Global - Ops & System Knowledge (MISC) Flashcards

1
Q

What signals to F/A are provided by pilots:

  1. Imminent takeoff?
  2. Climb-out / 10,000 ft?
  3. Emergency?
  4. Turbulence (light)?
  5. Turbulence (moderate or more)?
  6. Destination in range?
  7. Descending below 10,000’?
A
  1. NO SMKG - Cycle 1 time.
  2. NO SMKG - OFF.
  3. NO SMKG - Cycle 3 times.
  4. SEAT BLTS - ON.
  5. SEAT BLTS & NO SMKG - ON.
  6. SEAT BLTS - Cycle 1 time.
  7. NO SMKG - ON.
    (AOM 2.6)
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2
Q

When must you fly a Non-CDFA Approach (4)?

A
  1. No straight-in minimums published.
  2. If approach requires MDA mins (i.e., circling).
  3. No Descent Angle published in VS section (or if glidepath ≥ 4.5°).
  4. No local altimeter (+ apply cold Wx corrections).

​Note: CDFA = Continuous Descent Final Approach.
(AOM 2.21.8)

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3
Q

Explain what aircraft lights to turn on/off for…
1. Taxi?
2. Runway crossings?
3. Position & hold?
4. Cleared or takeoff?
5. Climbing/Descending through FL180?
6. Cleared to land?
7. After landing?

A
  1. TAXI - ON (forward).
  2. STROBE - ON (forward).
  3. STROBE, WINGINSP, LOGO, TAXI - ON (forward).
  4. L WING - NLG - R WING - ON (3 forward).
  5. WINGINSP, LOGO, L WING-NLG-R WING, TAXI-RECOG-WINGTIP off in climb (back), on in descent (forward).
  6. NLG & TAXI - ON (forward).
  7. TAXI remains on.
    (AOM 2.1.1.2)
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4
Q

What is QNE, QNH and QFE?

A
  • QNE = NE for Normal Enroute = 29.92” or 1013 hPa (mb) is set. Operate at a FL. hPa = mb.
  • QNH = NH for Normal Home = Local altimeter set. Altitude above MSL.
  • QFE = FE for Freaky Elevation = Field elevation on the airport is 0’. Very unusual.
  • Transition Layer. Between Flight Levels (FL) above & Altitudes (feet) near ground, is a Transition Layer that separates the two areas. At the top of the Transition Layer is a Transition Level and at the bottom of this Transition Layer is the Transition Zone.
    • Descending: Change QNE to QNH at Transition Level (Jepessen approach plates shows Trans Level to the left of Trans Alt (Trans Level is for the and Trans Alt is for a missed approach)). STARs only show Transition Level).
    • Climbing: Change QNH to QNE at the Transition Alt (Jepessen SIDs only show Transition Alt).
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5
Q

How do you calculate a DDA for a CDFA approach that doesn’t have vertical guidance (MDA minimums)?

A
  • Add 50 ft to the MDA minimums to get the DDA. This DDA is what you set for Baro Minimums.

​Note: CDFA = Continuous Descent Final Approach. CDFA’s require local altimeter, straight-in minimums (no circling) and Descent Angle published on chart.

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6
Q

What is the climb schedule?

A
  • 250 kts until 10,000 ft, then climb at 300 kts / 0.80 M.
    • Minimum > FL180 is 250 kts / 0.80 M and/or ≥ 200 fpm.
      (AOM 2.19.1)
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7
Q

How many total passengers (including children < 2?

A

Certified for Max of 19 pax, including children under age of 2.
* Children under age of 2 can’t be held in seats 5, 6, 7, or 8 (are these forward facing?).
* Only 1 child under age of 2 can be held in divan seat. Only in aft facing seats w/available O2 masks.
* The F/A has the jump-seat & mask.
(AOM 12.7)

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8
Q

What are Missed Approach profile & callouts?

