Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ZZ Notes Surgery > GIT and Abdominal Wall > Flashcards

GIT and Abdominal Wall Flashcards

1
Q

Blood supply of the cervical esophagus

A

Inferior thyroid artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True or false: Physiologic gastric reflux most often occurs in the awake and upright position

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most common cause of defective LES

A

Inadequate intraabdominal length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hallmark of Barretts Esophagus

A

Goblet cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The preoperative test most heavily correlated with the ability to tolerate an esophagectomy is

A

FEV1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most common site of esophageal rupture

A

Left, above GEJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Most accurate test for Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

A

Secretin stimulation test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Preoperative imaging study of choice for gastrinoma

A

Octreotide scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Standard treatment for GIST

A

Wedge resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Subtype of gastric carcinoid associated with type A chronic atrophic gastritis and is usually BENIGN

A

Type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Subtype of gastric carcinoid that is SPORADIC, not associated with hypergastrinemia, and has the worst prognosis

A

Type III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Subtype of gastric carcinoid associated with MEN 1 and ZES

A

Type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

“Watermelon stomach”, characterized by dilated mucosal blood vessels in the antrum that often contain thrombi, is also known as

A

Gastric antral vascular ectasia (GAVE)

Note: It is associated with elderly women, chronic GI loss, chronic liver disease, auto-immune connective tissue disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Treatment for GAVE

A

antrectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Treatment for dumping syndrome after failure of an anti-dumping diet

A

Octreotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Menetrier disease is associated with protein losing gastropathy and ____chlorydia

A

hypochlorydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How much fluid normally enters the small intestine daily?

A

8 L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Factors that inhibit spontaneous fistula closure

“FRIENDS”

A 
Mnemonic: FRIENDS
Foreign body
Radiation 
Infection/inflammation of fistula origin
Epithelialization of fistula tract
Neoplasm of fistula origin
Distal obstruction of the intestine
Short tract <2cm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Most common primary small bowel malignancy

A

Adenocarcinoma of the duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Short bowel syndrome is defined as a small intestine length of less than _____.

A

200 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In an emergency setting, the best place to put a colostomy is _____ (above/below) the beltline, in the rectus abdominis muscle, _______ (near/away from) the costal margin

A

Above the beltline
Away from the costal margin

In emergencies, a high-lying site is preferred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

First line therapy for inflammatory bowel disease in the outpatient setting

A

Salicylates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Treatment for diverticulitis in an immunocompromised patient

A

Colectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Stage III diverticulitis is associated with _______ peritonitis, while stage IV is associated with _______ peritonitis

A

Stage III - purulent peritonitis

Stage IV - fecal peritonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Most common fistulas that develop in complicated diverticulitis

A

Colovesical fistulas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Gold standard for detecting liver lesions

A

Intraoperative ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Clinically significant portal HPN is defined as hepatic vein pressure gradient of >____ mmHg

A

10 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Most common solid benign mass of the liver

A

Hemangiomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Most common benign hepatic lesion

A

Simple cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Milan criteria for liver transplant in HCC:
One tumor less than ____ cm or
Three tumors less than _____ cm
No evidence of gross intravascular or extrahepatic spread

A

One tumor less than 5 cm

Three tumors less than 3 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The only FDA-approved chemotherapeutic agent for HCC

A

Sorafenib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Most common presentation of a biliary injury in the early post-operative period:

A

Elevated transaminases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Most common presenting symptom of somastatinoma

A

Cholelithiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Treatment of gastrinoma in the duodenal wall

A

Full thickness resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The only therapy proven to prevent chronic pancreatitis progression

A

Pancreatic duct decompression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which splenic ligament is avascular?

