GIT and Abdominal Wall Flashcards

1
Q

Blood supply of the cervical esophagus

A

Inferior thyroid artery

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2
Q

True or false: Physiologic gastric reflux most often occurs in the awake and upright position

A

True

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3
Q

Most common cause of defective LES

A

Inadequate intraabdominal length

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4
Q

Hallmark of Barretts Esophagus

A

Goblet cells

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5
Q

The preoperative test most heavily correlated with the ability to tolerate an esophagectomy is

A

FEV1

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6
Q

Most common site of esophageal rupture

A

Left, above GEJ

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7
Q

Most accurate test for Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

A

Secretin stimulation test

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8
Q

Preoperative imaging study of choice for gastrinoma

A

Octreotide scan

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9
Q

Standard treatment for GIST

A

Wedge resection

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10
Q

Subtype of gastric carcinoid associated with type A chronic atrophic gastritis and is usually BENIGN

A

Type I

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11
Q

Subtype of gastric carcinoid that is SPORADIC, not associated with hypergastrinemia, and has the worst prognosis

A

Type III

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12
Q

Subtype of gastric carcinoid associated with MEN 1 and ZES

A

Type II

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13
Q

“Watermelon stomach”, characterized by dilated mucosal blood vessels in the antrum that often contain thrombi, is also known as

A

Gastric antral vascular ectasia (GAVE)

Note: It is associated with elderly women, chronic GI loss, chronic liver disease, auto-immune connective tissue disorder

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14
Q

Treatment for GAVE

A

antrectomy

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15
Q

Treatment for dumping syndrome after failure of an anti-dumping diet

A

Octreotide

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16
Q

Menetrier disease is associated with protein losing gastropathy and ____chlorydia

A

hypochlorydia

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17
Q

How much fluid normally enters the small intestine daily?

A

8 L

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18
Q

Factors that inhibit spontaneous fistula closure

“FRIENDS”

A
Mnemonic: FRIENDS
Foreign body
Radiation 
Infection/inflammation of fistula origin
Epithelialization of fistula tract
Neoplasm of fistula origin
Distal obstruction of the intestine
Short tract <2cm
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19
Q

Most common primary small bowel malignancy

A

Adenocarcinoma of the duodenum

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20
Q

Short bowel syndrome is defined as a small intestine length of less than _____.

A

200 cm

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21
Q

In an emergency setting, the best place to put a colostomy is _____ (above/below) the beltline, in the rectus abdominis muscle, _______ (near/away from) the costal margin

A

Above the beltline
Away from the costal margin

In emergencies, a high-lying site is preferred

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22
Q

First line therapy for inflammatory bowel disease in the outpatient setting

A

Salicylates

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23
Q

Treatment for diverticulitis in an immunocompromised patient

A

Colectomy

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24
Q

Stage III diverticulitis is associated with _______ peritonitis, while stage IV is associated with _______ peritonitis