A

(one & two engine)
* FP: “Go-Around [TOGA], Power Set, Flaps 6, Spoilers 0”.
* MP: “Flaps 6, Spoilers 0 Selected…Positive Rate”.
* FP: “Gear Up, Set Missed Approach Altitude, Speed - FMS”.
* Climb: 2 eng’s = Between Vref+10 to Vfe [210 kt max], OEI = Vac.
* MP: “F-R-A” (2 eng’s = 1000’ AFE, OEI = ESA).
* FP: “Set Vfto”.
* PM: Vfto-30”.
* FP: “Flaps 0”.
* PM: “Flaps 0 Selected…Vfto-10”.
* FP: “Slats in, After Takeoff Checklist”.
* MP: “Flaps 0, Slats In, Selected”.

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9
Q

What are the V1 Cut profile and callouts?

A

V1 CUT
* PM: “Engine Failure…Rotate…Positive Rate”.
* FP: “Gear Up…HDG/NAV VS/VNAV…Speed MAN”.
* Climb at V2 to FRA (≈800’-900’).
* PM: At FRA, “F-R-A”.
* Level off by pitching down to put Flight Path Vector to horizon.
* FP: “Set Vfto”.
* PM: “Vfto-30”.
* FP: “Flaps - 0”.
* PM: “Flaps - 0 Selected…Vfto-10”.
* FP: “Slats In”.
* PM: :Slats In Selected”.
* Climb at Vt (Vfto) to ESA.
* At ESA, level off & ask for, “Set 200kt…A/P”. Ask for “QRC Inflight Engine Shut Down or Fire”.

Notes:
* Vfto or Vt = Final Take Off speed and minimum engine-out en route climb speed that provides the best engine-out rate of climb with flaps up.
* Vac = Approach Climb speed is the minimum airspeed for single-engine go-around.

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10
Q

What is the stall recovery technique?

A

STALL RECOVERY
[Autopilot/ATS DISC - Disengage]
* P: pitch down.
* B: bank/roll level.
* T: thrust max (flight spoiler - 0°).

================
For Reference
================

UNUSUAL ATTITUDE - NOSE UP
[Autopilot/ATS DISC - Disengage]
* P: pitch down.
* T: thrust max (ATS off).
* B: bank/roll level.


UNUSUAL ATTITUDE - NOSE DOWN
[Autopilot/ATS DISC - Disengage]
* B: bank/roll level.
* T: thrust idle (ATS off & Speed Brakes out).
* P: pitch up.

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11
Q

What is the unusual attitude nose up recovery procedure?

A

UNUSUAL ATTITUDE - NOSE UP
[Autopilot/ATS DISC - Disengage]
* P: pitch down.
* T: thrust max (ATS off).
* B: bank/roll level.

================
For Reference
================

STALL RECOVERY
[Autopilot/ATS DISC - Disengage]
* P: pitch down.
* B: bank/roll level.
* T: thrust max (flight spoiler - 0°).

UNUSUAL ATTITUDE - NOSE DOWN
[Autopilot/ATS DISC - Disengage]
* B: bank/roll level.
* T: thrust idle (ATS off & Speed Brakes out).
* P: pitch up.

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12
Q

What is the unusual attitude nose down recovery procedure?

A

UNUSUAL ATTITUDE - NOSE DOWN
[Autopilot/ATS DISC - Disengage]
* B: bank/roll level.
* T: thrust idle (ATS off & Speed Brakes out).
* P: pitch up.

================
For Reference
================

STALL RECOVERY
[Autopilot/ATS DISC - Disengage]
* P: pitch down.
* B: bank/roll level.
* T: thrust max (flight spoiler - 0°).

Unusual Attitude - Nose Up:
[Autopilot/ATS DISC - Disengage]
* P: pitch down.
* T: thrust max (ATS off).
* B: bank/roll level.

