GIT physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the anatomy of the stomach

A

major GI structure lying between oesophagus and dudenum and responsible for breaking down food to produce chyme.

has 4 main parts = cardia, fundus, body, antrum
lesser and greater curve.

fundus has distensible walls for food reservoir
antrum has thick walls for grinding and churning
ends in the pylorus - thick muscular funnel

inner surface has ruggae - irregular folds.

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2
Q

what level does the stomach sit?

A

T11 to L1

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3
Q

describe the layers of stomach - histology

A

mucosa = collumnar epithelium + lamina propriae + muscularis mucosa

submucosa
3 muscle layers -oblique, circular, longitundal
serosa - outermost layer

between the layers lies the myenteric plexus and the submucosal plexus

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4
Q

describe the structure of a gastric pit / gland

A

within the mucosa, the columnar epithelium invaginates into gastric pits which are openings of the gastric gland.

various cells line these and have a function in production of gastric acid and other substances for digestion.

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5
Q

name the main cells of the stomach and describe their action

A

Parietal cells = HCl + intrinsic factor. found in neck of gastric glands predominantley in fundus and body

neck cells = mucus and HCO3. found at the opening of the pits. protection

cheif cells = pepsinogen. found at the base of gastric glands. pepsinogen is precusor for pepsin which breaks down proteins (hydrolysis of peptide bond)

G cells = gastrin - found at base of the gland - stimulates acid production and gastric motility
Enterochromaffin cells = histamine - promotes acid release.
D cells = somatostatin - inhibits acid and gastrin release - in base of gastic gland.

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6
Q

what are the functions of gastric acid?

A

breakdown of proteins - denature and aid pepsins
activates pepsinogen to pepsin
kills microbes
improves absorption of Fe

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7
Q

what is the function of intrinsic factor?

A

intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein produced by parietal cells in the stomach

binds vitamin B12 = protecting it from breakdown and aiding absorption by terminal ileum

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8
Q

describe the innervation of the stomach…

A

intrinsic = myenteric plexus and submucosal plexus - pacemaker cells giving basal level of motility and sphincter control.

extrinsic = ANS
* sympathetic (coeliac plexus) (NA)- inhibits motility
* parasympathetic (ACh)- promotes motility and stimulates gastrin and histamine release hence HCL.
* inputs to ANS includ stomach distention

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9
Q

explain the biochemistry of HCL production..

A
  1. H20 + CO2 by carbonic anhydrase
  2. H/K ATPase luminal membrane
  3. HCO3 into blood with antiporter - chloride
  4. chloride channel on luminal membrane

secretion by parietal cells luminal surface
extensitve mitrochonidria, folds to increase S.A on membrane

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10
Q

describe the control of HCL release by parietal cells

A

on basolateral membrane is receptors - gastrin, histamine, M2

binding of these stimulates H/K ATPase

these 3 hormones directly stimulate acid production. others can indirectly by in turn stimulating/inhibiting these hormones

e..g ACh also stimulates gastrin and histamine as well as direct actions
e..g. S cells in duodemum secrete secretin which inhibits gastrin by G cells
e.g. D cells produce somatostatin which inhibits gastrin
e.g. acidity itself inhibits gastrin - negative feedback

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11
Q

describe the control of pepsin release

A

pepsin is an enzyme responsible for hydrolysing peptide bonds in proteins.

pepsinogen is secreted by cheif cells and then converted to active pepsin by stomach acid

pepsinogen secretion is stimulated by… low pH, gastrin, vagal stimulation

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12
Q

what stimulates gastic mucus production?

A

vagus nerve
gastrin
prostaglandins

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13
Q

what is the role of prostaglandins in gastric mucosa?

A

stimulate mucus and HCO3 production - protects stomach lining from acid

improves blood flow to mucosa

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14
Q

what happens if the balance between acidity and mucus is lost in the stomach?

A

mucosal surface irritation - gastritis
ulceration

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15
Q

what is the role of H.pylori?

A

stimulates gastrin release
produces ammonia which damages cells and reduces mucus production

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16
Q

what are the 3 phases of gastric secretion?

