who must approve mergers and consolidations?

A

Boards must approve

Shareholders must approve by Majority

Disapproving shareholders can get an appraisal and get their stock back at current market price

Merger does NOT need creditor approval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What characterizes a Professional Corporation?

A

Shares owned only by licensed professionals (CPAs; attorneys; etc.)

Limited Liability for debts

Personal Liability for negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Who can and cannot own an S-Corporation?

A

CAN be owned by Estates; Trusts; and Individuals

CANNOT be owned by a C-Corporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the primary advantage of an S-Corporation?

A

Avoidance of Double Taxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are the disadvantages of an S-Corporation?

A

No more than 100 shareholders allowed

One class of stock allowed

Shareholders must be US Citizens/Residents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is Capital Budgeting? How is it used?

A

Managerial Accounting technique used to evaluate different investment options

Helps management make decisions

Uses both accounting and non-accounting information

Internal focus

GAAP is not mandatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What values are used in Capital Budgeting?

A

Capital Budgeting ONLY uses Present Value tables.

Capital Budgeting NEVER uses Fair Value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

When is the Present Value of $1 table used?

A

For ONE payment- ONE time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

When is the Present Value of an Annuity Due used?

A

Multiple payments made over time- where the payments are made at the START of the period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

When is the Present Value of an Ordinary Annuity of $1 (PVOA) used?

A

Multiple payments over time- where payments are made at the END of the period.

Think A for Arrears.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the calculation for the Present Value of $1?

A

1 / (( 1+i )^n)

i : interest rate
n : number of periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is Net Present Value (NPV)?

A

A preferred method of evaluating profitability.

One of two methods that use the Time Value of Money
: PV of Future Cash Flows - Investment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

How is NPV used to calculate future benefit?

A

NPV : PV Future Cash Flows - Investment

If NPV is Negative- Cost is greater than benefits (bad investment)

If NPV is Positive- Cost is less than benefit (good investment)

If NPV : 0- Cost : Benefit (Management is indifferent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the rate of return on an investment called?

A

The Discount Rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What does the Discount Rate represent?

A

The rate of return on an investment used.

It represents the minimum rate of return required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are the strengths of the Net Present Value system?

A

Uses the Time Value of Money

Uses all cash flows- not just the cash flows to arrive at Payback

Takes risks into consideration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are the weaknesses of the Net Present Value system?

A

Not as simple as the Accounting Rate of Return.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

How do Salvage Value and Depreciation affect Net Present Value?

A

NPV includes Salvage Value because it is a future cash inflow.

NPV does NOT include depreciation because it is non-cash.

Exception - If a CPA Exam question says to include tax considerations- then you have to include depreciation because of income tax savings generated by depreciation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

If multiple potential rates of return are available- which is used to calculate Net Present Value?

A

The minimum rate of return is used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the Internal Rate of Return (IRR)?

A

It calculates a project’s actual rate of return through the project’s expected cash flows.

IRR is the rate of return required for PV of future cash flows to EQUAL the investment.

Investment / After Tax Annual Cash Inflow : PV Factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Which rate of return is used to re-invest cash flows for Internal Rate of Return?

A

Cash flows are re-invested at the rate of return earned by the original investment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

How does the rate used for Internal Rate of Return (IRR) compare to that used for Net Present Value (NPV)?

A

Rate of return for IRR is the rate earned by the investment.

Rate of return for NPV is the minimum rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are the strengths and weaknesses of the Internal Rate of Return system?

A

Strengths: Uses Time Value of Money- Cash Flow emphasis

Weakness: Uneven cash flows lead to varied IRR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

When is NPV on an Investment positive?

A

When the benefits are greater than the costs.

IRR is greater than the Discount Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

When is NPV on an Investment Negative?

A

When Costs are greater than Benefits

IRR is less than the Discount Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

When is NPV Zero?

A

When benefits equal the Costs

IRR : Discount Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is the Payback Method? How is it calculated?

A

It measures an investment in terms of how long it takes to recoup the initial investment via Annual Cash Inflow

Investment / Annual Cash Inflow : Payback Method

Compare to a targeted timeframe; if payback is shorter than target- it’s a good investment. If payback is longer than target- it’s a bad investment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are the strengths of the Payback Method?

A

Takes risk into consideration

2 year payback is less risky than a 5 year payback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What are the weaknesses of the payback method?

A

Ignores the Time Value of Money

Exception: Discount payback method

Ignores cash flow after the initial investment is paid back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is the Accounting Rate of Return?

A

An approximate rate of return on assets

ARR : Net Income / Average Investment

Compare to a targeted return rate; if ARR greater than target- good investment. If ARR less than target- bad investment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What are the strengths of the Accounting Rate of Return (ARR)?

A

Simple to use

People understand easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are the weaknesses of the Accounting Rate of Return (ARR)?

A

Can be skewed based on Depreciation method that is used.

Ignores the Time Value of Money.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is an Expected Return?

A

An approximate rate of return on assets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What must a contract contain?

A

Offer, Acceptance, Consideration, Proper form (oral or written), Legal subject matter, 2 Competent parties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What forms may acceptance of a contract take?

A

Can be written or oral

Must be in the form/method required by offeror

Must be mirror image - i.e. no changes in terms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Who can accept an offer?

A

Must be accepted by intended party (offeree)

Acceptance can only be made by a party who knows an offer has been made and has all of the facts - AKA a meeting of the minds

They must intend to accept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What happens if an offeree accepts a contract but puts added stipulations?

A

It is not acceptance; but instead becomes a counter-offer and the original offeror is now the offeree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What will void an offer?

A

If offeror dies or becomes insane before acceptance; offer is void.

Contract is binding if acceptance occurs before death/insanity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What actions or circumstances will revoke a contract?

A

Offeror revokes and offeree receives revocation

Offeree finds out prior to acceptance that offeror has sold the item

In the case of an Option; offeror cannot revoke until the time of the option has elapsed

Initial rejection by offeree doesn’t void the option.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is an Option?

A

Some amount of consideration (like money) is put forth by offeror to keep the offer open for a
stated period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is a Requirements Contract? How are they limited?

A

These are contracts where someone becomes the exclusive provider of something in exchange for
consideration

Companies can’t get locked in to one and then have market conditions force them to sell something at
what has become an unreasonable price

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is promissory estoppel?

A

Promises to donate are legally enforceable

Basically; you can’t tell a charity; Hey; if you buy this
$100;000 piece of land; I’ll pay for the building that
will go on it; and then renege on your promise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What can make a contract VOID?

A

Fraud in the execution

Formed under extreme duress - extreme

Illegal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What can make a contract VOIDABLE?

A

Fraud in the inducement

Party not competent to contract

Formed under SIMPLE duress

Undue influence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What is the result of a clerical error in a contract?

A

The contract is unenforceable.

Example: Person signs a contract to pay $500.00 to have
their lawn re-seeded but due to clerical error; it actually reads $5000.00

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Contracts under the Statute of Frauds must be in what form to be valid?

A

They must be in writing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What makes a contract subject to the Statute of Frauds?

A

o Cannot be completed within one year
o Involves the purchase of real estate
o $500+ Sale of Goods
o Co-signing and guaranteeing the debt of another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is the parol evidence rule?

A

Prevents one party to a written contract from coming in after the fact and claiming that a certain
conversation took place that conflicts with what is agreed upon in the written contract

It also prevents using an oral argument to read into the meaning of what is written on paper

If it’s on paper; it trumps what was agreed-upon orally prior to the written contract

Note: does not negate oral agreements made AFTER the contract or disallow oral words from clarifying ambiguous contract language.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What are the requirements for the assignment of a contract?

A

Contracts are assignable to a third party beneficiary; but must be done so in good faith

Obligations may be assignable- Assignor is still liable

Assignor may be released from liability if other party grants a novation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

When can contracts be discharged by law?

A

Party under contract is bankrupt

Party under contract dies or is incapacitated

Party cannot physically complete the contract (i.e. They are in prison so can’t finish building your house)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

How does a price increase affect supply?

A

When the prices of an item increases supply increases- because more sellers are willing to sell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What is a supply curve shift?

A

When supply changes due to something other than price.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What are the characteristics of a positive supply curve shift (shift right)?

A

Supply increases at each price point

Higher Equilibrium GDP

Number of sellers increases - market can get flooded

Examples: Government subsidies or technology improvements that decrease costs for suppliers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What are the characteristics of a negative supply curve shift (shift left)?

A

Supply decreases at each price point

Lower Equilibrium GDP

Cost of producing item increases

Examples: Shortage of gold- so less gold watches are made; wars or crises in rice-producing countries means there is less rice on the market

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

How does price affect the demand for an item?

A

When the prices of an item increases- demand for it decreases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is a Demand Curve Shift?

A

When demand changes due to something other than price.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is a Positive Demand Curve Shift (Shift Right)?

A

When demand increases at each price point

Price of substitutes go up - price of beef rises- so people buy more chicken

Future price increase is expected - War in Middle East- people go out and buy gas

Market expands - i.e. people get new free health care plan- demand at clinic rises

Expansion - more spending increases equilibrium GDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is a Negative Demand Curve Shift (Shift Left)?

A

Demand decreases at each price point.

Price of complement goes up - price of beef goes up- less demand for ketchup

Boycott - Company commits social blunder- consumers boycott

Consumer income rises - Demand for inferior goods drops as people have more money to spend

Consumer tastes change

Contraction - less spending decreases equilibrium GDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What is the Marginal Propensity to Consume?

A

How much you spend when your income increases

Calculate: Change in Spending / Change in Income

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is the Marginal Propensity to Save?

A

How much you save when income increases

Calculate: Change in Savings / Change in Income

Also equals 1 - Marginal Propensity to Consume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

How is the multiplier effect calculated?

A

(1 / 1-MPC) x Change in Spending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

How does increased spending by consumers and the government affect the demand curve?

A

As spending by consumers or the government increases- the demand curve increases (shifts right).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

How does spending change due to the multiplier effect?

A

The increase in demand ends up being larger than the amount of additional income spent in the economy due to the multiplier effect.

One consumer spends money- which:
*Increases the income of a business
*Increases the income of a vendor
*Increases income of employees
*Increases tax revenue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

How is Price Elasticity of Demand calculated?

A

% Change in Quantity Demand / % Change in Price

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Under elastic demand- how does price affect revenues?

A

Price increases- Revenue decreases

Price decreases- Revenue increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What conditions would indicate Elastic Demand?

A

Many substitutes (luxury items)
Considered elastic if elasticity is greater than 1
10% drop in demand / 8% increase in price : 1.25 (Elastic)

Price increases- Revenue decreases
Price decreases- Revenue increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

How does revenue react to price under Inelastic Demand?

A

Price increases- Revenue increases

Price decreases- Revenue decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What conditions would indicate Inelastic Demand?

A

Few substitutes (groceries- gasoline)
Considered inelastic if coefficient of elasticity is less than 1
5% drop in demand / 10% increase in price : .5 (inelastic)

Price increases- Revenue increases
Price decreases- Revenue decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What is Unitary Demand?

A

Total revenue will remain the same if price is increased

Considered unitary if coefficient of elasticity : 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

How is Income Elasticity of Demand calculated?

A

% Change Quantity Demanded / % Change in Income

Normal goods greater than 1 (demand increases more than income)

Inferior goods less than 1 (demand increases less than income)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What conditions occur under periods of inflation?

A

Interest rates increase
Reduced demand for loans
Reduced demand for houses- autos- etc.
Value of bonds and fixed income securities decrease
Inferior good demand to increase
Foreign goods more affordable than domestic
Demand for domestic goods decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What happens under Demand-Pull inflation?

A

Overall spending increases

Demand increases (shifts right)

Market equilibrium price increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What happens under Cost-Push inflation?