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13
Q

What is the minimum pavement width for 180° turn?
(AOM 2.16.1)

A
  • 68 ft.
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14
Q

What are the aircraft dimensions (L x W x H)?

A
  • 6000: 99’5” (L) x 94’0” (W) x 25’6” (H).
  • 5000: 96’9” (L) x 94’0” (W) x 25’6” (H).
    (AOM 11.2.1)
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15
Q

Where can a list of approved tugs be found?

A
  • AOM 12.17.2
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16
Q

Where is the location of the ELT’s?

A
  • Above the door inside the baggage compartment.
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17
Q

What two types of circuit breakers are used on the Global?

A
  • Thermal and virtual.
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18
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage to start the APU?

A
  • 22V.
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19
Q

From which DC bus does each display unit receive its power?

A
  • DU1 - DC Essential.
  • DU2 - BATT Buss.
  • DU3 - DC Bus 1.
  • DU4 - DC Bus 2.
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20
Q

What is the minimum oil level to start the APU?

A
  • 4.5 quarts.
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21
Q

What happens when you run a FIRE TEST on Test Control Screen (2-2-3-5-9)?

A
  • 2 Master Warnings flash (red).
  • 2 FIRE indications above each N1 (red).
  • 3 FIRE DSCH handles lights (red - L, R & APU).
  • 5 audio warnings:
    • “Left engine fire”
    • “Right engine fire”
    • “APU fire”
    • “Smoke”
    • “Gear bay overheat”
  • 9 EICAS Messages (red):
    • L Eng Fire
    • R Eng Fire
    • APU Fire
    • MLG Bay OVHT
    • Smoke Avionics Bay
    • Smoke Baggage
    • Smoke Fwd Lav
    • Smoke Aft Lav
    • Smoke Closet.
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22
Q

When will the secondary nav lights come on?

A
  • During power-up to test.
  • When the primary nav light becomes INOP.
23
Q

DC power carts should be limited to what?

A
  • 1500 amps.
24
Q

If demand is too high, the APU will begin to meter _______ to meet that demand?

A
  • Bleed air.
25
Q

The APU can power how many ACMPs?

A
  • Only one at a time.
26
Q

If APU is powering a bus > 37,000’ what must be done?

A
  • The associated ACMP must be powered off.
    (checklist driven. Priority order: 3A, 3B, 2B, 1B).
27
Q

What powers the EMER lights?

A
  • They are powered by their own battery packs & recharged by the DC ESS BUS.
28
Q

Fuel imbalance limits?

A
  • Airborne = 1100 lb.
  • Ground = 600 lb.
  • Auto transfer starts at 400 lb.
29
Q

Requirements for CENTER TANK fuel to be useable?

A
  • > 30,000 ft for planned cruise altitude.
  • Wing Tanks must be full on departure.
  • > 500 lb of fuel in Aft Tank to ensure priming of transfer pump.
30
Q

Requirements for AFT TANK fuel to be usable?

A
  • > 30,000 ft for planned cruise altitude.
  • > 5500 lb of fuel in each Wing Tank on departure.
  • > 500 lb of fuel in Aft Tank to ensure priming of transfer pump.
31
Q

When PACK is in manual mode, what is output temperature range?

A
  • 5°C to 60°C.
32
Q

During T/O when are CAS messages inhibited?

A
  • 80 kt - 400’ AGL.
33
Q

During landing when are CAS messages inhibited?

A
  • 200’ AGL to 50 kt.
34
Q

Max difference between GNSS positions?

A
  • 0.02 NM.
35
Q

Minimum pressure setting for a huffer cart?

A
  • 40 psi.
36
Q

What happens when an EXT DC cart is connected to the aircraft?

A
  • APU Start Contactor Assembly (ASCA) checks DC parameters of EXT DC cart before connecting it to the APU BATT DIRECT BUSS (Reminder: DC cart substitutes APU battery power for APU start, AC cart for powering avionics (via TRU’s), & huffer cart + AC cart for starting engines w/o an APU).
37
Q

How can the RAT GEN be stowed once deployed (2)?