A

cephalic
gastric
intensitinal

cephalic
* anticipation of food - vagal nerve stimualtion - gastrin, histamine release, direct acid production, gastric motility

gastric
* presence of food, stomach distension
* i.e. stretch receptors - more vagal stimulation
* peptides stimulate gastrin production
* at pH less than 2 somatostatin released as negative feedback

intestinal
* chyme enters intestine - acidity - negative feedback by 3 main hormones.
* secretin = inhibit gastrin
* gastrointestinal peptode = inhibits gastrin
* Cholecystokinin (CCK) = inhibits stomach emptying
* also promotes pancreatic enzyme release

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17
Q

what is the difference between reflux, aspiration and regurgitation

A

reflux = from stomach up oesophagus
regurgitation = into oropharynx
aspiration = into lungs

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18
Q

what are the functions of the stomach

A

main role in digesting and churning food to create chyme that can be further handled by the intestines

food storage

absorption - some drugs e.g. alcohol, aspirin

immune role - acidity kills microbes

intrinsic factor - absorption of B12

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19
Q

describe the function of intestinal hormones acting on the stomach

A

Secretin = S cells - stimulated by acidity of chyme, inhibits gastrin

CCK = I cells - stimualted by aa and fats - stimulates pancreaes and inhibits gastric emptying

gastrointestinal peptide = K cells - stimulated by fatty acids in small intestine, reduces emptying and gastric juice production. stimulates insulin

Somatostatin = D cell

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20
Q

what are the sphincters in GIT?

A

Upper oesophageal
lower oesophageal
pyloric
ileocaecal
sphinchter of oddi
anal

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21
Q

tell me about the oesophageal sphincters..

A

2 of these
upper and lower
upper - under somatic control. made up of cricopharyngeal part of inferior pharyngeal muscles

lower - under autonomic control. remains contracted at rest with a pressure of around 15-20mmHg. during swallowing the stretch of the oesophagus stimulates vagus to cause relaxation .

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22
Q

what is meant by the oesophageal barrier pressure?

A

the barrier pressure is the difference between gastric pressure and LOS pressure.

LOS = 15-20mmHg
gastric pressure normally lower at rest

hence barrier pressure is LOS - GP which is positive at rest.

if LOS reduces or gastric pressures increase the barrier pressure can drop resulting in reflux.

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23
Q

what factors influence reflux

A

barrier pressure = LOS - gastric pressure

reduced LOS = anaesthetic agents, alcohol, oestrogen/progesterone (pregnancy), antimuscarinics. physiological factors - swallowing, vagus nerve

increased gastric pressure = full stomach, pregnancy, bowel obstruction, obesity. delayed emptying (opioids, pain)

babies have low LOS and high gastric pressure hence reflux

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24
Q

what factors increase LOS tone?

A

cholinergic stimulation - neostigmine, cyclizine, succinylcholine

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25
Q

describe the control of gastric emptying?

A

stomach emptying occurs when pressure created by stomach pump exceeds pyloric pressure

in general, gastric emptying is proportional to fullness of stomach i.e. fuller, the quicker
howeveer there are a number of neural and hormal factors influencing this…

neural = enterogastric reflex
* food in duodenum - walls stretch - vagus nerve inhibited - reduces motility , slows emptying.
* gives time and control over emptying

hormonal =
* chyme + acidity in duodemum, release of CCK and secretion - reduce motility

External
* prokinetics (erythomycin, neostig, metoclop)
* opiods
* pain, fear - reduces

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26
Q

how does the stomach breakdown food?

A

mechanical - churning
chemical - pepsin, acidity

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27
Q

describe the process of swallowing..

A

both a voluntary and involuntary process
1. voluntary movement of food bolus to posterior mouth. sensory afferents via trigeminal, glossopharyngeal and vagus to swallowing centre
2. causes brainstem activation of swallowing stages. elevation of soft palate to close off nasopharynx
3. closure of vocal cords and larynx drawn down. epiglottis swings over cords. upper oesophageal spinchter widens
4. peristasis starting in upper oesophagus - coordinated by swallowing cells (medulla and pons). swallowing centre inhibits resp centre. LOS relaxes.