A

Stage III - purulent peritonitis

Stage IV - fecal peritonitis

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25
Most common fistulas that develop in complicated diverticulitis
Colovesical fistulas
26
Gold standard for detecting liver lesions
Intraoperative ultrasound
27
Clinically significant portal HPN is defined as hepatic vein pressure gradient of >____ mmHg
10 mmHg
28
Most common solid benign mass of the liver
Hemangiomas
29
Most common benign hepatic lesion
Simple cyst
30
Milan criteria for liver transplant in HCC: One tumor less than ____ cm or Three tumors less than _____ cm No evidence of gross intravascular or extrahepatic spread
One tumor less than 5 cm | Three tumors less than 3 cm
31
The only FDA-approved chemotherapeutic agent for HCC
Sorafenib
32
Most common presentation of a biliary injury in the early post-operative period:
Elevated transaminases
33
Most common presenting symptom of somastatinoma
Cholelithiasis
34
Treatment of gastrinoma in the duodenal wall
Full thickness resection
35
The only therapy proven to prevent chronic pancreatitis progression
Pancreatic duct decompression
36
Which splenic ligament is avascular?
Gastrosplenic
37
Most common physical finding in hairy cell leukemia
Massive splenomegaly
38
Most common etiology of splenic cysts worldwide
Parasitic infection | Most commonly Echinococcal
39
Gold standard for management of splenic abscesses
Splenectomy
40
Most common indication for splenectomy
Trauma
41
Most common elective indication for splenectomy
ITP
42
Most common complication following open splenectomy
Left lower lobe atelectasis
43
Anterior abdominal wall above the umbilicus drains into the ______ nodes
Axillary nodes
44
Most umbilical hernias are present in 10% of all newborns (usually preterm infants) and spontaneously close by ____ years of age
5 years
45
Primary treatment for retroperitoneal fibrosis
Corticosteroids
46
Borders of the triangle of doom
Medial: ductus deferens Lateral: gonadal vessels Posterior: peritoneal edge
47
Borders of the triangle of pain
Lateral: reflected peritoneum Medial: gonadal vessels Inferolateral: iliopubic tract
48
Most common cause of urinary retention after hernia repair
General anesthesia
49
Meralgia paresthetica occurs due to damage to:
Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
50
Management of an adrenal incidentaloma with no other abnormal blood chem and urinary findings
Repeat CT and chemical tests annually
51
Syndrome associated with persistent enlargement of an ACTH- secreting pituitary fossa rumor Symptoms: hyperpigmentation, visual field loss, headaches, extraocular muscle palsies
Nelson syndrome
52
Undescended testes are repaired by ____ years old
2 years old
53
Screening for prostate CA starts at age:
55
54
Most sensitive test for ureteral injury
Retrograde pyelogram
55
Most common level of cervical radiculopathy from cervical disc herniation is:
C6-C7
56
First line empiric treatment for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Cefotaxime
57
Portal venous pressure of >____ mmHg is needed for varices to form and bleed
12 mmHg
58
Most accurate method of determining portal HPN
Hepatic venography
59
Syndrome with massive chronic splenomegaly leading to destruction of RBCs
Banti’s syndrome
60
Most common symptom of hemangioma and is the usual indication for resection:
Pain
61
Focal nodular hyperplasia of the liver has [some/no] potential for malignancy?
No potential for malignancy
62
85% of variations in the hepatic pedicle are found in this circular area in the hepatocystic triangle
Moosman Area
63
Blood supply of bile duct (2)
Gastroduodenal artery | Right hepatic artery
64
Prophylactic cholecystectomy is indicated for the following:
Hemoglobinopathies Heriditary spherocytosis and thalassemia at the time of splenectomy Transplant recipients (cardiac and lung)
65
Sclerosing cholangitis most commonly affects which part of the duct?
Hepatic duct bifurcation
66
Most common type of bile duct carcinoma: (specific)
Nodular adenocarcinona
67
Most common initial presentation of bile duct CA:
Painless jaundice
68
Hepatic cells that provide the primary defense against lipopolysaccharide
Kuppfer cells
69
Most common congenital anomaly of the pancreas
Pancreas divisum
70
Best procedure for a pancreatic pseudocyst
Internal drainage (cystogastrostomy)
71
Most common site of perforation in the colon
Cecum
72
Give the lengths (in cm) of the ascending colon until the sigmoid colon
13 cm - 38 cm - 25 cm - 25-38cm
73
Narrowest portion of the colon; most prone to obstruction
Sigmoid colon
74
Standard initial therapy for acute sigmoid volvulus
Rigid proctosigmoidoscopy
75
Treatment of Hinchey Stage III and IV of Diverticulitis
Hartmann procedure, or diverting colostomy plus percutaneous drainage for unstable patients
76
Treament of Hinchey Stage II of Diverticulitis (Diverticulitis with a distant abscess)
Percutaneous drainage or resection
77
This cause of LGIB is due to a chronic intermittent obstruction of submucosal veins and tends to cause slow but recurrent episodes of bleeding
Angiodysplasia
78
RBC scintigraphy can detect bleeding rates as little as __ mL/min
0.1 mL/min
79
Most common hamartomatous syndrome
Juvenile polyposis syndrome
80
True or False: Patients with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have an increased risk of malignant gastrointestinal neoplasms
True
81
Preferred initial screening tool for colorectal CA
Flexible sigmoidoscopy
82
Most consistent rectal valve
Middle valve (Kohlrausch valve)
83
Landmark used to identify location of appendix
Anterior taenia
84
Surgical treatment for Hirschprung’s disease:
Duhamel, Swenson, Soave
85
Most common symptom of anal carcinoma
Anal bleeding
86
Which appendiceal sign is this: migration of pain from umbilicus to right iliac region:
Kocher sign
87
Radioopaque fecalith in RLQ is nearly always associated with _________ appendicitis
Gangrenous
88
Highest rate of perforated appendicitis is among the:
Elderly
89
Treatment of appendiceal adenocarcinoma
Right hemicolectomy
90
Congenital type of SMA syndrome is called:
Wilke’s syndrome
91
Gold standard to differentiate partial from complete SBO
Small bowel series/enteroclysis
92
Worst prognosis among small bowel neoplasms
Jejunal/ileal adenocarcinomas
93
Most common GI mets of metastatic melanoma
Small bowel
94
Treatment for asymptomatic Meckel Diverticulum in children
Diverticulectomy + appendectomy
95
MC cause of AMI
Arterial embolus
96
Surgical treatment for Pyloric Stenosis
Fredet-Ramstedt pyloromyotomy
97
Surgical treatment for meconium ileus
Ileostomy with mucus fistula, with ileostomy takedown after 2-3 weeks
98
First step in management of intussusception
Air contrast enema
99
Anomaly most commonly associated in infants with gastroschisis:
Intestinal atresia
100
Most common arrhythmia during laparoscopy
Sinus bradycardia
101
Definition of splenomegaly and massive splenomegaly
Splenomegaly- greater than 500g or 15 cm | Massive splenomegaly - 1000g or 22 cm
102
Most common primary esophageal disorder
Nutcracker esophagus
103
Most common presenting symptom of esophageal CA
Dysphasia
104
Most common ulcer complication
Bleeding
105
First line surgical treatment for: Gastric ulcer bleed Duodenal ulcer bleed
Gastric ulcer bleed: oversew and biopsy | Duodenal ulcer bleed: oversew only
106
Treatment for gastric ulcer perforation (first line surgical therapy)
Biopsy and patch
107
First line surgical treatment for duodenal ulcer perforation
Patch
108
Treatment for recurrent duodenal ulcer after oversewing
Oversew, V+D
109
Treatment for recurrent gastric ulcer bleed after initial oversew and biopsy
Oversew, biopsy, V+D
110
Most common gastric ulcer type
Type I (Antral lesser curvature)
111
Treatment for late dumping syndrome
Alpha glucosidase inhibitors
112
Treatment for early dumping
Octreotide
113
Obstructions in efferent loop syndrome are usually due to:
Internal herniation of distal intestine behind the efferent limb
114
Management for GIST that is resectable
Wedge resection with negative margins (no lymphadenectomy)