A

Gastrosplenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Most common physical finding in hairy cell leukemia

A

Massive splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Most common etiology of splenic cysts worldwide

A

Parasitic infection

Most commonly Echinococcal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Gold standard for management of splenic abscesses

A

Splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Most common indication for splenectomy

A

Trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Most common elective indication for splenectomy

A

ITP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Most common complication following open splenectomy

A

Left lower lobe atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Anterior abdominal wall above the umbilicus drains into the ______ nodes

A

Axillary nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Most umbilical hernias are present in 10% of all newborns (usually preterm infants) and spontaneously close by ____ years of age

A

5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Primary treatment for retroperitoneal fibrosis

A

Corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Borders of the triangle of doom

A

Medial: ductus deferens
Lateral: gonadal vessels
Posterior: peritoneal edge

47
Q

Borders of the triangle of pain

A

Lateral: reflected peritoneum
Medial: gonadal vessels
Inferolateral: iliopubic tract

48
Q

Most common cause of urinary retention after hernia repair

A

General anesthesia

49
Q

Meralgia paresthetica occurs due to damage to:

A

Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

50
Q

Management of an adrenal incidentaloma with no other abnormal blood chem and urinary findings

A

Repeat CT and chemical tests annually

51
Q

Syndrome associated with persistent enlargement of an ACTH- secreting pituitary fossa rumor

Symptoms: hyperpigmentation, visual field loss, headaches, extraocular muscle palsies

A

Nelson syndrome

52
Q

Undescended testes are repaired by ____ years old

A

2 years old

53
Q

Screening for prostate CA starts at age:

A

55

54
Q

Most sensitive test for ureteral injury

A

Retrograde pyelogram

55
Q

Most common level of cervical radiculopathy from cervical disc herniation is:

A

C6-C7

56
Q

First line empiric treatment for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

A

Cefotaxime

57
Q

Portal venous pressure of >____ mmHg is needed for varices to form and bleed

A

12 mmHg

58
Q

Most accurate method of determining portal HPN

A

Hepatic venography

59
Q

Syndrome with massive chronic splenomegaly leading to destruction of RBCs

A

Banti’s syndrome

60
Q

Most common symptom of hemangioma and is the usual indication for resection:

A

Pain

61
Q

Focal nodular hyperplasia of the liver has [some/no] potential for malignancy?

A

No potential for malignancy

62
Q

85% of variations in the hepatic pedicle are found in this circular area in the hepatocystic triangle

A

Moosman Area

63
Q

Blood supply of bile duct (2)

A

Gastroduodenal artery

Right hepatic artery

64
Q

Prophylactic cholecystectomy is indicated for the following:

A

Hemoglobinopathies
Heriditary spherocytosis and thalassemia at the time of splenectomy
Transplant recipients (cardiac and lung)

65
Q

Sclerosing cholangitis most commonly affects which part of the duct?

A

Hepatic duct bifurcation

66
Q

Most common type of bile duct carcinoma: (specific)

A

Nodular adenocarcinona

67
Q

Most common initial presentation of bile duct CA:

A

Painless jaundice

68
Q

Hepatic cells that provide the primary defense against lipopolysaccharide

A

Kuppfer cells

69
Q

Most common congenital anomaly of the pancreas

A

Pancreas divisum

70
Q

Best procedure for a pancreatic pseudocyst

A

Internal drainage (cystogastrostomy)

71
Q

Most common site of perforation in the colon

A

Cecum

72
Q

Give the lengths (in cm) of the ascending colon until the sigmoid colon

A

13 cm - 38 cm - 25 cm - 25-38cm

73
Q

Narrowest portion of the colon; most prone to obstruction

A

Sigmoid colon

74
Q

Standard initial therapy for acute sigmoid volvulus

A

Rigid proctosigmoidoscopy

75
Q

Treatment of Hinchey Stage III and IV of Diverticulitis

A

Hartmann procedure, or diverting colostomy plus percutaneous drainage for unstable patients

76
Q

Treament of Hinchey Stage II of Diverticulitis (Diverticulitis with a distant abscess)