A
  • Resetting the pulled RAT handle AND…
  • Pressing the RAT GEN light-switch to OFF.
38
Q

When selecting L or R ENG BLEED to OFF, how many valves move?

A

Two valves close:
* Engine’s High Pressure Valve (HPV).
* Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV).

39
Q

Minimum power for WING ANTI-ICE bleed?

A
  • 76% N2.
40
Q

When do ADC probes heat up (2)?

A
  • The perform a test when AC is first applied.
  • They come on steady at engine start.
41
Q

How long will an ICE EICAS message be displayed?

A
  • About 60 sec (provided no additional ice accumulated).
42
Q

When does WINDSHIELD HEAT enter warm up mode?

A
  • The first 4 min after selected on. It operates at 33% power, then normal mode.
43
Q

When the WINDSHIELD HEAT is selected to ON, what is the nominal temperture of the windshield and side windows?

A
  • 37°C (98°F).
44
Q

With the loss of electrical power the Cowl Anti-Ice Valve fail?

A
  • Open.
45
Q

With loss of electrical power, WING ANTI-ICE Valve fails in what position?

A
  • Closed.
46
Q

How many fire extinguishers, Portable O2 w/Mask and PBE on board? Location?

A
  • 3 fire extinguishers (Zone 1, Zone 3 and Aft Lav). 6000 has 4 fire extinguishers (AOM 11.2.2).
  • 1 Portable O2 w/Mask (Vestibule Closet).
  • 1 PBE (Lav).
47
Q

How many life rafts on board? Locations? Fit how many?

A

2 Life Rafts (inside low cabinet under emergency exit & other is under divan (couch):
* 6000: 12-Person (x2).
* 5000: 11-Person (x2).
* 5500: 11-Person & 13-Person.

48
Q

What medical equipment is on board? Where?

A
  • 2 First Aid Kits (Vestibule closet & Aft Lav).
  • 1 AED (“CPR coaching machine” in Vestibule Closet).
  • Tempus IC (“vital signs monitor” in Aft Lav).
  • 2 Therapeutic Nebulizer Kits (“Medical O2” in Zones 2 & 3).
49
Q

Engine Bleed air is extracted for which systems (4)?

A
  • Air Conditioning.
  • Pressurization.
  • Anti-Ice (COWL & WING).
  • Cross-Engine Starts.
50
Q

The Engine’s FADEC provides what control functions (8)?

A
  • Auto Start & Relight.
  • Idle Speed Control.
  • Acceleration & Deceleration.
  • Limit Protection for Engine Speed.
  • Limit Protection for Temperture.
  • Control of oil & fuel tempertures.
  • Fuel Metering.
  • Control of igniters & start valves.

FADEC = Full Authority Digital Engine Controller. Has dual alternating channels & generates its own electrical power or can revert to aircraft power.

51
Q

What is the maximum THRUST REVERSE setting?

A

Maximum REVERSE THRUST is 70% N1 for 30 seconds.

52
Q

How many Fire Loops for each engine? How many Fire Bottles?

A
  • There are 2 Fire Detection Loops per engine.
  • There are 2 Fire Bottles total for L ENG, R ENG & APU.
53
Q

What type of oil is used for the Globals?

A

5/6000: BP Turbo 2380.
5500: Eastman 2197.

Note: Don’t mix oil types.
(AOM 7.3.3)

54
Q

What are the FRA (Flap Retract Altitude)…
* 2-Engine Takeoff?
* 1-Engine Takeoff?
* 2-Engine Go-Around?
* 1-Engine Go-Around?

A
  • ≈ 400 ft AGL.
  • ≈ 800 - 900 ft AGL (per release).
  • 1000 ft AGL.
  • Emergency Safe Altitude (ESA), ≈ 3,000 ft.