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28
Q

describe the breakdown of macromolecules

A

carbohydrates - amylase in saliva and pancreatic juices. makes oligosaccharides and disaraccharides. further broken down by lactase, sucrase and maltase into glucose which can be absorbed.

proteins = pepsin and aa are absorbed

fats = lipase and emulsification

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29
Q

describe the breakdown and absorption of fats by intestines..

A

lipids are emulsified by bile salts
increases S.A for lipase to breakdown triglycerides to FFA and glycerol
FFA, cholesterol, fat soluble vitamins and other molecules form micelles
at the luminal membrane, FFA and monoglycerides leave the micelle and are absorbed into intestinal cell.
within intestinal cell, they reform to form chylomicrons

chylomicrons enter lymphatics via exocytosis
enter blood at thoracic duct

capillary endothelium has lipoprotein lipase which further digests and allows uptake of FFA to cells.
chylomicrons with removed FFA return to hepatocytes

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30
Q

how is glucose absorbed from GIT?

A

secondary ATP
Na/K ATPase on basolateral membrane
gradient for NA into the cell
SGLT 2 = cotransport for Na and glucose - luminal
GLUT 2 = basolateral

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31
Q

define nausea
define vomitting

A

nausea - unpleasant experience / senation of the need to vomit

vomitting - physical involuntary forceful expulsion of gastric content via the mouth

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32
Q

describe the physiology of vomiting..

A

complex process involving many afferent and efferent pathways

Thought to be coordinated by the vomitting centre - an area within the medulla oblongata made of multiple neural connections.
This recieves 3 main inputs
* chemoreceptor trigger zone - lies at base of 4th ventricle, area postrema and lies outside of BBB allowing it to sense toxins within the blood and input into vomitting centre
* nucleus tractus solitarus - lies within medulla - recieves inputs from various areas (vestibular apparatus, GIT, pain afferents)
* higher centres - pain, emotion, fear, raised ICP

various neurotransmitters and receptors are involved including dopamine, serotonin, acetylcholine, histamine and mu opioid receptors.

once threshold reached, central pattern generator activated and vomitting initiated.

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33
Q

describe the vomitting reflex..

A

pre-ejection - nausea, activation of sympathetic NS - sweating, tachycardia. also parasymp - salivation, relaxation of oesophageal sphincters and retrograde peristalsis

retching - respiration caeses, glottis closes, larynx rises, soft palate elevates - protect airway

ejection phase - coordinated contraction of diaphragm and abdominal muscles.

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33
Q

can you tell me some stimuli for vomitting?

A

toxins in blood - CTZ - many receptors D2, 5HT3, u opioid, neurokinin (sub P)

vesticular apparatus - motion sickness - via H1 and M3 reecptors

GIT - toxins in gut lumen, gut visceral pathology - 5HT3, dopamine receptors and substance P all implicated. e.g. 5HT3 receptors on end of vagal afferents which transmit impulses to vomitting centre.

raised ICP

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34
Q

complications of vomitting

A

electrolyte disturbance
dehydration
aspiration
poor absorption/ malnutrion
increase ICP
wound dehiscence

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35
Q

what are the risk factors for PONV?

A

patient factors - anxiety, female, previous PONV or motion sickness, non smoker, dehydration

anaesthetic factors - inhalation agents, N20, opioids . over use of bag/ mask ventilation and stomach inflation

surgical factors - obsteric, cholecystectomy, middle ear , laparoscopic

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36
Q

how does PONV in children compare to adults?

A

increases with age - more likely than adults
rare under 2
no sex differences before puberty

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37
Q

do you know any scoring systems for PONV?

A

APFEL
* adult scoring system
* 1 point for each = female, non smoker, opioids, prev PONV
* each point = 20%

POVOC
* paediatric tool
* 1 point = op more than 30mins, stradbidmus surgery, prev PONV, FHx PONV

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38
Q

describe the anatomy of the liver..

A

major organ within body
sits in RUQ
consisting of 2 anatomical lobes divided by falciform ligament.
also 2 smaller accessory lobes = caudate and quadrate lobe.

39
Q

what is the difference between physiological and anatomical liver lobes?

A

anatomical - 2 unequal lobes divided by falciform ligament

physiological - 2 more equal size lobes, determined by their bilary drainage and blood supply. can be further divided into 8 functional units 4 on each side.

40
Q

do you know any ligaments holding the liver in place

A

falciform - between R and L lobe. also attaches anterior surface to anterior abdo wall.

coronary - attaches superior surface to diaphragm

triangular ligaments - attach left and right lobe to diaphragm

41
Q

describe the microscopic structure of the liver…

A

made up of millions of lobules
Whereby there is a branch of the hepatic vein at the centre of a hexagonal structure

at each corner of the hexagon is the portal triad = hepatic artery, portal vein, bile duct

30% of blood flow is via hepatic artery and 70% via the portal vein
however hepatic artery and portal vein supply around 50:50 of O2 content to the hepatocytes - they drain into sinusoids which lie between the hepatocytes. these sinusoids eventually meet and drain into the hepatic vein.

bile duct cannuli also line the hepatocytes, which make bile which is drained via bile duct

the liver can also be divided into zones 1,2,3 - this is a functional division (acinus) - zone 1 is closest to arteries and zone 3 closest to hepatic vein.

42
Q

what is the difference between hepatic lobule, acinus and portal lobule

A

liver acinus = functional unit

43
Q

describe the structure of hepatic sinusoids

A

hepatic artery and portal vein empty into the sinusoids - capillaries which pentrate hepatocytes and drain into hepatic vein.

large gaps (sinusoidal cap) to allow passage of proteins and sometimes cells
close association with kupffer cells

44
Q

what are the different hepatic zones responsible for?

A

zone 1 = metabolism - most oxygenated region, rich in mitochondria. glycogen synthesis etc

zone 3 - drug detox , CYP450 - poorest blood supply. at risk of ischaemia. anaerobic.

45
Q

describe blood supply to liver

A

extremely vascular organ, recieves 25% of CO (1500ml/min).

30:70 hepatic artery: portal vein
but 50:50 O2 supply
both enter at the hilum and divide to eventually supply portal triad

portal vein goes to liver after draining and supply GIT, pancreas, spleen. (from superior mesenteric plexus)

hepatic artery comes from coeliac trunch which arises from aorta

hepatic vein - drains into IVC

46
Q

what factors affect the blood flow to the liver..

A

hepatic blood flow alters throughout the day with reduces with sleep, exercise, increases after a meal. hence needs regulation.
mostly controlled via hepatic artery (rather than portal vein).

intrinsic
* myogenic response - up to MAP 60mmHg- 150mmHg
* hepatic arterial buffer response - if portal vein flow is reduced, hepatic artery is increased and vice versa to help maintain flow. this occurs via adenosine. adenosine is constantly being produced around portal triad, if flow is reduced, it builds up and causes vasodilation of hepatic artery to increase flow.

extrinsic
- neural - sympathetic NS - A1
- humeral - catecholamines, angiotensin II, ADH. also nitric oxide (vasodilation), and secretin, glucagon and CCK all cause vasodilation and improved flow
- drugs - volatiles reduce flow

47
Q

describe biliary drainage..

A

bile is made by hepatocytes
drained via bile caniculi in lobules
into bile duct within liver follows series of bile ducts e.g. interlobular, septal.

eventually ends in left and right hepatic duct
which join to fom common hepatic bile duct
then common bile duct
which enters duodenum at sphincter of oddi.

pancreatic duct also drains into common bile duct

48
Q

how are hepatocytes adapted to function..

A

depends on which

zone 1 = many mitochondria and glycogen synthesis enzymes, more RER for protein synthesis.

zone 3 = rich in SER and CYP450

49
Q

describe the production and recycling of bile…

A

bile is composed of bile pigments (bilirubin, biliverdin), cholesterol, phospholipids, bile acids and electrolytes.

it is produced by hepatocytes and enters the biliary system and is secreted into the small intestine to aid with digestion.

prior to secretion it is stored in the gall bladder where it is concentrated by primary and secondary AT. released from gall bladder by CCK (causes contraction) when fatty acids are present in duodenum. also vagal stimulus causes contraction.

primary bile salts include cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid
in the colon bacteria modify these to produce secondary bile acids = deoxycholic acid and lithocholic acid.
these are absorbed by terminal ileum and trasnported by portal vein to liver and resecreted by hepatocytes.

50
Q

what are the functions of bile?