A

Percutaneous drainage or resection

77
Q

This cause of LGIB is due to a chronic intermittent obstruction of submucosal veins and tends to cause slow but recurrent episodes of bleeding

A

Angiodysplasia

78
Q

RBC scintigraphy can detect bleeding rates as little as __ mL/min

A

0.1 mL/min

79
Q

Most common hamartomatous syndrome

A

Juvenile polyposis syndrome

80
Q

True or False: Patients with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have an increased risk of malignant gastrointestinal neoplasms

A

True

81
Q

Preferred initial screening tool for colorectal CA

A

Flexible sigmoidoscopy

82
Q

Most consistent rectal valve

A

Middle valve (Kohlrausch valve)

83
Q

Landmark used to identify location of appendix

A

Anterior taenia

84
Q

Surgical treatment for Hirschprung’s disease:

A

Duhamel, Swenson, Soave

85
Q

Most common symptom of anal carcinoma

A

Anal bleeding

86
Q

Which appendiceal sign is this: migration of pain from umbilicus to right iliac region:

A

Kocher sign

87
Q

Radioopaque fecalith in RLQ is nearly always associated with _________ appendicitis

A

Gangrenous

88
Q

Highest rate of perforated appendicitis is among the:

A

Elderly

89
Q

Treatment of appendiceal adenocarcinoma

A

Right hemicolectomy

90
Q

Congenital type of SMA syndrome is called:

A

Wilke’s syndrome

91
Q

Gold standard to differentiate partial from complete SBO

A

Small bowel series/enteroclysis

92
Q

Worst prognosis among small bowel neoplasms

A

Jejunal/ileal adenocarcinomas

93
Q

Most common GI mets of metastatic melanoma

A

Small bowel

94
Q

Treatment for asymptomatic Meckel Diverticulum in children

A

Diverticulectomy + appendectomy

95
Q

MC cause of AMI

A

Arterial embolus

96
Q

Surgical treatment for Pyloric Stenosis

A

Fredet-Ramstedt pyloromyotomy

97
Q

Surgical treatment for meconium ileus

A

Ileostomy with mucus fistula, with ileostomy takedown after 2-3 weeks

98
Q

First step in management of intussusception

A

Air contrast enema

99
Q

Anomaly most commonly associated in infants with gastroschisis:

A

Intestinal atresia

100
Q

Most common arrhythmia during laparoscopy

A

Sinus bradycardia

101
Q

Definition of splenomegaly and massive splenomegaly

A

Splenomegaly- greater than 500g or 15 cm

Massive splenomegaly - 1000g or 22 cm

102
Q

Most common primary esophageal disorder

A

Nutcracker esophagus

103
Q

Most common presenting symptom of esophageal CA

A

Dysphasia

104
Q

Most common ulcer complication

A

Bleeding

105
Q

First line surgical treatment for:
Gastric ulcer bleed
Duodenal ulcer bleed

A

Gastric ulcer bleed: oversew and biopsy

Duodenal ulcer bleed: oversew only

106
Q

Treatment for gastric ulcer perforation (first line surgical therapy)

A

Biopsy and patch

107
Q

First line surgical treatment for duodenal ulcer perforation

A

Patch

108
Q

Treatment for recurrent duodenal ulcer after oversewing

A

Oversew, V+D

109
Q

Treatment for recurrent gastric ulcer bleed after initial oversew and biopsy

A

Oversew, biopsy, V+D

110
Q

Most common gastric ulcer type

A

Type I (Antral lesser curvature)

111
Q

Treatment for late dumping syndrome

A

Alpha glucosidase inhibitors

112
Q

Treatment for early dumping

A

Octreotide

113
Q

Obstructions in efferent loop syndrome are usually due to:

A

Internal herniation of distal intestine behind the efferent limb

114
Q

Management for GIST that is resectable

A

Wedge resection with negative margins (no lymphadenectomy)

ZZ Notes Surgery (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions