Global Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

MAXIMUM WEIGHTS
Taxi and Ramp Weight………………………………………………. ?
Takeoff Weight………………………………………………………….. ?
Landing Weight………………………………………………………… ?
Zero Fuel Weight………………………………………………………. ?

A

Taxi and Ramp Weight………………………………….. 96,250 lb.
Takeoff Weight……………………………………………… 96,000 lb.
Landing Weight……………………………………………. 78,600 lb.
Zero Fuel Weight………………………………………….. 56,000 lb.

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2
Q

TAKEOFF ON RUNWAYS

NEAR BODIES OF WATER

A

For takeoff at weights above the maximum landing weight,
OUTFLOW VLV 2 must be closed and one air-conditioning
pack must be shutdown for takeoff.

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3
Q

LANDING ON RUNWAYS

NEAR BODIES OF WATER

A

LANDING ON RUNWAYS
NEAR BODIES OF WATER
For forced/emergency landing at weights above the maximum
landing weight, OUTFLOW VLV 2 must be closed and
one air-conditioning pack must be shutdown for landing.
MENU

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4
Q
MAXIMUM AIRPORT
PRESSURE ALTITUDE
Maximum Airport Pressure
Altitude for Takeoff and Landing......................................... ?
MENU
A

Maximum Airport Pressure

Altitude for Takeoff and Landing……………………… 10,000 ft.

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5
Q

MAXIMUM AIRPORT
PRESSURE ALTITUDE
Maximum airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing
with Supplement 20 ____________________________ .
MENU

A

Maximum airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing

with Supplement 20 13,700 feet Pressure Altitude.

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6
Q

MAXIMUM OPERATING ALTITUDE

A

51,000 ft.

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7
Q

MAXIMUM AMBIENT
AIR TEMPERATURE
Maximum Ambient Air Temperature
Approved for Takeoff and Landing……………………………….. ?

A

+50°C (122°F)

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8
Q

MINIMUM AMBIENT
AIR TEMPERATURE
Minimum Ambient Air Temperature
Approved for Takeoff………………………………………………….. ?

A

–40°C (–40°F)

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9
Q

COWL ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Takeoff:
During takeoff, use of cowl anti-ice in ______ mode is
prohibited.

A

Takeoff:
During takeoff, use of cowl anti-ice in AUTO mode is
prohibited.

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10
Q

COWL ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Ground Operations:
The cowl anti-ice system must be ON when the OAT is
________ or below and visible moisture in any form is present
(such as fog with a visibility of 1,500 meters (one mile) or
less, rain, snow, and ice crystals).

A

Ground Operations:
The cowl anti-ice system must be ON when the OAT is
10°C (50°F) or below and visible moisture in any form is
present (such as fog with a visibility of 1,500 meters (one
mile) or less, rain, snow, and ice crystals).

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11
Q

COWL ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Ground Operations:
The cowl anti-ice must also be ON when the OAT is
________ or below when operating on runways, ramps,
or taxiways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush
is present.

A

Ground Operations:
The cowl anti-ice must also be ON when the OAT is
10°C (50°F) or below when operating on runways, ramps,
or taxiways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or
slush is present.

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12
Q

COWL ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Flight Operations:
The engine cowl anti-ice system must be ON, when in ____
________ , or when ____ is annunciated by the ice detection
system.

A

Flight Operations:
The engine cowl anti-ice system must be ON, when in icing
conditions, or when ICE is annunciated by the ice detection
system.
NOTE
Icing conditions exist in flight at a TAT of 10°C (50°F)
or below, and visible moisture in any form is encountered
(such as clouds, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals),
except when the SAT is –40°C (–40°F) or below.

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13
Q

WING ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Takeoff:
During takeoff, use of the wing anti-ice system in ______
is prohibited.

A

Takeoff:
During takeoff, use of the wing anti-ice system in AUTO
is prohibited.

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14
Q

WING ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Takeoff:
The wing anti-ice system must also be ON for takeoff when
the OAT is ________ or below and the runway is contaminated
with surface snow, slush, or standing water.

A

Takeoff:
The wing anti-ice system must also be ON for takeoff when
the OAT is 5°C (41°F) or below and the runway is contaminated
with surface snow, slush, or standing water.

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15
Q

WING ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Ground Operations:
The wing anti-ice system must be ON for takeoff when the
OAT is ________ or below and visible moisture in any form
is present (such as fog with visibility of 1,500 meters (one
mile) or less, rain, snow, sleet, and ice crystals).

A

Ground Operations:
The wing anti-ice system must be ON for takeoff when the
OAT is 5°C (41°F) or below and visible moisture in any form
is present (such as fog with visibility of 1,500 meters (one
mile) or less, rain, snow, sleet, and ice crystals).

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16
Q

WING ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Flight Operations:
The wing anti-ice system must be ON, when in _____
_________ , or when ____ is annunciated by the ice
detection system.

A

Flight Operations:
The wing anti-ice system must be ON, when in icing
conditions, or when ICE is annunciated by the ice
detection system.

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17
Q

WING ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Flight Operations:
Do not hold in icing conditions with the _____________.

A

Flight Operations:

Do not hold in icing conditions with the slats extended.

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18
Q

WING ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Flight Operations:
When in icing conditions, maintain a minimum engine
speed of _________.

A

Flight Operations:
When in icing conditions, maintain a minimum engine
speed of 76% N2.
NOTE
Icing conditions exist in flight at a TAT of 10°C (50°F)
or below, and visible moisture in any form is encountered
(such as clouds, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals),
except when the SAT is –40°C (–40°F) or below.

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19
Q

TAKEOFF LIMITATIONS
Maximum Runway Slopes
Approved for Takeoff and Landing…………………………………. ?
Maximum Tailwind Component
Approved for Takeoff and Landing…………………………………. ?

A

Maximum Runway Slopes
Approved for Takeoff and Landing…………………. +2% (uphill)
–2% (downhill)
Maximum Tailwind Component
Approved for Takeoff and Landing………………………10 knots

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20
Q

COLD WEATHER OPERATIONS
Minimum Ambient Temperature
Approved for Takeoff………………………………………………….. ?

A

−40°C (−40°F)

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21
Q

COLD WEATHER OPERATIONS
For Takeoff and landing operations below ____________
refer to FCOM Volume 1, Chapter 7 SUPPLEMENTARY
PROCEDURES—Cold Weather Operations, Cold Soak
Limitations.

A

0°C (32°F)

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22
Q

WARM WEATHER OPERATIONS
Ground operation of the Display Units with flight compartment
temperatures in excess of _______________, for greater
than ___ minutes, is prohibited.

A

Ground operation of the Display Units with flight compartment
temperatures in excess of 40°C (104°F), for greater
than 30 minutes, is prohibited.

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23
Q

APPROACH
Flying an approach with a published glidepath angle of
___________________ is prohibited.

A

Flying an approach with a published glidepath angle of

4.5 degrees or greater is prohibited.

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24
Q

APPROACH
Approaches with published glidepath angles greater than
_________ must be flown in accordance with Supplement 29,
Approaches With Published Glidepath Angles Greater Than
3.5 Degrees.

A

3.5 degrees

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25
Q

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

TAKEOFF THRUST LIMITATIONS

A

5 minutes with all engines operating.

10 minutes in the event of an engine failure.

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26
Q

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS
Static ground operation in the range of ____% to ____% N1
is prohibited.

A

66% to 80% N1

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27
Q

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS
Maximum Wind Speed and Direction:
Engine starts are not permitted when tailwinds component
exceeds ___ knots.

A

20 knots

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28
Q

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS
Maximum Wind Speed and Direction:
Anytime there is an external or EICAS indication of N1
rotation due to tailwinds, the engine must be cranked for
___ seconds and must be followed immediately by an
AUTO start.

A

30 seconds

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29
Q

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS
Maximum Wind Speed and Direction:
When the takeoff crosswind component exceeds ___ knots,
do not exceed _______ below ___ KIAS.

A

Maximum Wind Speed and Direction:
When the takeoff crosswind component exceeds 20 knots,
do not exceed 66% N1 below 30 KIAS.

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30
Q

STARTER CRANKING LIMITS
(GROUND AND AIR)
The starter must not be used if indicated rpm exceeds
________.

A

The starter must not be used if indicated rpm exceeds

42% N2.

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31
Q

ENGINE START
START CYCLE
Normal Engine Start:
__ consecutive engine start cycles of __ minutes each with
__ seconds cooling between cycles.
After __ attempts, a __ minute cooling period is required.

A

Normal Engine Start:
3 consecutive engine start cycles of 3 minutes each with
15 seconds cooling between cycles.
After 3 attempts, a 15 minute cooling period is required.

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32
Q

FUEL

Maximum Usable Fuel Load—Pressure Refuel……………… ?

A

Maximum Usable Fuel Load—Pressure Refuel…. 43,550 lb.

33
Q

FUEL
The minimum fuel quantity for go-around is ______
per wing.

A

The minimum fuel quantity for go-around is 600 lb.

per wing.

34
Q

ENGINE FUEL TEMPERATURE
Takeoff with engine fuel temperature indications below
____________ is prohibited.

A

5°C (41°F)

35
Q

FUEL CROSSFEED

Fuel crossfeed must be ___ for takeoff and landing.

A

Fuel crossfeed must be off for takeoff and landing.

36
Q

OIL TEMPERATURE
Minimum for Starting………………………………………………….. ?
Minimum Before Accelerating Above Idle……………………… ?
Maximum Permissible………………………………………………… ?

A

OIL TEMPERATURE
Minimum for Starting…………………………………. –40°C (–40°F)
Minimum Before Accelerating Above Idle……….+20°C (68°F)
Maximum Permissible………………………………+160°C (320°F)

37
Q

OIL CONSUMPTION
Maximum oil consumption on each engine is ________
_______________.

A

OIL CONSUMPTION
Maximum oil consumption on each engine is 0.21 U.S.
quarts per hour.

38
Q

OIL REPLENISHMENT
Operation of the oil replenishment system is prohibited when
the OAT is at or below ____________.

A

OIL REPLENISHMENT
Operation of the oil replenishment system is prohibited
when the OAT is at or below –12°C (10.40°F).

39
Q

AUTOTHROTTLE
Takeoff
The autothrottle must be engaged and takeoff thrust verified
prior to ____ for autothrottle engaged takeoff.

A

AUTOTHROTTLE
Takeoff
The autothrottle must be engaged and takeoff thrust verified
prior to 60 KIAS for autothrottle engaged takeoff.

40
Q

AUTOTHROTTLE
Landing
Use of the autothrottle when landing with flaps at any position
other than ________ is prohibited.

A

AUTOTHROTTLE
Landing
Use of the autothrottle when landing with flaps at any position
other than flaps 30° is prohibited.

41
Q

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
Maximum Operating Altitude………………………………………. ?
MENU

A

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT

Maximum Operating Altitude…………………………… 45,000 ft.

42
Q

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
Starting:
Minimum Ambient Temperature for Starting a
Cold Soaked APU On the Ground……………………………….. ?
Maximum Number of Start Attempts Per Hour……………… ?
Maximum Starting Altitude………………………………………….. ?

A

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
Starting:
Minimum Ambient Temperature for Starting a
Cold Soaked APU On the Ground……………… –40°C (–40°F)
Maximum Number of Start Attempts Per Hour……………… 3
Maximum Starting Altitude………………………………. 37,000 ft.

43
Q

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT

Maximum Altitude for Bleed Air Extraction……………………. ?

A

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT

Maximum Altitude for Bleed Air Extraction………… 30,000 ft.

44
Q

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
APU bleed extraction above ________ for air-conditioning
operation is prohibited.

A

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
APU bleed extraction above 45°C OAT for air-conditioning
operation is prohibited.

45
Q

APU GENERATOR

Load Limit On APU Generator…………………………………….. ?

A

APU GENERATOR

Load Limit On APU Generator…………………………….. 40 kVA

46
Q

APU GENERATOR
For operations above ______, if the APU generator is powering
a bus, the associated hydraulic pump must be selected
____.

A

APU GENERATOR
For operations above 37,000 ft., if the APU generator is
powering a bus, the associated hydraulic pump must be
selected OFF.

47
Q

SLAT/FLAP EXTENDED SPEED
Slats Extended………………………………………………………….. ?
Flaps to 6°………………………………………………………………… ?
Flaps to 16°………………………………………………………………. ?
Flaps to 30°………………………………………………………………. ?

A

SLAT/FLAP EXTENDED SPEED
Slats Extended………………………………………………. 225 KIAS
Flaps to 6°…………………………………………………….. 210 KIAS
Flaps to 16°…………………………………………………… 210 KIAS
Flaps to 30°…………………………………………………… 185 KIAS

48
Q

LANDING GEAR
Maximum Airspeed at Which it is
Safe to Extend or Retract Landing Gear………………………. ?

A

LANDING GEAR
Maximum Airspeed at Which it is
Safe to Extend or Retract Landing Gear…………… 200 KIAS

49
Q

LANDING GEAR
The Maximum Airspeed at Which the
Airplane May Be Flown with the
Landing Gear Extended……………………………………………… ?

A

LANDING GEAR
The Maximum Airspeed at Which the
Airplane May Be Flown with the
Landing Gear Extended………………………… 250 KIAS/0.7 M

50
Q

LANDING GEAR
Flight at altitudes above ___________ with the landing gear
extended is prohibited.

A

LANDING GEAR
Flight at altitudes above 20,000 ft. with the landing gear
extended is prohibited.

51
Q

TIRE LIMIT SPEED

The tire limit speed is ________ ground speed.

A

TIRE LIMIT SPEED

The tire limit speed is 183 knots ground speed.

52
Q

TURBULENCE PENETRATION SPEED
Maximum air speed for turbulence penetration is ______ or
______, whichever is lower.

A

TURBULENCE PENETRATION SPEED
Maximum air speed for turbulence penetration is 300 KIAS
or 0.80 mach, whichever is lower.

53
Q

VMCG/VMCA
VMCG………………………………………………………………………… ?
VMCA in the Takeoff Configuration………………………………… ?

A

VMCG/VMCA
VMCG………………………………………………………………. 80 KIAS
VMCA in the Takeoff Configuration………………………. 86 KIAS

54
Q

AIR CONDITIONING
One pack must be selected off if pack control is in
_____________.

A

AIR CONDITIONING
One pack must be selected off if pack control is in
manual mode.

55
Q

PRESSURIZATION
Use of EMER DEPRESS switch above _________
is prohibited.

A

PRESSURIZATION
Use of EMER DEPRESS switch above 15,000 ft.
is prohibited.

56
Q

PRESSURIZATION
During QFE operations, the LDG ELEV switch must be
selected to the ________ and the LDG ELEV must be
set to ____.

A

PRESSURIZATION
During QFE operations, the LDG ELEV switch must be
selected to the MAN position and the LDG ELEV must be
set to 0 ft.

57
Q

AUTOMATIC
FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM
Maximum Altitude for Flight with
Yaw Damper Disengaged……………………………………………. ?

A

AUTOMATIC
FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM
Maximum Altitude for Flight with
Yaw Damper Disengaged………………………………… 41,000 ft.

58
Q

AUTOMATIC
FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM
Minimum Autopilot Engage Height………………………………. ?

A

AUTOMATIC
FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM
Minimum Autopilot Engage Height……………….. 400 ft. AGL

59
Q

AUTOMATIC
FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM
Precision Approach
(Category I or II ILS)…………………………………………………… ?
Nonprecision Approach……………………………………………… ?
Nonprecision Approach with
Vertical Path Reference………………………………………………. ?

A

AUTOMATIC
FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM
Precision Approach
(Category I or II ILS)………………….. 50 ft. AGL (JAA - 80 ft.)
Nonprecision Approach………………………………. 400 ft. AGL
Nonprecision Approach with
Vertical Path Reference……………………………….. 160 ft. AGL

60
Q

AUTOMATIC
FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM
Use of the NAV guidance panel switch for approaches with
____ as a NAV source is prohibited.

A

AUTOMATIC
FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM
Use of the NAV guidance panel switch for approaches with
VOR as a NAV source is prohibited.

61
Q

FLIGHT SPOILERS

Flight spoilers must be retracted below ________.

A

FLIGHT SPOILERS

Flight spoilers must be retracted below 300 ft. AGL.

62
Q

THRUST REVERSERS
Positioning of thrust levers in the reverser range ________
______ is prohibited.

A

THRUST REVERSERS
Positioning of thrust levers in the reverser range while in
flight is prohibited.

63
Q

THRUST REVERSERS
Backing the airplane with the use of reverse thrust
____________.

A

THRUST REVERSERS
Backing the airplane with the use of reverse thrust
is prohibited.

64
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS—FLAPS
Flight with slats/flaps extended at altitudes above
____________ is prohibited.

A

FLIGHT CONTROLS—FLAPS
Flight with slats/flaps extended at altitudes above
18,000 ft. is prohibited.

65
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
The FMS must not be used as a navigation source unless it
is receiving suitable navigation information from the following:
?
?
?

A

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
The FMS must not be used as a navigation source unless it
is receiving suitable navigation information from the following:
One VOR/DME, or
Two DMEs, or
One inertial reference system

66
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
Use of FMS as a sole NAV source for instrument approaches
past the final Approach fix is prohibited unless ____ is
annunciated on the ____.

A

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
Use of FMS as a sole NAV source for instrument approaches
past the final Approach fix is prohibited unless App is
annunciated on the PFD.

67
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
Use of ____ as the PFD NAV SRC ILS, LOC, LOC–BC, LDA,
SDF, and MLS approaches beyond the __________________
is prohibited.

A

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
Use of FMS as the PFD NAV SRC ILS, LOC, LOC–BC, LDA,
SDF, and MLS approaches beyond the final Approach fix
is prohibited.

68
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
The GPS sensor(s) must be deselected when on approach
in airspace not referenced to ______ or ______.

A

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
The GPS sensor(s) must be deselected when on approach
in airspace not referenced to WGS−84 or NAD−83.

69
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM

____ is required for takeoff in precision RNAV airspace.

A

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM

GPS is required for takeoff in precision RNAV airspace.

70
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
The use of VNAV temperature compensation in the
“___________” mode is prohibited.

A

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
The use of VNAV temperature compensation in the
“HOT & COLD” mode is prohibited.

71
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
Use of _____ vertical guidance is prohibited when the barometric
altitude is corrected to the _____________
______________________.

A

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
Use of VNAV vertical guidance is prohibited when the barometric
altitude is corrected to the landing field
elevation (QFE operation).

72
Q

FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS
Use of the FMS TOLD function is _________ when the barometric
altitude is corrected to the ____________
______________________.

A

FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS
Use of the FMS TOLD function is prohibited when the
barometric altitude is corrected to the landing field
elevation (QFE operation).

73
Q

FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS

The FMS TOLD information is _____________.

A

FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS

The FMS TOLD information is advisory only.

74
Q

FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS
The FMS TOLD mode is approved for use with TOLD
software version ________ or latest approved version
as displayed on the FMS CDU “TAKEOFF INIT” page 1/6.

A

FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS
The FMS TOLD mode is approved for use with TOLD
software version SW ID V1.7 or latest approved version
as displayed on the FMS CDU “TAKEOFF INIT” page 1/6.

75
Q

FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS
The FMS TOLD computed V speeds, EPR values and
distances must be verified with ___________________
_________________________________________.

A

FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS
The FMS TOLD computed V speeds, EPR values and
distances must be verified with the AFM or other
approved documents prior to acceptance.

76
Q

FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS
Use of the FMS TOLD function is _________ when operating
on ____________ runways.

A

FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS
Use of the FMS TOLD function is prohibited when operating
on contaminated runways.

77
Q

FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS
For CAT 2 Operations, the CAT 2 supplement must be used
to derive the _______________________.

A

FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS
For CAT 2 Operations, the CAT 2 supplement must be used
to derive the maximum landing weight.

78
Q

FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS
If a difference exists between the AFM and the
Honeywell FMS Pilot’s Operating Manual, the
___ shall take precedence.

A

FMS TOLD LIMITATIONS
If a difference exists between the AFM and the
Honeywell FMS Pilot’s Operating Manual, the
AFM shall take precedence.

79
Q

RVSM OPERATIONS
SUPPLEMENT 8
The _________ must be coupled to the same _____________
as the active ___________.

A

RVSM OPERATIONS
SUPPLEMENT 8
The autopilot must be coupled to the same air data
source as the active transponder