A

Overall production costs increase
Supply decreases (shifts left)
Market equilibrium price increases

Note: Demand-Pull and Cost-Push Inflation BOTH result in market equilibrium price to increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What is the Equilibrium Price?

A

The price where Quantity Supplied : Quantity Demanded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What is Optimal Production?

A

When Marginal Revenue : Marginal Cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What is the result of a Price Floor?

A

Causes a surplus if above equilibrium price.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is GDP (Gross Domestic Product)?

A

The annual value of all goods and services produced domestically at current prices by consumers- businesses- the government- and foreign companies with domestic interests

Included: Foreign company has US Factory

Not included: US company has foreign factory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What is included under the income approach for calculating GDP?

A

Sole Proprietor and Corp Income
Passive Income
Taxes
Employee Salaries
Foreign Income Adjustments
Depreciation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What is included under the Expenditure Approach for calculating GDP?

A

Individual Consumption

Private Investment

Government Purchases

Net Exports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What is Nominal GDP?

A

Measures goods/services in current prices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

For what is a GDP Deflator used?

A

Used to convert GDP to Real GDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What is Real GDP?

A

Nominal GDP / GDP Deflator x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What is Gross National Product (GNP)?

A

Like GDP; Swaps foreign production. US Firms overseas are included- Foreign firms domestically are not included

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What is the Consumer Price Index (CPI)? How is it applied?

A

Price of goods relative to an earlier period of time- which is the benchmark. Year 1 : 1.0

((CPI Current - CPI Last) / CPI Last) * 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

How is disposable income calculated?

A

Personal Income - Personal Taxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

How is Return to Scale calculated?

A

% Increase in output / % Increase in input

Greater than 1 : Increasing returns to scale

Less than 1 : Decreasing returns to scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

When is the economy in Recession?

A

When GDP growth is negative for two consecutive quarters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What is a Depression?

A

A prolonged- severe recession with high unemployment rates

No requisite period of time for the economy to officially be in a depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What are the stages of the Economic Cycle?

A

Peak (highest)
Recession (decreasing)
Trough (lowest)
Recover (increasing)
Expansion (higher again)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What are leading indicators?

A

Conditions that occur before a recession or before a recovery

Example: Stock Market or New Housing Starts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What are lagging indicators?

A

Conditions that occur after a recession or after a recovery

Examples: Prime Interest Rates- Unemployment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What are coincident indicators?

A

Conditions that occur during a recession or during a recovery

Example: Manufacturing output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Which people are included in the calculation of unemployment?

A

Only people looking for jobs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What is Cyclical Unemployment?

A

GDP doesn’t grow fast enough to employ all people who are looking for work

Example: People are unemployed in 2010 because there aren’t enough jobs available due to the economy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What is Frictional Unemployment?

A

People are changing jobs or entering the work force. This is a normal aspect of full employment.

Example: A recent college graduate is looking for a job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What is Structural Unemployment?

A

A worker’s job skills do not match those necessary to get a job so they need education or training

Example: A construction worker wants to work in an office- so they quit their job and get computer training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

How does inflation relate to unemployment?

A

High Unemployment : Low Inflation (Vice Versa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What is the Discount Rate?

A

The rate a bank pays to borrow from the Fed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What is the Prime Rate?

A

The rate a bank charges their best customers on short-term borrowings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What is the Real Interest Rate?

A

Inflation-adjusted interest rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

What is the Nominal Rate?

A

Rate that uses current prices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

What is the Risk-Free Rate?

A

Rate for a loan with 100% certainty of payback.

Usually results in a lower rate.

US Treasuries are an example.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

What is included in the M1 money supply?

A

Currency- Coins- and Deposits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What is included in the M2 money supply?

A

Highly liquid assets other than currency- coins or deposits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What is Deficit Spending?

A

Increased spending levels without increased tax revenue.

Lower taxes without decrease in spending

Gamble that the multiplier effect will take over and boost economy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

How can the Fed control the money supply?

A

By buying and selling the government’s securities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

How does the Fed control economy-wide interest rates?

A

By adjusting the discount rate charged to banks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What is a Tariff?

A

A tax on imported goods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What is a quota?

A

A limit on the number of goods that can be imported

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

How do international trade restrictions affect domestic producers?

A

They are good for domestic producers.

Demand curve shifts right

Fewer substitutes

They can charge higher prices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

How to international trade restrictions affect foreign producers?

A

They are bad for foreign producers

Demand curve shifts left

Fewer buyers

They must charge lower prices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

How do international trade restrictions affect foreign consumers?

A

They are good for foreign consumers

Supply curve shifts right

Goods purchased at lower prices in the foreign markets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

How do international trade restrictions affect domestic consumers?

A

They are bad for domestic consumers

Supply curve shifts left

Fewer goods bought due to higher prices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

What is Accounting Cost?

A

Explicit (Actual) cost of operating a business

Implicit costs are opportunity costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

What is Accounting Profit?

A

Revenue - Accounting Cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

What is Economic Cost?

A

Explicit + Implicit Cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

What is Economic Profit?

A

Revenue - Economic Cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

What is the majority of an auditor’s work in determining an audit opinion?

A

Collection of evidence to support the opinion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Of what does audit Evidence consist?

A

Evidence consists of client accounting data and supporting documentation from client or from third parties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

What is the relationship between Evidence and Detection Risk?

A

Evidence has an inverse relationship with Detection Risk

The one aspect of Audit Risk an auditor can control through (N)ature (T)iming (E)xtent of audit procedures.

Inherent Risk and Control risk are outside of auditor’s control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Which aspects of Audit Risk can an auditor control?

A

Detection Risk which is decreased by gathering evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Which aspects of Audit Risk can an auditor NOT control?

A

Inherent Risk and Control Risk are outside of an auditor’s control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

How does a high level of acceptable Detection Risk affect an audit?

A

Less Evidence collected. Opens door for incremental audit risk - Internal Control should be strong.

Business and transactions should be relatively stable and predictable.

(N) Less-competent Evidence collected
(T) Interim testing acceptable
(E) Fewer transactions are verified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

What should occur when a low level of Detection Risk is acceptable?

A

More Evidence collected

(N) More-competent Evidence collected
(T) End of year balance testing
(E) More transactions are verified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

What are the primary risks in an audit for a typical for-profit company?

A

Auditors are there to verify that

Assets & Revenues are not overstated
Expenses & Liabilities are not understated

Exception - if the CPA Exam states that it is a tax-driven company flip them around

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

What is the primary constraint on audit evidence?

A

Cost vs. Benefit is a primary constraint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

What characteristics should audit evidence have?

A

Sufficient (quantity)

Appropriate: Relevant & Reliable (Quality)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

How does the quality of audit evidence vary depending on who has provided it?

A

Best evidence: Observation of activity by auditor.

2nd Best: Originates from External Parties and is sent directly to auditor (or failing that items are generated by third party and provided to auditor by the client such as a bank statement)

Weakest: Oral evidence from management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Which documents are the most persuasive and credible?

A

Third party documents are more persuasive and credible than internally-prepared docs

Auditor Knowledge = Most Persuasive

3rd Party info given to auditor

3rd Party info given to client

Internally-prepared doc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

What are Substantive Procedures?

A

Test substance/amounts/values. They help to reduce the risk of material misstatements. They only test accuracy of financial statements and dollar amounts - they don’t test internal controls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

What are the substantive tests that are most often performed?

A
Trace (or Vouch)
Reconcile
Analytical Procedures
Confirmations
Examine evidence that supports management assertions.

(T.R.A.C.E.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

When performing audit procedures what should auditors focus on?

A

Auditors focus first on Balance Sheet Accounts then associated Income Statement items

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

How is Cash audited?

A

Assurance Level is High.

Acceptable Detection Risk is Low.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

How is Accounts Receivable audited?

A

If Acceptable DR is High - Negative Confirmation is used - Customer only responds if balance is materially wrong.

If Acceptable DR is Low - Positive Confirmation is used - Customer asked to confirm by telling auditor the balance.

Corresponding Income Statement Account - Revenue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

How is Accounts Payable audited?

A

Review purchase orders/invoices

Confirm with Vendors

Corresponding Income Statement Account - Various Expenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

How is Inventory audited?

A

Examine purchase agreements

Look at Board Minutes

Is Inventory held as collateral?

Corresponding Income Statement Account - COGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

How are beginning balances audited?

A

Should match last year’s ending balance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

What is the general presumption for auditing Ending Balances?

A

If Beginning Balance Additions Subtractions are OK then Ending Balances should also be OK.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

How is a Statement of Cash Flows audited?

A

Foot all balances - Check the Math

Trace Cash Flow items to other Financial Statements

Check classifications - Operating Activities Investing Activities Financing Activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Under the Indirect Method what must be disclosed on a Statement of Cash Flows?

A

Interest Paid

Income Taxes Paid

Non-cash Transactions

Cash and Cash Equivalents Definitions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Under the Direct Method what must be disclosed on a Statement of Cash Flows?

A

Results as if you had used Indirect Method

Non-cash Transactions

Cash and Cash Equivalents Definition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

What are Subsequent Events and what do they require?

A

Subsequent events occur after the Balance Sheet Date but before the audit report is issued.

Auditor needs to make inquiries and assess if they affect the audit report.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

What should occur if the audit report has already been issued and the auditor becomes aware of a situation that was present as of the Balance Sheet date (a subsequent event)?

A

If audit report has already been issued and auditor becomes aware of a situation that was present as of the BS date client should issue a disclosure to financial statement users and/or revise the financial statement.

Regulatory agencies might need to get involved under some circumstances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

What should an auditor do if they discover they have forgotten to perform a substantive procedure?

A

If auditor discovers that they forgot to perform a substantive procedure auditor should determine if other substantive procedures performed served as a substitute.

Otherwise support for their audit opinion could be jeopardized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

When are Analytical Procedures required?

A

REQUIRED When planning the audit (preliminary)

REQUIRED When reviewing the audit (final)

Analytical procedures may be also performed optionally along with the substantive testing.

Use of Analytical Procedures in the audit must be documented.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

How do Analytical Procedures assist the auditor?

A

Helps the Auditor:

Determine if Management Assertions are reasonable

Develop audit plan

Develop some expectations about the financial statement and hopefully bring to light any glaring errors on financial statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

What is the focus of Analytical Procedures?

A

Analytical Procedure focus is on dollar amounts (not internal controls)

Analyzes Financial Data: Do Financial Statements Make Sense?

Comparison of data between years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

How is the Current Ratio calculated?

A

Current Ratio = Current Assets / Current Liabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

How is the Quick Ratio calculated?

A

Quick Ratio = Liquid Assets / Current Liabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

How is the Asset Turnover calculated?

A

Asset Turnover = Net Sales / Average Assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

How is the Inventory Turnover calculated?

A

Inventory Turnover = COGS / Average Inventory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

How is Gross Margin % calculated?

A

Gross Margin % = Gross Margin / Sales

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

What type of testing are ratios?

A

Ratios are Analytical Procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

What type of procedure is a Budget vs. Actual comparison?

A

Budget vs. Actual comparisons are Analytical Procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

List Common Types of Analytical Procedures

A

Ratio analysis

Budget vs. Actual comparison

Comparison of data between years

Use of non-financial data to predict expected values for financial data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

How do management assertions affect the audit?

A

Management assertions help the auditor to plan the audit and select substantive tests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

What assertions do auditors test?

A

Presentation - Cutoff Classification - Is it in the right period and category?
Existence/ Occurrence - Did it happen? Does it exist?
Rights & Obligations - Does the company own them?
Completeness - Was everything recorded?
Valuation - Are they worth the amount at which they are recorded?

(PERCV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

What assertions are tests for transaction classes?

A

Occurrence

Cutoff

Classification

Completeness

Accuracy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

For which assertions are disclosures tested?

A

Occurrence

Completeness

Classification

Accuracy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Is testing the validity of direct evidence a basic audit procedure?

A

No it is an extended procedure.

For example you don’t have to take a loan covenant document and go search out that it’s a valid loan covenant. Instead you consider the source - if it’s externally prepared it’s more persuasive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

How are Management Estimates audited?

A

First and foremost you need to understand management’s rationale and methods for developing estimates before you can judge reasonableness.

Next Auditor should formulate their own opinion on what a good estimate should be and compare it.

Finally determine if subsequent events affect the estimate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Whose property are audit documentation (audit workpapers)? In what form must they be?

A

Audit workpapers are the property of the auditor.

They can be paper or electronic.

They must include a WRITTEN audit program (either paper or electronic).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

What is the Current File?

A

Information pertaining to the current year’s audit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

What is the Permanent File?

A

Information used for this audit and future audits which is updated as needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

How long must audit workpapers be maintained?

A

Must be kept for 5 years after the audit release date or according to regulations whichever is longer.

Must be kept for 7 years under PCAOB Audit

PCAOB audits also require an Engagement Completion Document

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

What is the primary requirement for audit workpapers besides being written?

A

Any experienced auditor should be able to look at your work and understand what you did.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

How should documents added to work papers be treated?

A

If further documents are added to the work papers after the audit report is issued it must be documented as to who added them why they were added and any effects on the audit report.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

How should documents removed from workpapers be treated?

A

After the audit report is released the firm has 60 days to subtract from the file.

You can still add to the file if you document it but you cannot delete any information after 60 days.

Note - for SEC auditors the PCAOB only allows deletions up to 45 days after issuance of the audit report.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

What does an audit procedures should be applied to Required Supplementary Information?

A

The auditor should make management inquiries about RSI and obtain written assertions regarding its preparation. The auditor should compare the RSI to the rest of the financial statements to ensure consistency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

Definition

A

Slide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Represent an organization’s beliefs and ideals about what is good or bad, acceptable and unacceptable and influences the behavior of the organization.

A

13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

An environment where people do the right thing at the right time. The board of directors and management define culture. Culture, within Enterprise Risk Management, is described by “risk” on a continuum from “risk averse” to “risk aggressive”.

A

93

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

The culture, capabilities, and practices integrated with strategy-setting and performance that organizations rely on to manage the risk in creating, preserving and realizing value.

A

28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

An occurrence or set of occurrences. Events may be negative (natural disasters) or positive (improved tax rates).

A

26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Refers to the allocation of roles, authorities and responsibilities among stakeholders, the board and management.

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

Governance and Culture forms the basis for all other ERM components and is supported by the following principles:

  1. Exercise of board oversight
  2. Establishment of operating structures
  3. Definition of desired culture
  4. Demonstration of commitment to core values
  5. Attracting, developing and retaining capable individuals
A

65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

Represents the continual, iterative process of obtaining information and sharing throughout the entity and is supported by the following principles:

  1. Leveraging information and technology
  2. Communication of risk information
  3. Reporting on risk culture and performance
A

69

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

The process put into effect by an entity to provide reasonable assurance that objectives will be achieved.

A

22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

Represents the core purpose of the entity. The

mission represents why the Company exists and what it hopes to accomplish.

A

13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

Operating structure defines how the entity organizes and carries out its day to day operations.

A

84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

Definition

A

Slide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

Includes identification and assessment of risk that affect an entity’s’ ability to achieve its strategy and business objectives and is supported by the following principles:

  1. Risk identification
  2. Risk assessment
  3. Risk prioritization
  4. Risk responses
  5. Development of a portfolio view
A

67

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

Relates to actions, tasks and functions to achieve or exceed an entity’s strategy and business objectives.

A

21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

The amount of risk taken to achieve strategy and business objectives is appropriate for the entity.

A

33

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Enables the organization to determine how well enterprise risk management capabilities and practices increased value over time and support the following principles:

  1. Assessment of substantial change
  2. Review of risk and performance
  3. Pursuit of improvement of ERM
A

68

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

Risk the entity will assume in pursuit of value.

A

34

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

Provides a composite view of risk that defines the relationship between risk and performance.

A

42

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

A measurement of considerations such as the likelihood and impact of events or the time it takes to recover from events.

A

27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

Refers to an organization’s plan to achieve its mission and vision and to apply its core values.

A

19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

Represent the integration of ERM into the organization’s strategic plan and is supported by the following principles:

  1. Analysis of business context
  2. Definition of risk appetite
  3. Evaluation of alternative strategies
  4. Formulation of business objectives
A

66

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

The manner of communication of values.

A

105

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

The state of not knowing how or if potential events may manifest.

A

27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

Occurs when the benefits of value exceed its cost of resources used.

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

Occurs with faulty strategy and inefficient/ineffective operations.

A

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

Occurs when ongoing operations efficiently and effectively sustain created benefits.

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

Definition

A

Slide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

Occurs when benefits created by the organization are received by stakeholders in either monetary or nonmonetary form.

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

Represent the aspirations of the entity and what it hopes to achieve over time.

A

13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

Definition

A

Slide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

No action is taken to change the severity of risk. This response is appropriate when the risk to strategy and business objective is already within risk appetite.

A

102

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

Actual residual risk represents the risk remaining after risk response have been implemented to reduce risk severity. Actual residual risk should be equal to a less than the target residual risk.

A

87

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

Action is taken to remove the risk. Choosing avoidance suggests that the organization was not able to identify a response that would reduce the risk to an acceptable level of severity.

A

102

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

Business context is defined by the Framework as the trends, relationships and other factors that influence an organization’s current future strategy and business objectives.

A

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

Business objectives are specific measureable or observable, attainable and relevant targets that provide the link to practices within the entity to support the achievement of strategy.

A

41

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

When measuring the severity of risk, impact represents the result or effect of risk. The impact of a risk may be positive or negative relative to the strategy or business objective.

A

81

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

Inherent risk is the risk to an entity in the absence of any direct or focused actions by management to alter its severity.

A

87

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

When measuring the severity of risk, likelihood represents the possibility of risk occurring. This may be expressed in terms of a probability or frequency occurring.

A

81

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

Action is taken that accepts increased risk to achieve improved performance. When choosing to pursue risk, management understands the nature and extent of any changes required to achieve desired performance while not exceeding the boundaries of acceptable tolerance.

A

103

296
Q

Action is taken to reduce the severity of the risk. Risk reduction involves any number of everyday business decisions that reduce risk to an amount of severity aligned with the target residual risk profile and risk appetite.

A

103

297
Q

Risk appetite is a measure of risks that are acceptable or unacceptable. Risk appetite may encompass a single depiction or several depictions that align and collectively specify the acceptable types and amount of risk.

A

28

298
Q

Definition

A

Slide

299
Q

Risk capacity represents the maximum amount of risk the entity can absorb in pursuit of strategy and business objectives.

A

24

300
Q

Risk categories are the shared common groups of risk that potentially impact multiple business objectives.

A

44

301
Q

A risk inventory is a listing of the risk that entity faces.

A

61

302
Q

Action is taken to reduce the severity of risk by transferring or otherwise sharing a portion of risk. As with the reduce response, sharing risk lowers residual risk in alignment with risk appetite.

A

104

303
Q

Target risk is the amount of risk that an entity prefers to assume in pursuit of its strategy and business objectives knowing that risk responses have been implemented.

A

87

304
Q

Tolerance describes the range of acceptable outcomes related to achieving a business objective within the risk appetite. Tolerance is the acceptable variation in performance and is closely linked to risk appetite.

A

46

305
Q

Triggers are typically changes in the business context, but may also be changes in the risk appetite and they serve as early warning indicators of changes to assumptions supporting the severity assessment. The organization strives to identify trigger that will prompt a reassessment of severity when required.

A

90

306
Q

Definition

A

Slide

307
Q

The quantified financial loss per year.

A

18

308
Q

The estimated frequency of a threat event occurring in a year.

A

18

309
Q

Programs designed to detect and remove malware such as worms, viruses, and other malicious software.

A

88

310
Q

The monetary value of the replacement of the

asset, or the income value through use of the asset.

A

18

311
Q

A threat event that exploits a vulnerability.

A

14

312
Q

Software running on infected computers that are

used to launch attacks from multiple platforms.

A

117

313
Q

Assessment of qualitative and quantitative impacts on the organization due to specific disruptive events.

A

23

314
Q

Covers how evidence is secured and stored at all times and shows who has it, who has seen it, and where it has been.

A

121

315
Q

A value that is computed based on the contents of the document.

A

63

316
Q

Model designed to guide policies for information security within an organization.

A

26

317
Q

Set of processes, best practices, and technology that protects critical infrastructure such as networks and databases from accidental or
intentional damage due to attacks, unauthorized access, or natural disasters.

A

10

318
Q

Data stored in a shared environment alongside data from other customers.

A

101

319
Q

The data owner may reside under one legal

jurisdiction, but the data itself may reside under one or more separate jurisdictions.

A

103

320
Q

Strategies to prevent data loss.

A

60

321
Q

The data owner’s legal control of the data.

A

103

322
Q

A layered defense consisting of two or more defensive methods.

A

27

323
Q

Service that translates domain names into their numeric IP addresses.

A

75

324
Q

The proportion of the asset value that is likely to

be lost through a particular threat.

A

18

325
Q

Protocol used to transfer files from one computer

to another over a network.

A

79

326
Q

Protocol used to enable retrieval and transfer of

web pages over a network.

A

78

327
Q

Definition

A

Slide

328
Q

Cloud model of service delivery where the basic computing infrastructure of servers, software, and network equipment is provided as an on-demand
service.

A

95

329
Q

Systems that monitor network communications and generate alerts if any malicious traffic is detected.

A

87

330
Q

Systems that monitor, detect, and prevent traffic from entering the network.

A

88

331
Q

Access control principle that states that a single entity shall have access only to the assets it needs to complete its required duties.

A

36

332
Q

A directory service protocol commonly used for storing users and passwords.

A

31

333
Q

A computer network that links devices within a building or group of adjacent buildings.

A

74

334
Q

Media access control address of a computer that

is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces for communication.

A

90

335
Q

A time measurement that specifies the average time between failures.

A

46

336
Q

The downtime or the average time required to

repair a device after a failure.

A

46

337
Q

A portable computing device.

A

47

338
Q

A software architecture in which a single instance of software runs on a server and serves multiple tenants or customers.

A

99

339
Q

A technique used by malicious users to capture

sensitive information.

A

76

340
Q

Cloud model of service delivery where the computing platform is provided as an on-demand service upon which applications can be developed and deployed.

A

94

341
Q

Risk analysis on information about an asset or activity that cannot be reduced to measurable
values.

A

16

342
Q

Risk analysis about an asset that provides risk in

measurable values.

A

18

343
Q

A two-dimensional barcode.

A

55

344
Q

Definition

A

Slide

345
Q

Malware that takes control of a system usually by encrypting the hard drive and demands the owner pay a ransom to receive the keys to unlock
the drive.

A

117

346
Q

The maximum period of time or amount of transaction data that the business can afford to lose during a successful recovery.

A

130

347
Q

The time frame within which a system should be recovered.

A

129

348
Q

Amount of risk remaining after implementing countermeasures.

A

21

349
Q

An exposure to loss or damage due to threats,

vulnerabilities, and attacks.

A

14

350
Q

Risk treatment where the risk is accepted as is without implementing any countermeasure or protection.

A

20

351
Q

A systematic process of identifying risk and

estimating the loss if the risk materializes.

A

15

352
Q

Risk treatment where the activity that introduced the risk is discontinued or avoided entirely.

A

21

353
Q

Risk treatment where countermeasures are used to reduce the risk.

A

21

354
Q

Risk treatment whereby risk is moved to another entity.

A

21

355
Q

Applications that hide certain things, such as processes, from the operating system.

A

116

356
Q

Security management practices.

A

25

357
Q

Access control principle that states that no single entity shall have so many privileges or authorizations that the entity can complete critical processes or business functions on its own.

A

36

358
Q

The monetary cost of the expected loss due to a

single threat event.

A

18

359
Q

Cloud model of service delivery where one or more applications are provided for use on demand.

A

94

360
Q

Connecting one device to another device, usually

to access the Internet or other network.

A

54

361
Q

Any event that could compromise security by causing loss or damage to organizational assets.

A

14

362
Q

Malware that enters a system or network under

the guise of another program.

A

116

363
Q

A reference to a web resource that specifies its location on a computer network, usually a web address.

A

75

364
Q

Definition

A

Slide

365
Q

A private network that extends across a public

network using encryption to maintain privacy.

A

51

366
Q

A hole or gap in a system through which a threat can be exploited.

A

14

367
Q

Explicit listing of entities that are authorized to provide a particular service or access.

A

52

368
Q

A computer network that extends over a large geographic area.

A

74

369
Q

Wireless LAN.

A

90

370
Q

Definition

A

Slide

371
Q

Under the activity-based approach, overhead is allocated to the various production activities and
then to the products.

A

98

372
Q

Activity-based budgeting uses activities as the fundamental cost object.

A

36

373
Q

Agency is a legal relationship in which one person or entity (the principal) appoints another person or entity (the agent) to act on his/her behalf.

A

6

374
Q

Cost allocation can be based on competitive rates. Overhead can be charged to benefiting departments based on rates or some other equitable basis that charges based on usage or benefit. This method promotes fair accountability
for overhead costs and motivation for responsible action.

A

95

375
Q

Cost allocation can be based on full cost recovery. Full cost recovery allocates cost based on full cost, or fully-allocated cost. Fully- allocated costs are total manufacturing and selling and administrative expenses. This method also promotes fair accountability for overhead costs and motivation for responsible
action.

A

96

376
Q

Overhead costs can be allocated based on sales. Overhead is allocated in relation to the department’s sales volume relative to the sales volume of the entire organization. Although simple to implement and easy to understand, allocation based on sales has several disadvantages.

A

93

377
Q

All overhead costs can be assigned to corporate headquarters (i.e., the overhead can be left in a cost pool).

A

94

378
Q

Authority is the right to use resources to accomplish a task or achieve an objective. Authority can be delegated, and it represents the ability to use the means of an organization to accomplish an objective.

A

25

379
Q

Salary is a payment that is fixed in amount.

A

61

380
Q

Bonuses are paid to an employee upon the attainment, achievement, etc. of certain quantitative and other goals (e.g., sales, profits, costs, etc.) set by the company.

A

61

381
Q

Definition

A

Slide

382
Q

A budget is a quantitative and formal statement of the plans of an organization, and it follows the structure of an organization. A budget is usually prepared only after the completion of a plan that includes the objectives of the organization.
Variations from the budget and the subsequent responses are the control functions of a budget. Although a budget is always quantified, it may be stated in non-financial terms (e.g., units). In addition, external factors (the state of the economy, competition actions, changes in the labor markets, etc.) and internal factors (new product development, types of responsibility centers, marketing efforts, changes in various expectations, etc.) will influence the development
of the budget.

A

30

383
Q

Budgetary slack is the planned overestimation of budgeted expenses and is used by employees to hedge against the unexpected. It is a particular feature of participative budgeting and is essentially the practice of “padding” budgets to make objectives easier to achieve. Budgetary slack can be defined as the difference between what the managers expect the results will be and what the managers have budgeted the results to
be.

A

53

384
Q

Budgeting is an integral part of the planning and control process.

A

30

385
Q

Budgets and standards are methods of performance evaluation and are used as tools for achieving goal congruence.

A

9

386
Q

Centralized authority describes a low degree of delegation in which authority is retained by top
management to a greater degree.

A

26

387
Q

Compensation pools are the funds from which

the bonuses will be paid.

A

63

388
Q

Concurrent controls are also known as screening controls, and they are applied during an operation (currently) such as:

  1. Verification of airline reservation information on a real time basis, and
  2. Quality checks during the manufacturing process.
A

84

389
Q

Definition

A

Slide

390
Q

A continuous budget adds a month (or quarter, year, etc.) in the future with the passage of each period of time. Thus, a certain period is always projected into the future. A continuous budget may be part of a strategic plan, but it does not stay unchanged, as it is being continually updated. Any budgeting technique works better if revenues and expenses can be forecasted with some reliability, but continuous budgets allow frequent revision, which helps the process in the
case of unreliable forecasts.

A

35

391
Q

A contribution center is responsible for revenue and direct costs.

A

97

392
Q

A cost center is the least complex segment for which costs are allocated. A cost center is responsible for costs only.

A

97

393
Q

Decentralized authority describes a delegation of authority to a greater degree. Authority is not retained by top management, but is, instead, passed to lower management. Subordinates are granted significant autonomy and independence in operating the company and making decisions.

A

26

394
Q

The departmental approach considers both service departments and production departments. Overhead is first allocated to each of the departments and then to the product. All departments receive their share of the allocated indirect costs and their own direct costs. Then, the service department costs are allocated to the production departments. Finally, the production
department costs are allocated to the products.

A

98

395
Q

Under the direct approach, overhead is allocated directly to the products. This is the easiest of the three methods, but it ignores reciprocal service flows back and forth between departments. The
share of overhead is simply calculated only for each production department.

A

98

396
Q

Earnings are synonymous with income, and earnings per share would be an effective means
by which to evaluate budgeted income.

A

110

397
Q

Flexible budgets present a plan for a range of activity so that they can be adjusted based on
volume.

A

35

398
Q

Definition

A

Slide

399
Q

Goal congruence describes a condition that exists where the personal and organizational goals of decision-makers throughout the firm are consistent and mutually supportive. It is built on several ideas, including the distinction between authority and responsibility and the use of performance monitoring tools to focus attention. Although complete and perfect goal congruence is an ideal, it is virtually impossible to attain, as the short-term goals of employees within the firm (e.g., employees desire current compensation to be set at high levels) are often not consistent with those of the firm (e.g., the firm desires compensation to be at lower levels to maximize benefits derived from employees). It is is achieved through a series of incentives and performance evaluation systems designed to motivate human behaviors that are consistent
with the objectives of the organization.

A

8

400
Q

Imposed control is the traditional top-down management style.

A

82

401
Q

Incremental budgeting simply adds an increment (often a percentage) to the prior budget. It is the
opposite of zero-based budgeting.

A

36

402
Q

Internal rate of return measures the rate of return over the life of the investment. It also assumes that all positive cash flows are reinvested and earn the same rate. These factors make IRR
inappropriate for evaluating budgeted income for a given year.

A

111

403
Q

An investment center is responsible for revenues,

expenses, and invested capital.

A

97

404
Q

Management by exception is the control technique used to focus management’s attention on those items that deviate significantly from the standard. Items that do not deviate from the standard are assumed to require no management attention, and management is not distracted by
irrelevant details.

A

88

405
Q

Management by objective goals are set using participative techniques, and individual goals are aligned with organizational objectives, which enhances goal congruence throughout the organization.

A

89

406
Q

Definition

A

Slide

407
Q

A mission statement is a general, conceptual overview of the organization’s objectives. The mission statement of a firm should:
1. Provide an overall guide to those in high-level decision-making positions.
2. State the moral and ethical principles that guide the actions of the firm.
3. Create a business climate or culture that can be communicated to employees and
customers.

A

12

408
Q

Operational objectives set the specific plans for

implementing the tactics to achieve strategic objectives.

A

14

409
Q

The participatory budgetary approach reflects the behavioral or modern school of management. As the name implies, participatory budgeting encourages wide participation by the individuals affected by the budget. This approach begins at lower levels and allows subordinates to develop initial budgets to reflect department needs (although the overall firm goals are initially determined by top management). Joint decision- making is required, and communication is enhanced. In the participatory budgetary approach, responsibilities of the organization are
not changed, but the authority to make important decisions is delegated.

A

48

410
Q

Payment options are the way in which payment is offered to the employee (generally in cash or in stock).

A

63

411
Q

Performance evaluation is the process of determining the degree of success in accomplishing a task in terms of both efficiency and effectiveness.

A

9

412
Q

Policies are designed to help guide decision-

making. They are broad guidelines.

A

15

413
Q

Post-action controls detect errors after they have occurred. They are applied on output and include:

a. Standard-to-actual variance analysis, and
b. Quality checks on goods produced

A

84

414
Q

Definition

A

Slide

415
Q

Preliminary controls are preventative controls that attempt to stop problems before they occur.
They are also known as steering or feed-forward controls (such as planning), and they are applied on inputs such as:
1. Quality control inspection of raw materials upon receipt, and
2. Verifying the accuracy of subsidiary journal totals before throughput to the general ledger.

A

84

416
Q

The price/earnings ratio is an effective way to evaluate projected income, especially from the
point of view of an investor.

A

110

417
Q

The principal-agent model identifies two factors of the performance of managers that affect the relationship between the employee (manager) and firm when contracts between the two are created: uncertainty and the lack of observation. In a perfect world, the contract would be based on a predetermined amount of effort that the manager would provide in return for
compensation.

A

20

418
Q

Procedures are specific directions (instructions) on how to accomplish a task.

A

15

419
Q

A profit center is responsible for revenues and expenses.

A

97

420
Q

Program budgeting treats a program as an autonomous business unit. The process gathers costs for a particular budget according to the program, rather than charging them to the person responsible for the costs.

A

36

421
Q

Residual income is defined as income in excess of desired minimum return.

A

111

422
Q

Responsibility is the obligation to accomplish a task or achieve an objective. It is the job of achieving the objective. Ultimate responsibility cannot be delegated, and ultimately, the greatest
burden falls on those with responsibility.

A

25

423
Q

Definition

A

Slide

424
Q

A responsibility accounting system is a system of accounting that recognizes various responsibilities or decision centers throughout an organization and reflects the plans and actions of each of these centers by assigning particular revenues and costs to the one having the responsibility for making decisions about those revenues and costs. It is a system that measures the plans and actions of each responsibility
center.

A

90

425
Q

Return on investment blends all the major

ingredients of profitability in one ratio (or number).

A

110

426
Q

Risk aversion is the bias towards avoiding a situation that has an uncertain outcome, even if that outcome has an expected outcome that is favorable. Managers who have a large part of their total compensation tied to the attainment of certain goals (i.e., a large part of their pay is via bonus) tend to avoid situations that are unpredictable.

A

69

427
Q

Rules are specific (restrictive) operational guides. They are usually inflexible and designed to assist in the implementation of procedures. Rules, insofar as they are restrictive, are often viewed
as negative.

A

15

428
Q

Self-control is the more modern, participative style

A

82

429
Q

Standards are developed to evaluate

performance of operating characteristics and represent budgets presented on a per unit basis

A

39

430
Q

Static budgets are based on assumed fixed levels of activity (e.g., one volume of production) and are often referred to as master budgets.
Static budgets are not changed once they have been set, even if the output changes.

A

35

431
Q

Definition

A

Slide

432
Q

Strategic planning is the process of developing a statement of long-range goals for an organization and defining the strategies and policies that will help the organization achieve those goals.
Strategy analysis is fundamental to both long- term and short-term planning and considers overall organizational questions, such as:
1. What are the objectives or what is the mission of the organization?
2. How is the organization affected by the general economy?
3. What trends will affect the organization’s market?
4. What structure will best serve the organization’s needs?
5. What opportunities are available?
6. What is the optimum capital structure?

A

13

433
Q

Tactics are the means for attaining objectives developed during strategic planning. Examples of tactics include:

  1. Outlining strategies for technological development,
  2. Market expansion, and
  3. Product development.
A

14

434
Q

Zero-based budgeting (ZBB) requires justification of all expenditures every year and may present a firm commitment. However, these budgets may be adjusted for changes in activity level.
Activities are prioritized according to the program most vital to the organization.

A

36

435
Q

Definition

A

Slide

436
Q

Budget allowing management to evaluate the capital additions of the organization over a single
or multi-year period.

A

119

437
Q

Budget estimating the cash receipts and cash disbursements to occur during the budget period.

A

106

438
Q

Rolling budgets which add a new budget month as each current month expires.

A

44

439
Q

Accumulates information from the direct materials, direct labor, and factory overhead budgets factoring in changes in inventory levels
to estimate the cost of goods manufactured and sold for a given period.

A

95

440
Q

Budget estimating the hours and rates for workers directly involved in meeting production requirements.

A

85

441
Q

Budget estimating the quantity and cost of direct

materials to be used in production.

A

81

442
Q

Approach assuming that budgets begin with expenses that are ten percent less than the previous year.

A

42

443
Q

Budget for all manufacturing costs not classified

as direct materials or direct labor.

A

91

444
Q

Flexible budgets derive the expenses and revenues allowed from the output achieved. Thus, volumes achieved that are different from plan do not distort performance evaluation using
flexible budgets.

A

56

445
Q

Budgeting process which demands continuous cost performance improvement expecting process improvement both within the organization and from suppliers.

A

52

446
Q

Budgets which estimate all costs and revenues attributable to a product from initial research and development until final customer service and
support are withdrawn.

A

63

447
Q

Alternative to zero-based budgeting that prioritizes programs and allocates limited
resources to them in order of priority.

A

42

448
Q

Describe the organization’s goals and objectives

in financial, quantitative, and qualitative terms.

A

105

449
Q

Definition

A

Slide

450
Q

Budget for each product or each department estimating the amount that will be produced stated in units.

A

75

451
Q

Represents the sales forecast associated with planned or anticipated conditions.

A

71

452
Q

Budget estimating the non-manufacturing expenses to be incurred during the budget period.

A

99

453
Q

Budgeting process requiring managers to begin the process at zero and provide justification for all expenditures every year.

A

36

454
Q

Definition

A

Slide

455
Q

Budget variance analysis analyzes differences in the budget and helps companies adjust budgeting procedures to avoid similar
discrepancies in the future.

A

41

456
Q

A variance from standard that could have been prevented.

A

54

457
Q

Currently attainable standards are based on costs that result from work performed by employees with appropriate training and experience but without extraordinary effort. Provisions are made for normal spoilage and downtime.

A

14

458
Q

Direct labor is work performed by employees who actually produce the product.

A

20

459
Q

Direct labor variance computes the difference in

the actual direct labor costs and the standard labor costs.

A

64

460
Q

Direct materials are input items that ultimately result in the product.

A

20

461
Q

The direct materials price variance is the

difference between the actual price for materials and the standard price.

A

57

462
Q

The direct materials quantity variance is the

difference between the actual amount of materials used and the standard amount.

A

59

463
Q

A favorable variance occurs when the actual

results exceed the planned, budgeted, or expected results.

A

52

464
Q

Fixed manufacturing overhead consists of costs such as rent, insurance, and property taxes.

A

56

465
Q

The fixed overhead budget (spending) variance computes the difference between budgeted and actual fixed production overhead costs.

A

75

466
Q

The fixed overhead volume variance is the difference between the fixed production costs budgeted and the fixed production costs used
during the period.

A

76

467
Q

A flexible budget is a financial plan prepared in a manner that allows for adjustments for changes in production or sales and accurately reflects expected costs for the adjusted output.

A

33

468
Q

An ideal standard is the operating result based on perfect conditions with no idle time, no inefficiencies, no breakdowns, and no waste.

A

12

469
Q

Definition

A

Slide

470
Q

Labor Cost Standard is the estimate of the labor hours required to produce a unit of product and
the cost of labor per unit.

A

21

471
Q

Manufacturing overhead includes indirect costs associated with a factory or production operation.

A

20

472
Q

The analysis of manufacturing overhead variances compares the actual overhead incurred in a period to the applied overhead in that same period.

A

70

473
Q

Materials Cost Standard is the estimate of the quantity of materials needed for a unit of product and the unit costs to purchase the materials
used.

A

21

474
Q

Participative standards are set by both managers and the individuals who are held accountable to
those standards.

A

17

475
Q

The price standard determines how much a particular input material should cost.

A

26

476
Q

The quantity standard determines how much of a particular material should be used to produce one unit of product.

A

26

477
Q

The relevant range is the production range, often defined as a percentage above and below a target output level, for which the flexible budget assumptions hold.

A

33

478
Q

Standard Costing is the process of using an

expected or standard cost in the accounting records for a period.

A

6

479
Q

An uncontrollable variance is a difference from a standard that could not have been prevented by management.

A

54

480
Q

An unfavorable variance occurs when the actual results do not exceed the planned, budgeted, or
expected results.

A

53

481
Q

The variable overhead rate (spending) variance illustrates the difference between variable production overhead expense and the standard
variable overhead expense.

A

72

482
Q

Variable manufacturing overhead consists of

costs such as indirect materials and indirect labor, utilities, repairs, and maintenance.

A

56

483
Q

A variance is a difference; in this case, it is the difference between the standard cost and the actual cost.

A

6

484
Q

Definition

A

Slide

485
Q

Variance analysis is the process of comparing some measure of performance to a plan, budget,
or standard for that measure.

A

31

486
Q

Definition

A

Slide

487
Q

Budget variance analysis analyzes differences in the budget and helps companies adjust budgeting procedures to avoid similar
discrepancies in the future.

A

41

488
Q

A variance from standard that could have been prevented.

A

54

489
Q

Currently attainable standards are based on costs that result from work performed by employees with appropriate training and experience but without extraordinary effort. Provisions are made for normal spoilage and downtime.

A

14

490
Q

Direct labor is work performed by employees who actually produce the product.

A

20

491
Q

Direct labor variance computes the difference in

the actual direct labor costs and the standard labor costs.

A

64

492
Q

Direct materials are input items that ultimately result in the product.

A

20

493
Q

The direct materials price variance is the

difference between the actual price for materials and the standard price.

A

57

494
Q

The direct materials quantity variance is the

difference between the actual amount of materials used and the standard amount.

A

59

495
Q

A favorable variance occurs when the actual

results exceed the planned, budgeted, or expected results.

A

52

496
Q

Fixed manufacturing overhead consists of costs such as rent, insurance, and property taxes.

A

56

497
Q

The fixed overhead budget (spending) variance computes the difference between budgeted and actual fixed production overhead costs.

A

75

498
Q

The fixed overhead volume variance is the difference between the fixed production costs budgeted and the fixed production costs used
during the period.

A

76

499
Q

A flexible budget is a financial plan prepared in a manner that allows for adjustments for changes in production or sales and accurately reflects expected costs for the adjusted output.

A

33

500
Q

An ideal standard is the operating result based on perfect conditions with no idle time, no inefficiencies, no breakdowns, and no waste.

A

12

501
Q

Definition

A

Slide

502
Q

Labor Cost Standard is the estimate of the labor hours required to produce a unit of product and
the cost of labor per unit.

A

21

503
Q

Manufacturing overhead includes indirect costs associated with a factory or production operation.

A

20

504
Q

The analysis of manufacturing overhead variances compares the actual overhead incurred in a period to the applied overhead in that same period.

A

70

505
Q

Materials Cost Standard is the estimate of the quantity of materials needed for a unit of product and the unit costs to purchase the materials
used.

A

21

506
Q

Participative standards are set by both managers and the individuals who are held accountable to
those standards.

A

17

507
Q

The price standard determines how much a particular input material should cost.

A

26

508
Q

The quantity standard determines how much of a particular material should be used to produce one unit of product.

A

26

509
Q

The relevant range is the production range, often defined as a percentage above and below a target output level, for which the flexible budget assumptions hold.

A

33

510
Q

Standard Costing is the process of using an

expected or standard cost in the accounting records for a period.

A

6

511
Q

An uncontrollable variance is a difference from a standard that could not have been prevented by management.

A

54

512
Q

An unfavorable variance occurs when the actual results do not exceed the planned, budgeted, or
expected results.

A

53

513
Q

The variable overhead rate (spending) variance illustrates the difference between variable production overhead expense and the standard
variable overhead expense.

A

72

514
Q

Variable manufacturing overhead consists of

costs such as indirect materials and indirect labor, utilities, repairs, and maintenance.

A

56

515
Q

A variance is a difference; in this case, it is the difference between the standard cost and the actual cost.

A

6

516
Q

Definition

A

Slide

517
Q

Variance analysis is the process of comparing some measure of performance to a plan, budget,
or standard for that measure.

A

31

518
Q

Definition

A

Slide

519
Q

Objectives specifically concerned with the entity’s

adherence to laws and regulations.

A

11

520
Q

Actions established through policies and procedures that enable the entity to mitigate risk to achieve its objectives.

A

109

521
Q

Set of standards, processes, and structures that provide the basis for carrying out internal control across the organization.

A

47

522
Q

Acronym referencing the five internal control components: Control Environment, Risk Assessment, Information & Communication, Monitoring Activities, and Existing Control
Activities.

A

19

523
Q

Shortcoming in a component or components and relevant principles that reduces the likelihood that
the entity can achieve its objectives.

A

32

524
Q

Controls designed to discover an unintended event.

A

116

525
Q

Information is used to implement, monitor, and respond to control abnormalities, while communication is the continual, iterative process of providing, sharing, and obtaining necessary information.

A

139

526
Q

Set of activities that involve people, processes, data, and technology which enables the organization to obtain, generate, use, and communicate transactions and information to maintain accountability, measure, and review
performance.

A

140

527
Q

Risk that exists without adjustment for management’s mitigating efforts.

A

100

528
Q

Process effected by an entity’s board of directors, management, and other personnel, designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding the achievement of objectives related to operations,
reporting, and compliance.

A

9

529
Q

Internal control deficiency or combination of

deficiencies that severely reduces the likelihood that the entity can achieve its objectives.

A

32

530
Q

Assess whether each of the five components of internal control and relevant principles is present
and functioning.

A

128

531
Q

Definition

A

Slide

532
Q

Objectives addressing the efficiency and effectiveness of internal controls, assist the entity in evaluating operational and financial performance goals, and safeguard assets against
loss.

A

10

533
Q

Controls designed to avoid an unintended event.

A

116

534
Q

Objectives addressing reporting issues for both internal and external users in financial and non- financial contexts.

A

11

535
Q

Risk that remains after management responses are taken into account.

A

100

536
Q

Possibility that an event will occur and adversely

affect the achievement of an entity’s objectives.

A

80

537
Q

What are the three major types of funds in governmental accounting?

A

Governmental, Proprietary, Fiduciary

538
Q

Which two accounting bases are used in governmental accounting?

A

Accrual basis - current economic resources focus (revenues recognized when earned)

Modified accrual basis - current financial resources focus (revenues recognized when available and measurable)

539
Q

What is a budget appropriation?

A

The highest amount allowed for a particular expenditure under a budget.

540
Q

What is an encumbrance?

A

Records purchase and reserves it for the encumbrance.

541
Q

What is the opening budgetary entry?

A

Dr Estimated Revenues Control
Cr Appropriations Control
Dr/Cr Budgetary Fund Balance (plug)

542
Q

What is the closing budgetary entry?

A

Dr Appropriations Control
Dr/Cr Budgetary Fund Balance (plug)
Cr Estimated Revenues Control

543
Q

What are the types of governmental funds?

A

General Fund
Special Revenue Fund
Permanent Fund
Capital Projects Fund
Debt Service Fund

544
Q

What is a General Fund?

A

The operating fund of the governmental unit

Records Significant Revenues: Taxes; Tickets; Fines; Licenses

Records Significant Expenditures: Police; Education; Fire Dept

545
Q

What is a Special Revenue Fund?

A

Restricted for a specific purpose such as street repair.

546
Q

What is a Permanent Fund?

A

Legally restricted fund; where only earnings can be used to fund programs.

Principal remains intact.

547
Q

What is a Capital Projects Fund?

A

Used to acquire and build facilities.

548
Q

What is a Debt Service Fund?

A

Handles repayment of long-term debt and related interest.

549
Q

Which fund statements are issued in Governmental Accounting?

A

Balance Sheet

Statement of Revenues; Expenditures; and Changes in Fund Balance

550
Q

When is Revenue recorded in Governmental Accounting?

A

When it is BOTH available and measurable; regardless of when it is spent.

551
Q

What is Derived Tax Revenue?

A

Money collected from people doing things:

Sales tax (buying cars) or income tax (people working)

552
Q

What is Imposed Tax Revenue?

A

Tax assessed just because things exist

Example: property tax on a car (even if it’s never driven); real estate tax

Recorded as a revenue when BUDGETED.

Estimated uncollectible property tax revenues don’t offset revenues; so don’t net them.

553
Q

What are the types of Proprietary Funds?

A

Internal Service Funds - to serve the needs of other governmental units (i.e. motor pool)

Enterprise Funds - provide goods or services to external users (i.e. post office)

554
Q

What are the Fund Balance Types?

A

Restricted - Restricted by Contributor
Committed - Restricted by Government
Assigned - Intended for a purpose
Unassigned - Available to be spent
Non-spendable - Not in a spendable state

555
Q

What are the types of Fiduciary Funds?

A

Agency Fund - government acts as an agent or custodian

Pension Trust Fund - Government is a trustee for a pension plan

Investment Trust Fund - Government is a trustee over a series of investments

Private Purpose Trust - Trust that benefits various individuals and entities

556
Q

How are Assets & Liabilities presented on the Statement of Net Position?

A

Assets (Current & Non-Current)
Deferred Outflows of Resources
Liabilities (Current & Non-Current)
Deferred Inflows of Resources

557
Q

How are Capital Assets shown on a governmental Statement of Net Position?

A

They are shown net of debt

Asset Cost - Accumulated Depreciation - Asset Liabilities : Net Assets

558
Q

How is infrastructure reported on a governmental Statement of Net Position?

A

Modified approach:

Reported at cost; no accumulated depreciation

559
Q

How is a Statement of Net Position divided?

A

Into Governmental Activities and Business Activities

560
Q

How are activities presented in a Statement of Activities?

A

They are divided by function

If the activities of a component are distinguishable from the rest of the governmental entity; then discreet presentation is required

If the activities of the component cannot be identified and separated from the rest of the governmental activities; then blended presentation is warranted.

Component units are reported in the Entity-Wide Financial Statements and not the Fund Financial Statements.

561
Q

What is the primary objective of governmental accounting?

A

To provide information that is useful and benefits a wide range of users including:

Costs of services provided

Sufficiency of revenues to cover costs

Financial position of entity

562
Q

What Financial Statements are required for Defined Benefit Pension plans?

A

Statement of Fiduciary Net Position and Statement of Changes in Fiduciary Net Position

563
Q

What are the components of the Statement of Fiduciary Net Position for Defined Benefit Pension Plans?

A

Assets; Deferred Outfows; Liabilities; Deferred Inflows; Fiduciary Net Position

564
Q

What are the components of the Statement of Changes in Fiduciary Net Position for Defined Benefit Pension plans?

A

Additions (Contributions and Net Investment Income) - Deductions (Benefits Payments and Admin Expense) : Net Change in Fiduciary Net Position

565
Q

What should be included in the Financial Statement notes for Defined Benefit Pension Plans?

A

Types of Benefits; Plan Member Classes; Board Information; Investment Policies and FV Determination

566
Q

Which organization’s standards are the most authoritative in the hierarchy of international accounting?

A

The International Accounting Standards Board (IASB)

567
Q

Where is the first place management should look for guidance on international recognition and accounting policies?

A

The International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) issued by the IASB

568
Q

Which framework helps to develop standards for international accounting?

A

The IASB Framework

  • The framework is NOT a standard itself
  • The framework does not supersede any standard’s authority
569
Q

What is the objective of the IFRS framework?

A

To provide users with information on international accounting.

570
Q

What basis of accounting is allowed under IFRS?

A

Only the Accrual Basis of Accounting is allowed under IFRS.

571
Q

What are the Qualitative Characteristics of accounting information within IFRS?

A

Relevance & Faithful Representation

Relevance - Makes a difference to the user
Includes:
Predictive Value - Future Trends
Confirming Value - Past Predictions

Faithful Representation
Includes:
Completeness - Nothing omitted that would impact the decision-making of a user
Neutrality - Information is presented is without bias
Free from Error - No material errors or omissions

572
Q

What are the Enhancing Characteristics of IFRS?

A

Comparability - Allows users to compare different items among various periods
Verifiability - Different people would reach a similar conclusion on the information presented
Timeliness - Information is made available early enough to impact the decision making of users
Understandability - Information is easy to understand

573
Q

How does comparability differ under GAAP versus IFRS?

A

Comparative information from prior year is required under IFRS.

GAAP requires that if multiple years are presented they are consistently prepared however it doesn’t require prior year comparative statements.

574
Q

What is the Pervasive Constraint within IFRS?

A

Cost vs. Benefit

575
Q

Which items are considered reporting elements under IFRS?

A

Asset
Liability
Equity
Income
Expense

576
Q

What are the criteria for recognition on IFRS financial statements?

A

Probable future economic benefit

Can be measured reliably

If the value or outcome cannot be measured reliably IFRS requires the use of the Cost Recovery Method.

577
Q

When transitioning to IFRS what type of financial statement must be produced for the first reporting period?

A

A full comparative statement using IFRS.

578
Q

If IFRS was implemented in June 2012 for use in the December 31 2012 financial statements what is the Date of Transition?

A

January 1 2011 because a full year of comparative statements is required from the previous year

579
Q

For Property Plant and Equipment which election is the most efficient method for converting assets to IFRS?

A

The Fair Value election

580
Q

Where on the financial statements are adjustments for adopting to IFRS made?

A

In the entity’s retained earnings or equity

581
Q

How is the completed contract method used under IFRS?

A

Completed contract method is not allowed under IFRS.

582
Q

How is LIFO treated under IFRS?

A

IFRS does not allow LIFO.

583
Q

Which financial statements are required under IFRS?

A

Statement of Comprehensive Income

Statement of Changes in Equity

584
Q

How is the term income used in IFRS?

A

Income is used instead of revenue and encompasses BOTH revenue and gains.

585
Q

How is the term profit used in IFRS?

A

In IFRS the term profit is used instead of Net Income.

586
Q

How does IFRS treat gains?

A

They are treated the same as revenue and are not separated on the financial statements.

587
Q

How does IFRS treat losses?

A

In IFRS losses are treated the same as expenses but they ARE separated on the financial statements.

588
Q

How does refinancing of current liabilities to long-term liabilities under IFRS differ from GAAP?

A

Under IFRS current liabilities can only be refinanced into a non-current liability if the refinance agreement is EXECUTED prior to the balance sheet date.

GAAP requires only intent to refinance not actual execution.

589
Q

How do contingent liabilities differ between GAAP and IFRS?

A

Under GAAP there are three classifications of contingent liabilities - Probable Reasonably Possible and Remote.

Under IFRS contingencies are uncertain future events and are classified as a provision if probable and measurable even if uncertain in timing or amount.

590
Q

How are Financial Assets recorded under IFRS?

A

Recorded on the Statement of Financial Position using one of three methods

  1. Amortized Cost 2. Fair Value through OCI or 3. Fair Value through Profit or Loss
591
Q

How are deferred taxes treated under IFRS?

A

They use the liability method - all deferred tax liabilities must be reported but only probable deferred tax assets can be reported.

They are non-current on the statement of financial position.

592
Q

When can deferred tax assets and liabilities be netted under IFRS?

A

ONLY if they are related to the same country/taxing authority

For example China Deferred Tax Assets can’t offset Japan Deferred Tax Liabilities

593
Q

Which tax rates are used for calculating deferred tax assets/liabilities under IFRS?

A

The enacted rate or substantially enacted tax rate.

(GAAP is the enacted tax rate only)

594
Q

Which items are recorded on the Income Statement in IFRS?

A

Income
Finance Costs
Tax Expense
Discontinued Ops
Profit/Loss
Non-controlling interest in Profit/Loss
Net profit/loss attributable from equity

595
Q

How are property plant and equipment (PP&E) recorded and valued under IFRS?

A

Recorded at cost

Valued using either:

Cost model - asset carried at cost less accumulated depreciation and impairment loss

Revaluation model - asset adjusted to fair value less accumulated depreciation

596
Q

What are the requirements for using the revaluation model for PP&E under IFRS?

A

Asset must be able to be reliably measured

Must be applied to whole class of assets not just one asset

No guidance on how often assets should be revalued under IFRS

597
Q

How is investment property reported under IFRS?

A

Initially recorded at cost

Revalued using either Fair Value model or Cost model

598
Q

How is profit or loss recorded in the current period for investment property under the Fair Value model of IFRS?

A

Recorded on the Income Statement

Investment P/L : IS

PP&E P/L : OCI

599
Q

Under IFRS how is investment property reported under the Cost Model?

A

Carried at Cost minus Accumulated Depreciation

Fair Value must still be disclosed in the notes to the financial statements

600
Q

How are leases reported under IFRS?

A

Operating Leases can be recorded as Investment Property if measured at Fair Value

All other investment property must use Fair Value Model if one asset uses it

601
Q

How are intangible assets valued under IFRS?

A

Using either the Cost Model (cost less Accumulated Depreciation and Impairment Loss)

or

the Revaluation Model (Fair Value less Accumulated Depreciation)

602
Q

How is internally generated goodwill reported under IFRS?

A

It is not recognized.

603
Q

How is amortization of intangibles handled under IFRS?

A

If asset has a finite life it is amortized over useful life.

If asset has indefinite life it is not amortized but is tested for impairment at the reporting date.

604
Q

When must a lease be recorded as a Finance Lease under IFRS?

A

If the substantial risks of ownership have passed to the Lessee then the Lease must be accounted for as a Finance Lease

605
Q

How are defined benefit plans recorded under IFRS?

A

Project-unit-credit method calculates the PV of the defined benefit obligation

606
Q

How are interest expense and/or finance costs classified on an IFRS statement of cash flows?

A

They can be classified as either Operating or Financing

Once a classification is chosen all future costs must be classified there

607
Q

How are significant non-cash transactions recorded on an IFRS statement of cash flows?

A

They must be included in the notes to the financial statements.

608
Q

How are Investments in Subsidiaries Valued?

A

Investments in Subsidiaries under IFRS are valued three ways: 1. Cost 2. Fair Value 3. Equity Method

609
Q

When is an audit of IT NOT required?

A

Controls are redundant to another department

The system does not appear to be reliable and testing controls would not be an efficient use of time

Costs exceed benefit

610
Q

When can an audit of IT be performed without directly interacting with the system?

A

System isn’t complex or complicated

System output is detailed

611
Q

What is the role of a Database Administrator?

A

Maintains database

Restricts access

Responsible for IT internal control

612
Q

What is the role of a Systems Analyst?

A

Recommends changes or upgrades

Liaison between IT and users

613
Q

What is the role of the data Librarian?

A

Responsible for disc storage

Holds system documentation

614
Q

What is the benefit of Generalized Audit Software in an audit?

A

Uses computer speed to quickly sort data and files- which leads to a more efficient audit

Compatible with different client IT systems

Extracts evidence from client databases

Tests data without auditor needing to spend time learning the IT system in detail

Client-tailored or commercially produced

615
Q

What is a Relational Database?

A

Group of related spreadsheets

Retrieves information through Queries

616
Q

What is a Data Definition Language?

A

A language that defines a database and gives information on database structure.

It maintains tables- which can be joined together.

It establishes database constraints.

617
Q

What functions are performed by a Data Manipulation Language?

A

Maintains and queries a database

Auditor needs information- so client uses DML to get the information needed

618
Q

What functions are performed by a Data Control Language?

A

A Data Control Language controls a database and restricts access to the database.

619
Q

What are Check Digits?

A

A numerical character consistently added to a set of numbers.

It makes it more difficult for a fraudulent account to be set up or go undetected.

620
Q

What is the purpose of a Code Review?

A

A Code Review tests a program’s processing logic.

Advantageous because auditor gains a greater understanding of the program.

621
Q

What is the purpose of a Limit Test?

A

Examines data and looks for reasonableness using upper and lower limits to determine if data fits the correct range.

Did anyone score higher than 100%?

622
Q

What is the Test Data Method?

A

Auditor processes data with client’s computer - fake transactions are used to test program control procedures.

Each control needs to only be tested once

Problem with this method - fake data could combine with real data.

623
Q

How can Operating Systems Logs be utilized during an audit?

A

Auditor can review logs to see which applications were run and by whom.

624
Q

What is the purpose of Access Security Software?

A

Helpful in online environments

Restricts computer access - may use encryption.

625
Q

How can Library Management Software assist with an audit?

A

Library Management Software logs any changes to system/applications etc.

626
Q

How can Embedded Audit Modules in software be utilized in an audit?

A

Assist with audit calculations

Enable continuous monitoring in an audit environment that is changing

Weakness: requires implementation into the system design

Example: SCARF - Collects information based on some criteria and can be analyzed at a later time (necessary because the audit environment is continually changing)

627
Q

What is an Audit Hook?

A

An Audit Hook is an application instruction that gives auditor control over the application.

628
Q

What is the purpose of Transaction Tagging?

A

Transaction Tagging allows logging of company transactions and activities.

629
Q

How do Extended Records assist in audit trail creation?

A

Extended Records add audit data to financial records.

630
Q

How does Real Time Processing affect an audit?

A

Destroys prior data when updated

aka Destructive Updating

Requires well-documented Audit Trail

631
Q

What is the risk of auditing System outputs versus Application outputs?

A

If the auditor only audits the outputs of a computer system and doesn’t also audit the software applications- an error in the applications could be missed.

632
Q

What is a Compiler?

A

Software that translates source program (similar to English) into a language that the computer can understand

633
Q

How is Parallel Simulation utilized during an audit?

A

Client data is processed using Generalized Audit Software (GAS)

Sample size can be expanded without significantly increasing the audit cost

GAS output compared to client output

634
Q

What does auditing internal control in a company’s IT environment accomplish?

A

Plan the rest of audit- Shorter audit trails that may expire- Less documentation

Assess the level of Control Risk - Unauthorized access to systems or data is more difficult to catch

Systems access controls adds another layer to separation of duties analysis

Focus should be on the general controls- new systems development- current systems changes- and program or data access control or computer ops control changes

635
Q

If Internal Control is poor and a company’s accounting practices are sloppy - which risk is higher?

A

Control risk increases with poor Internal Controls and sloppy accounting practices.

636
Q

If Internal Control is poor - what is the effect on the audit?

A

Auditor will need to perform more testing and dig deeper into accounts in order to arrive at an opinion regarding the financial statements.

637
Q

What does Internal Control provide reasonable assurance for?

A

Internal control provides reasonable assurance that

Material misstatements will be prevented

Reliability/integrity of financial statements will be preserved

Assets are protected against misuse

638
Q

What is required in an examination of Internal Control under Sarbanes-Oxley?

A

CEO/CFO must disclose Internal Control deficiencies

Management must provide assessment of Internal Control

Management must certify Financial Statements

639
Q

What is the relationship between Internal Control and Substantive Testing?

A

Inverse Relationship

Stronger Internal Controls - Less Testing Needed

Weaker Internal Controls - More Testing Needed

640
Q

What are the 3 objectives of Internal Control?

A

Reliability of Financial Reporting

Operational Efficiency/Effectiveness

Compliance with Law and Regulations

641
Q

What are the 5 components of Internal Control?

A

Control Environment

Risk Assessment

Information and Communication

Monitoring

Control Activities

642
Q

What is the purpose for a Control Environment assessment?

A

Sets tone for the entire company

643
Q

What are the components of the Control Environment?

A

Integrity/Ethics of Management
Competence of Management
Organizational Structure
Human Resource Policies
Assignment of Authority/Responsibility
Management’s Style (riskier with a dominant/aggressive individual)
Board/Audit Committee involvement

644
Q

What does an auditor’s assessment of Detection Risk determine?

A

Detection Risk determines nature- timing- and extent of audit procedures.

645
Q

What determines the acceptable level of Detection Risk?

A

Risk of material misstatement determines acceptable level of Detection Risk

646
Q

What items could increase the risk of material misstatement?

A

Rapid growth in the company.

The methods management uses to identify risk- estimate its significance and assess the likelihood of occurrence

Major changes to operations- personnel- systems- IT- products- corporate organization- and foreign operations.

647
Q

What happens when Control Risk is assessed to be at the maximum level?

A

No Internal Control testing is performed.

All audit procedures are increased in intensity to compensate for increased risk.

648
Q

What happens when Control Risk is below the maximum level?

A

Auditor tests Internal Controls.

Auditor evaluates Control Risk based on tests

Auditor adjusts substantive tests accordingly

Weaker Internal Control - More substantive tests

Stronger Internal Control - Less substantive tests

649
Q

Describe some common examples of Control Activities.

A

Performance Reviews

Information Processing

Physical Controls

Segregation of Duties

650
Q

What should an auditor understand with respect to Information and Communication on an audit?

A

Understand Client’s

Major transaction classes
Transaction initiation
Support records/documents
Transaction processing
Financial Statement internal reporting process
Financial Statement external reporting process

651
Q

How must an auditor document understanding of Internal Control?

A

Through written documentation such as Internal Control memos- flowcharts- and questionnaires

652
Q

What questions should be asked to determine the risk of material misstatement?

A

Were all transactions recorded?
Were they timely?
Measured appropriately?
Recorded in correct period?
Presented and disclosed properly?
Did Management communicate their responsibilities?

653
Q

What is the purpose of testing Internal Controls?

A

Auditor needs reasonable assurance that controls are functioning as designed and effective

Internal Control Testing should be strong as (IRON) so that nothing gets past them

Inquiry - Interview company personnel
Re-performance - Can it be replicated?
Observation - Watch the control be applied
INspection - Dig into the details/documents

If results are as expected- substantive procedures do not need to be adjusted

654
Q

When can controls tested by an auditor in a prior year be used in the current year’s audit assessment?

A

Controls tested by auditor in a prior year can be used in the current year’s audit assuming they are re-tested every third year

Exception If the control has changed since the last audit

655
Q

What happens if Internal Controls are deficient?

A

Control Risk increases

Scope of substantive procedures increases

Detection Risk decreases

Material Weakness - Reasonable possibility that a material misstatement in Financial Statements would not be found- more than a remote chance of occurrence

656
Q

What is a Material Weakness?

A

Reasonable possibility exists that a material misstatement in Financial Statements would not be found- and has more than a remote chance of occurrence.

657
Q

What does Tracing test?

A

Tests Completeness

Starts with source document and traces forward to the journal entry.

658
Q

What does Vouching test?

A

Tests Existence.

Starts with a journal entry and searches for a voucher or source document to support the entry.

659
Q

What activities represent Segregation of Duties?

A

Non-compatible duties performed by separate individuals- such as

Authorization of asset disbursement vs. Recording of Assets vs. Custody of assets

If supporting audit evidence doesn’t exit - use Observation and Inquiry

Accounting should be segregated from Production

660
Q

With respect to signing checks - how are duties segregated?

A

Employees who prepare vouchers/invoices should not also have the authority to SIGN CHECKS

Tip - Remember this as an underlying theme with Segregation of Duties. The authority to make a payment should not also lie in the hands of those creating invoices/vouchers. Why? People commit fraud by setting up fake companies and basically paying themselves

661
Q

With respect to custody of assets - how should duties be segregated?

A

Employees who have custody of assets should not also RECORD those assets

Someone in charge of petty cash should not also control the petty cash records

Treasury Department (custodians) should NOT have record keeping duties

They control assets and should not be able to adjust any recording of those assets

662
Q

What are the limitations on Control Activities?

A

Controls can’t stop collusion or bad judgment

Management can override controls

Cost vs. Benefit relationship of Internal Control

663
Q

What is required if a Material Weakness is identified?

A

A written report to management is required.

Report declaring that no material weaknesses were found is allowed

Previous weaknesses reported that still exist should be reported again

Should be reported no later than 60 days after audit report release date

If one or more material weaknesses is uncorrected at year-end- an Adverse Opinion on Internal Control must be given

664
Q

What is the effect of a Significant Deficiency? What is it?

A

A significant deficiency adversely affects a company’s ability to report in the financial statements according to GAAP.

A significant deficiency is a more than a remote likelihood of material misstatement by more than an inconsequential amount

665
Q

What must occur if a Significant Deficiency is identified?

A

If a Significant Deficiency is identified- a written report to management required

Report declaring that no significant deficiencies exist is not allowed

Previous deficiencies reported that still exist should be reported again

Should be reported no later than 60 days after the audit report release date

666
Q

What is a Control Deficiency?

A

A control is not operating as intended.

667
Q

What must an auditor ask if using the work of third parties?

A

Are they competent?

Are they objective?

668
Q

What must an auditor understand with respect to internal auditors?

A

Auditor needs to understand the role of Internal Auditors within the organization because their work affects the audit plan

Responsibility for judgments about materiality or appropriateness of entries or estimates cannot be shared with third parties like Internal Auditors

Internal Auditors should be asked to do some of the legwork like preparing schedules or running reports

They should not be asked to make any decisions or judgments

669
Q

What is required in an examination of Internal Control under Sarbanes-Oxley?

A

CEO/CFO must disclose deficiencies

Management must provide assessment of Internal Controls

Management must certify Financial Statements

670
Q

What is the relationship between Internal Control and Substantive Testing?

A

Has inverse relationship

Stronger Internal Control results in LESS substantive testing

Weaker Internal Control leads to MORE substantive testing

671
Q

What are the three objectives of Internal Control?

A

Reliability of Financial Reporting

Operational Efficiency/Effectiveness

Compliance with Law and Regulations

672
Q

What are the five components of Internal Control?

A

Control Activities

Risk Assessment

Information and Communications

Monitoring

Control Environment

673
Q

What are the components of the Control Environment?

A

Integrity/Ethics of Management
Competence of Management
Organizational Structure
Human Resources Policies
Assignment of Authority/Responsibility
Management’s Style (riskier with a dominant/aggressive individual)
Board/Audit Committee involvement

674
Q

What happens when Control Risk is below the maximum level?

A

Auditor tests Internal Controls.

Auditor evaluates Control Risk based on tests

Auditor adjusts substantive tests accordingly

Weaker Internal Control - More substantive tests

Stronger Internal Control - Less substantive tests

675
Q

What should an auditor understand with respect to Information and Communication on an audit?

A

Understand Client’s

Major transaction classes
Transaction initiation
Support records/documents
Transaction processing
Financial Statement internal reporting process
Financial Statement external communication process

676
Q

How must an auditor document understanding of Internal Control?

A

Auditor must document understanding of Internal Control via Memos - Flowcharts - Questionnaires

677
Q

What is the purpose of testing Internal Controls?

A

Auditor needs reasonable assurance that controls are functioning as designed and effective

Internal Control Testing should be strong as (IRON) so that nothing gets past them

Inquiry - Interview company personnel
Re-performance - Can it be replicated?
Observation - Watch the control be applied
INspection - Dig into the details/documents

If results are as expected - substantive procedures do not need to be adjusted

678
Q

How are Available-For-Sale securities recorded on the Balance Sheet?

A

At Fair value as either Current or Non-current assets.

679
Q

How are Available-For-Sale security Unrealized G/L treated?

A

Included in OCI (Other Comprehensive Income)

680
Q

How are Unrealized G/L for Available-For-Sale securities that are reclassified to Held-to-Maturity or Trading Securities treated?

A

HTM - Stockholder’s Equity
/ Trading Securities - Current Period.

681
Q

How are Held-to-Maturity securities recorded on the Balance Sheet?

A

Amortized cost as Current or Non-current assets.

If reclassified as AFS - Unrealized G/L go to Stockholder’s Equity

If reclassified as Trading Securities - Unrealized G/L recognized in Current Period

682
Q

How are Held-to-Maturity securities Unrealized G/L treated?

A

Trick question - Unrealized gains or losses are not applicable because they are HTM

683
Q

How are Trading Securities recorded on the Balance Sheet?

A

At Fair Value as a Current Asset

Unrealized gains/losses are recorded on the Income Statement

If they are reclassified as held-to-maturity or available-for-sale- there is no effect upon transfer.

684
Q

How are Trading Securities Unrealized G/L treated?

A

Recorded on the Income Statement

If they are reclassified as HTM or AFS - there is no effect upon transfer.

685
Q

Which financial statements are required for not - for - profit organizations?

A

Statement of Financial Position

Statement of Activities

Statement of Cash Flows

Statement of Functional Expense (Volunteer Health Organizations Only)

686
Q

What are the major classifications found on a Statement of Financial Position?

A

Similar to Balance Sheet:

Assets
Liabilities
Net Assets
Unrestricted Assets
Permanently Restricted Assets
Temporarily Restricted Assets

687
Q

What are the major classifications in a Statement of Activities?

A

Similar to an Income Statement - organization - wide:

Revenues
Expenses - ONLY deducted from Unrestricted Revenues
Gains and Losses
Changes in Net Asset classes
Unrestricted
Permanently Restricted
Temporarily Restricted

688
Q

What are the characteristics of a Statement of Cash Flows for not - for - profits? What are the major classifications?

A

Both direct and indirect methods are OK

Operating Activities - Unrestricted Revenues and Unrestricted Expenses

Investing Activities

Financing Activities - Endowments and restricted contributions

689
Q

Which organizations are required to present a Statement of Functional Expenses?

A

Volunteer Health Organizations

690
Q

Which statements are required for non - governmental hospitals?

A

Balance Sheet
Statement of Operations
Statement of Changes in Net Assets
Statement of Cash Flows
Financial Statement Notes

691
Q

Which basis of accounting is used for revenues and net assets?

A

Accrual basis of accounting is used

Only external parties can restrict the use of assets (permanent or temporary)

Assets earmarked internally by management are still classified as unrestricted

692
Q

What are the characteristics of unrestricted assets or revenue?

A

No restrictions or conditions placed on entity in order to use the resources

Note: assets earmarked internally by management are still unrestricted

693
Q

When are revenues on contributions recognized?

A

Revenues on contributions are recognized in the year received - not the year the contribution is spent and are recorded at Fair Value on the date received

694
Q

When are services rendered considered contributions?

A

If the organization would have otherwise paid for them

or

They increase the value of a non - monetary asset

695
Q

Is hospital charity care revenue?

A

NO.

It is disclosed in the notes to the financial statements only.

696
Q

How are unconditional pledges to contribute recorded?

A

Classified as revenue in the current year only - multi - year future contributions fall under Temporarily Restricted.

697
Q

Which revenues are expenses deducted from?

A

Expenses ONLY deducted from Unrestricted Revenues - not Temporary or Permanently Restricted Revenues/Assets

698
Q

What are the characteristics of temporarily restricted assets/revenue?

A

Use is restricted to a future time - which could then convert to unrestricted - Class: Temp. Restricted Revenue

Unrestricted contributions promised (including multi - year contributions) - but not yet received are actually restricted by time and are therefore classified as Temporarily Restricted Assets - Multi - year contributions are recorded at the present value of the future contributions

699
Q

What are the characteristics of an endowment?

A

Use of investment is restricted - but income from investment could be either restricted or unrestricted

Must be under control of receiving entity (Quasi Endowment) in order to be recorded in unrestricted net assets

Otherwise - a memo entry is recorded

700
Q

When is the donation of an art collection recognized as a contribution or asset?

A

Not recognized as assets or contribution revenue if they are held of display or education’ or their sale results in the purchase of similar items

701
Q

When both Temporarily Restricted Assets and Unrestricted Assets are available for use - which assets are used first?

A

Temporarily restricted assets are used before Unrestricted assets.

702
Q

How is a refundable advance recorded by a not for profit?

A

Classified as a Liability

Promise to contribute assets pending on certain conditions being met

Becomes unconditional once the possibility that it won’t happen is remote

703
Q

How are investments recorded and valued in not - for - profit accounting?

A

Fair Value is mostly used

Exception - Equity method used when significant influence exists

704
Q

How are scholarships recorded?

A

As a reduction of revenue - netted against college’s tuition

705
Q

How is depreciation expense recorded by a not - for - profit?

A

Depreciation expense is allocated proportionately to various functions

706
Q

When does a security interest attach; or become legally enforceable?

A

Secured interest must be supported by consideration given. Debtor must actually own the rights to the collateral or have possession. Secured interest much be recorded

707
Q

What are the characteristics of perfection of interest in a secured transaction?

A

Gets higher priority over others claiming rights to collateral after the perfection takes place

Attachment must take place BEFORE perfection

708
Q

How does perfection occur in a secured transaction?

A

By filing a financing statement

By possessing the collateral

709
Q

When does automatic perfection occur in a secured transaction?

A

Store sells a consumer good on credit - Store retains security interest

A bank finances the purchase of a consumer good - Bank retains security interest

710
Q

What are the priority rules for payment in a secured transaction?

A

If two parties are perfected; then the first one to file wins

If neither party is perfected; then the first one to attach wins

711
Q

What are the advantages of a creditor holding a lien in a secured transaction?

A

Creditor holds priority over claims to collateral vs. unperfected security interests

Beats perfected security interests filed after lien attachment

Exceptions: Purchase money security interest; which has a 20 day grace period to be filed

Buyers purchasing in the ordinary course of business are immune from security interests held by merchants

712
Q

When common stock and preferred stock are issued in a lump sump purchase- how is APIC allocated?

A

APIC for each is allocated by its respective % of the total FMV of the shares x the proceeds.

713
Q

When is APIC recorded on a stock subscription?

A

APIC increases on date subscription is recorded - not on the date paid for or issued

714
Q

To what extent is retained earnings restricted if legally restricted due to Treasury Stock?

A

It will be restricted to the extent of the balance in the Treasury Stock account.

715
Q

When are dividends in arrear recorded for cumulative preferred stock?

A

They are not accrued until declared.

716
Q

When are dividends in arrears included as a disclosure and not an accrual in the financial statements?

A

If a year passes and no Cumulative Preferred Stock is declared- then the dividends in arrears are included as a disclosure - not an accrual in the Financial Statements.

717
Q

What is the gain or loss when a non-monetary asset is distributed to a shareholder?

A

The gain or loss is the difference between the FMV of the asset distributed at the date of distribution and its carry amount on the company’s books

718
Q

What is the effect on retained earnings when a non-monetary asset is distributed to a shareholder?

A

The effect on Retained Earnings is the Carrying Amount of the asset

RE will be debited when the dividend is declared for the FMV of the asset- which is more (or less) than the carrying amount

Gain/Loss recorded when the asset is distributed will offset the original effect of the debt to RE and will be a wash

The net effect of the entry is that RE will decrease by the CV of the asset

719
Q

When is Retained Earnings debited for FMV of Stock for a stock dividend?

A

When Stock Dividend is less than 25% of Common Stock outstanding

720
Q

When is Retained Earnings debited for Par Value for a stock dividend?

A

When Stock Dividend is greater than 25% of common stock outstanding

721
Q

What is the effect of a stock dividend or a stock split on total shareholder equity?

A

Stock dividends and stock splits both have no effect on Total Shareholder Equity

722
Q

What is the affect on APIC from a stock split?

A

Stock splits only affect par value - APIC remains the same.

723
Q

When is compensation expense recorded at the time of grant for a stock option?

A

Compensation expense is recorded at the time of grant if options are exercisable immediately

They are based on past service.

Expense recognized : FV Stock Option x # of Shares

724
Q

What interest rate is used to discount stock options?

A

The risk-free interest rate

725
Q

What date is used as the measurement date for share-based payments classified as liabilities?

A

The settlement date.

726
Q

How are compensation costs for share-based payments classified as liabilities measured?

A

Compensation costs for share-based payments classified as liabilities are measured by the change in the fair value of the instrument for each reporting period

727
Q

What is the net increase to shareholder equity in a reorganization where a company pays cash and issues stock to satisfy unsecured creditors?

A

Net increase to SHE : Gain on settlement of debt + Credit to SHE from stock issuance

728
Q

What is the primary purpose of a quasi-reorganization?

A

To eliminate a deficit balance in RE by restating its assets to Fair Value

It does not directly protect a company from its creditors

729
Q

How is return on Common Stockholder’s Equity calculated?

A

(Net Income - P/S Dividends) / Average Common Stockholders Equity

Note: Average CSE : Common Stock + RE

730
Q

How is book value per share of common stock calculated?

A

Total Shareholder Equity
- Total Preferred Stock
- P/S Dividends in Arrears
- P/S Liquidation Premium
:Total Book Value

Book Value per Share : Total Book Value / Shares outstanding

731
Q

How is the dividend per share payout ratio calculated?

A

Dividends per share / earnings per share

732
Q

How is basic Earnings Per Share (EPS) calculated?

A

(Net Income - Preferred Dividends) / Average C/S Outstanding

Note - If cumulative- subtract the P/S dividend regardless of whether or not they’re declared.

733
Q

For EPS purposes- which date is used for calculation purposes when a stock split or stock dividend has occurred?

A

For EPS purposes- treat C/S stock splits or stock dividends as if they occurred at the beginning of the year- regardless of when actually issued during the year

734
Q

For which areas is EPS required to be shown?

A

EPS is only required to be shown for Income from Continuing Operations and Net Income.

All others (discontinued operations- extraordinary items) can be shown on the Financial Statements or in the notes

735
Q

When do stock options increase share outstanding?

A

Only if they are dilutive.

Their exercise price is LESS than the market value

If not- you ignore them in the calculation

736
Q

How is EPS calculated when convertible bonds are taken into consideration?

A

[Net Income + Bond Interest (Net of Tax)] / (Average Common Stock Shares + Convertible Equivalents)

Bond interest is added back because if converted- there would be no bond interest expense

Contingent Issue Agreements are included in Diluted EPS if contingency is met