A

emulsification of fats and aid digestion - increase S.A

absorption of fat soluble vitamins - ADEK

elimination of cholesterol and bilirubin

51
Q

how much bile can the gall bladder store?

A

30-60ml

52
Q

what happens to bile production in terminal ileum resection?

A

not reabsorbed and recycled
hepatocytes cant make enough bile
so fat indegesiton and poor fat soluble vitamin absorptoon

53
Q

describe the metabolism of haem

A

when erythrocytes are digested by macrophages in the spleen they release haemoglobin

broken down to haem and globin
globin reused
haem broken down to biliverdin which is converted to unconjugated bilirubin.
unconjugated bilirubin binds to albumin
taken up by liver and conjugated

conjugated bilirubin excreted in bile

conjugated bilirubin –> urobilinogen by intestinal bacteria.
excreted and some reabsorbed and excreted in urine.

54
Q

what is jaundice and what are the causes?

A

Jaundice is a condition characterized by the yellowing of the skin, mucous membranes, and the whites of the eyes (sclerae) due to elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood, a condition known as hyperbilirubinemia.

pre hepatic = heamolysis (haemolytic anaemias - spherocytosis, autoimmune, ABO incompatibiltiy)
hepatic = cirrhosis ,hepatitis, gilberts
post hepatic = gall stones , tumours

in general pre-hepatic - rise in unconjugated
hepatic - both increase
post hepatic - conjugated increases

55
Q

how can hypoalbumin affect jaundice?

A

unconjugated binds albumin in blood
low albumin can result in increase of unconjugated bilirubin

56
Q

what is the cori cycle?

A

the metabolic pathway of conversion of lactate back to glucose during aerobic conditions

during anaerobic exercise, lactate can build up from glycolysis. (produced by lactate dehydrogenase). this also occurs in ischaemia or all the time by RBC (no nucleus)

the lactate is transported to the liver in the blood and converted back to pyruvate and then glucose - for further glycolysis, glycogen storage or production of aa.

certain lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes can catalyse the reverse reaction

57
Q

describe the metabolism of ammonia ..

A

amino acid breakdown produces ammonia from amine group
also nucleic acid metabolism

urea cycle removes ammonia from blood
urea cycle occurs in zone 1 of hepatocytes where ammonia is converted to urea for excretion in kidneys.

58
Q

what are the functions of the liver

A

metabolic
* glycogenesis
* gluconeogeneiss
* glycogenolysis
* urea cycle
* cori cycle

drug detox
* cyp 450 - phase 1
* phase 2 - conjugation
* protects body from toxins ingested

haematological
* clotting factors
* albumin

immunological
* acute phase proteins - CRP
* kuppfer cells

digestion
* bile - fat sol vitamins

59
Q

how can liver function be assessed?

A

transaminase blood levels - suggests inflammation of liver e.g. ALT , AST

synthetic function - clotting factors, INR , albumin levels

indicators of biliary disease - bilirubin, ALP

60
Q

where is energy derived from?

A

glucose in blood

macromolecules - glycogen, proteins, fats (break down and gluconeogenesis / B oxidation)

61
Q

define metabolism

A

chemical processes that occur within cells encompassing anabolic and catabolic reactions.

regulated by complex pathways and second messengers and enzymes

2 main pathways = catabolism (exothermic) and anabolism (endothermic)

62
Q

what is the basal metabolic rate?

A

the amount of energy used by an individual in times of rest to maintain basic physiological functions.. 12 hours after a meal, in normothermia

usually around 70-100 cals/ hr
varies depending on gender, age, muscle mass etc
overall in women around 1500cals/day and 2000 in men.

63
Q

what factors influence BMR?

A

patient - age, sex, muscle mass, ethnicity, pregnancy

situation - stress, exercise, eating (reduced in starvation), temp

pathological - hyperthyroidism/ hypothyroidism

64
Q

what calories and nutrients does a typical adult male require?

A

0.5 - 1g/kg protein
5-10g/kg carbs
1-2g/kg fats

around 100 cal/hr = 2400calories

65
Q

how can glucose be handled i.e. metabolic pathways

A

glycolysis - ATP and pyruvate
glucogenesis- production of glycogen
gluconeogenesis - converted to aa

66
Q

describe glycogenolysis and glycogensis. plus the control.

A

glycogen is phosphorylated to released glucose-P (glycogen phosphorylase, debranching enzyme)

the reverse can also happen (glycogen synthase, branching enzyme)

glucose 1P to glucose 6P to glucose

enyzme pathways are regulated by a number of hormones - adrenaline, cortisol , glucagon, insulin

67
Q

how long before glycogen stores are exhausted?

A

3-4 hours

68
Q

describe the process of aerobic respiration…

A

glycolysis - 10 steps - glucose to pyruvate. produces net 2 ATP, 2NADH and 2 pyruvate.

pyruvate enters mitochondria

LINK reaction
- pyrvuvate to acetyl coA (pyruvate dehydrogenase)
- CO2 and NADH produced

krebs cycle
* cycle of enzyme reactions
* starting with citrate and ending with oxaloacetate
* oxaloacetate combines with acetyl coA to madke citrate.
* produces NADH, FADH ATP and CO2

oxidative phosphorylation
* inner mitochondrial membrane and inner mito space
* consists of series of electron transport carriers
* NADH is oxidised and donates electron to the chain, e is transported down the chain, releasing energy to pump H+ ions across into IMS.
* H+ builds up and flows down gradient via ATP synthase
* O2 is final e acceptor and H+ –> H20
* regenerates NAD
* produces 34 ATP

in total 38 ATP

69
Q

what happens in anerobic respiration?

A

glycolysis produces pyruvate and 2 ATP and 2 NADH

NADH needs to be regenerated for this pathway to continue

pyruvate –> lactate (lactate dehydrogenase)
replenishes NAD (oxidised)

70
Q

what substrates can undergo aerobic respiration?

A

glucose
aminao acids - produce pyruvate and acetyl coA and enter krebs
fats - B oxidation to produce acetyl coA

71
Q

describe the process of gluconeogrenesis

A

describes the production of glucose from other molecules. mostly occurs in liver but also kidneys. stimulated by glucagon, inhibited by insulin
important as RBC and neurons only use glucose as substrate.

mostly via pyruvate

e.g. latate and glucogenic aa both produce pyruvate which can be converted back to glucose

also via glycerol - can undergo reverse glycolysis
allows fatty acids to produce glucose

some aa and fatty acids cant produce glucose but can produce acetyl coA and enter krebs

72
Q

what immediate sources of energy in a cell do you know?

A

ATP
phosphocreatine
NADH

73
Q

how does the body handle starvation..

A

starvation is defined as the failure to ingest sufficient calories to sustain normal body function

during starvation - blood glucose needs to be maintained for RBC and brain
this is via gluconeogenesis due ot fall in insulin, rise in glucagon

slowly levels of FFA and ketones rise as fats are metabolised and ketosis takes place..

first 24 hrs = glycogen stores used. glucose drops iniitially, causes increase glucagon, drop in insulin. promotes glycogenolysis

day 1 -4 = glycogen depleted, glucose levels stabilised. fat metabolism predominates. FFA and glycerol produced. FFA can be used by non-glucose dependant tissues. glycerol converted to glucose by gluconeogenesis.

day 4 plus =
FFA are converted to ketones (ketosis)
brain adapts to use ketones

74
Q

what are the indications for TPN?

A

enteral route always prefered where possible however sometime TPN necessary

  • disorders requiring complete GIT rest - pancreatitis
  • post op feeding failed = more than 5 days e.g. ileus
  • malnourished and unable to eat = radiotherapy
75
Q

what does TPN contain?

A

solutions are prepared depending on requirements
water 30-40ml/kg/day
30 kcal/kg/day
1g/ kg/ day protein -
essential vitamins/minerals etc

usualy more cals and protein due to hypercatabolic state in stress/ surgery

requires central access

76
Q

complications of TPN..

A

related to access = infection, thrombosis, bleeding

related to TPN =
volume overload
electrolyte disturbances
hyperglycaemia
can cause derranged LFTs

77
Q

what is refeeding syndrome?

A

severe metabolic and electrolyte disturbance following introduction of food too quickly after a prolonged period of starvation.

during starvation, metabolic pathways alter.
these require K+ and PO4 - these are driven out of cells and stores depleted

once refeeding has begun, K+ and PO4 are driven into cells (low levels intracellularly) for glycogen and fat production (insulin driven)

this reduces extracellular levels

can result in hypokalaemia, hypophosphataemia and hypomagnesaemia

arrhyhtmias, muscle weakness, confusion, seizures.

need to feed slow and monitor electrolytes

78
Q

what is meant by cellular respiration?

A

catabolic process releasing the energy from glucose into smaller usable forms of energy ATP.
consists of glycolysis, link, krebs, oxidative phosphorylation

however also can be anaerobic (only glycolysis)

79
Q

how are amino acids used as energy?

A

proteins hydrolysed to aa
aa deaminated
ammonia –> urea (urea cycle)

the remainder of the aa can be converted to acetyl coA –> krebs cycle.
or glucogenic aa can be converted back to glucose

80
Q

what inhibits glucagon release

A

insulin, adrenaline, somatostatin

81
Q

is autoregulation seen in the portal vein?

A

no, not enough smooth muscle
blood flow is directly related to portal pressure.

82
Q

how does the respiratory cycle affect hepatic venous blood flow?

A

inspiration - negative thoracic pressure , increases CO and heptaic blood flow
expiration - the opposite

in PPV - positive pressure will reduce blood flow. PEEP reduces it further.

83
Q

different types of cells seen in liver…

A

hepatocytes
kuppfer
sinusoidal
biliary epithelium

84
Q

what is centrolobular necrosis?

A

occurs when there is poor o2 supply to zone 3
results in hypoxic injury to hepatocytes, poor drug detoxification so toxicity can develop

caused by hypoperfusion - hypotension, haemorrhage, sepsis
drug toxicity - halothane and paracetamol and alcohol

85
Q

what intraop factors affect hepatic blood flow

A

perfusion pressrue = MAP - hepatic pressure

MAP = CO x SVR
low SVR due to drugs, hypovolvaemia, haemorrhage
low CO - PEEP/ IPPV, drugs

hepatic pressure - surgical pressure

86
Q

what is cirrhosis?

A

chronic liver inflammation can result in scarring - cirrhosis.
small fibrotic liver with poor function

caused by viral hepatitis, alcohol, wilsons, autoimmune hepatitis

results in
* poor synthetic function (low albumin, clotting),
* poor metabolic function (poor fat absorption, risk of hypoglycaemia),
* poor drug detox
* increased resistance to blood flow and portal hypertension

87
Q

what defines portal HTN, what are the signs?

A

more than 12mmHg
ascites - high venous hydrostatic pressure
splenomegaly
varices

88
Q

what are the stimulus for gastrin release and its roles..

A

stimulus - Ach from vagus nerve, presence of peptides

roles = acid secretion, motility, stimulates pepsinogen release

89
Q

what is the alkaline tide?

A

as HCL secreted to lumen,
HCO3 is reabsorbed into blood

90
Q

how long does gastric emptying take?

A

starts at 20min
complete 3 to 4 hours

depends on what is eaten and external factors

91
Q

what are the clinical fasting guidelines?

A

2 hour clear fluids
6 hours food / non clear

paeds
1 hour clear fluids
6 hours food
4 hours breast milk

92
Q

what is gastric dumping syndrome?

A

syndrome associated with gastric surgery
loss of stomach
means suddenly food dumped into intestine

pain, bloating, hyperglycaemia

93
Q

what is the role of perioperative gastric USS?

A

can be used to USS stomach to estimate contents to estimate risk of aspiration. stomach USS when patient in right lateral position

can be useful if limiting starvation period is necessary paediatrics, emergency theatre
or gastric emptying is slowed - trauma, diabetic neuropathy, opioid us

less than 1.5ml/kg in stomach is associated with low risk of aspiration

94
Q

how can risk of aspiration perioperatively be reduced?

A

following fasting guidelines
RSI

other
prokinetics
antacids
reduce opioid use
gastric USS

95
Q

what concerns are there is a patient with hepatitis needing surgery?

A

drug metabolism slowed
potential coagulopathy
risk of worsening hepatitis psot op - hepatic encephalopathy
avoid hepatotoxic drugs and those that use minimal liver metabolism