GI tract digestion and absorption Flashcards

1
Q

What are the organs of the GI tract?

A

mouth
pharynx esophagus
stomach
small intestine
large intestine
rectum
anus

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2
Q

What are the accessory organs?

A

Salivary glands
liver
gallbladder
pancreas

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3
Q

What are the functions of the digestive system?

A

Ingestion - food enters mouth
Propulsion: moving food
Mechanical breakdown
Digestion
Secretion
Absorption
Defecation

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4
Q

What is the benefit of mechanical breakdown of food?

A

increases surface area of food particles

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5
Q

What is secreted in the digestive system and by what?

A

release of:
-water
-acids
-buffers
-enzymes
-salts
by epithelium and glands

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6
Q

Describe absorption by the digestive system?

A

Movement of organic substrates, electrolytes, vitamin and water across digestive epithelium into interstitial fluid

Occurs by active or passive transport to blood or lymph

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7
Q

What is the purpose of the salivary glands?

A

secrete saliva to moisten food and begin chemical digestion of carbohydrates

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8
Q

What are the 3 pairs of salivary glands that exist in the oral cavity?

A

Parotid glands (largest, most watery)
Submandibular (viscous serous)
Sublingual (mucus)

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9
Q

Describe the shape and location of the parotid glands?

A

Irregularly shaped
Inferior to zygomatic arch and deep to skin covering lateral and posterior surfaces of mandible

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10
Q

What is the parotid duct?

A

Also known as Stenson’s duct

Drains secretion of parotid glands

Empties into vestibule at 2nd upper molar

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11
Q

Describe the secretions of the parotid glands?

A

Serious and contain large amounts of salivary amylase

Breaks down complex carbohydrates

Produces 25% of total saliva

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12
Q

What could cause parotitis?

A

Mumps (paramyxovirus)
other viruses
parotid calculi
bacterial (S.a, gram -) most common in debilitated patients with poor oral intake
TB
autoimmune (Sjogren’s)
Drugs - PTU

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13
Q

Signs and symptoms of parotitis?

A

parotid tenderness
facial edema
erythema/edema/discharge of parotid duct
constitutional symptoms

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14
Q

Describe the anatomy of the sublingual salivary glands?

A

covered by mucous membranes of the floor of the mouth

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15
Q

Describe the sublingual ducts

A

open along either side of the lingual frenulum

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16
Q

Describe the secretions from the sublingual salivary glands?

A

mucus which buffers and lubricates

produces 5% of total saliva

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17
Q

Where are the submandibular salivary glands located?

A

in floor of the mouth along inner surface of mandible

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18
Q

Describe the submandibular ducts

A

open into the mouth on either side of the lingual frenulum

Immediately posterior to the teeth

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19
Q

Describe the secretions from the submandibular glands?

A

Mixture of buffers, glycoproteins, and salivary amylase

Produces 70% of total saliva

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20
Q

Describe the composition of saliva?

A

99.4% water
0.6%:
-electrolytes (Na, Cl, HCO3)
-buffers
-glycoproteins
-antibodies
-enzymes
-waste products
-mucins

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21
Q

What are mucins?

A

glycoproteins in the saliva which provide lubrication actions

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22
Q

What are the functions of saliva? (6)

A
  1. Flush and clean the oral cavity
  2. Buffer saliva (pH~7)
    -helps prevent acid buildup from bacteria
  3. Contains lysozymes and antibodies to help control oral bacteria
  4. Lubricates the mouth and food that enters the mouth
  5. Dissolves food chemicals which stimulate the taste buds
  6. Begins digestion of complex carbohydrates
    -salivary amylase
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23
Q

What are causes and the result of decreased saliva production?

A

Leads to increased bacterial build-up in oral cavity
-radiation
-sleep
-anticholinergic drugs

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24
Q

Describe the salivary reflex?

A

stimulated by objects in the mouth

Stimulate receptors/taste buds
-mediated by cranial nerves V, VII, IX, X

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25
Q

Describe the innervation of the salivary glands?

A

Each has both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation

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26
Q

Describe the parasympathetic innervation of the salivary glands?

A

-outflow originates in salivary nuclei of the medulla oblongata
-Stimulation increases secretion by all of the salivary glands

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27
Q

Describe the sympathetic innervation of the salivary glands?

A

Stimulation increases secretion of THICK saliva

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28
Q

What are the triggers that increase saliva production? (6)

A
  1. Chewing with empty mouth (chewing gum)
  2. Smelling food
  3. Thinking about food
  4. Irritating stimuli in esophagus, stomach, and intestines
  5. Nausea/pre-vomiting
  6. Unpleasant oral stimuli
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29
Q

Define deglutition?

A

swallowing
complex process that can be initiated voluntarily but then proceeds automatically

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30
Q

Outline the swallowing reflex?

A
  1. Initiated when tactile receptors on palatal arches and uvula are stimulated by the passage of a food bolus
    -info relayed to swallowing center of medulla oblongata
  2. motor commands from swallowing center signal pharyngeal musculature
    -produces coordinated pattern of muscle contraction
  3. When food bolus enters esophagus, respiratory centers are inhibited and breathing stops
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31
Q

What are the 4 phases of deglutition?

A
  1. Buccal phase
  2. Pharyngeal phase
  3. Esophageal phase
  4. Food bolus enters stomach
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32
Q

Describe the buccal phase?

A

bolus is compressed against the hard palate

the tongue retracts, forcing the bolus into the oropharynx which triggers reflex responses

Also elevates the soft palate which closes off the nasopharynx

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33
Q

Describe the pharyngeal phase?

A

Begins as food bolus enters palatopharyngeal/palatoglossal arches and posterior pharyngeal wall

larynx is elevated and the epiglottis folds
-directs food bolus past the closed glottis

Uvula and soft palate block passage into nasopharynx

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34
Q

Describe the esophageal phase?

A

pharyngeal muscles contract and food bolus enters esophagus

food bolus is pushed toward stomach via peristalsis

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35
Q

Describe what happens when the food bolus enters the stomach?

A

Bolus approaches stomach and triggers opening of LES

Once sphincter opens, food bolus enters stomach

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36
Q

Describe a medullary CVA?

A

infarct occurs in medullas at level of swallowing center

impacts swallowing reflex and results in dysphagia

Speech therapist performs swallowing evaluation on all patients before they are allowed to resume oral food/drink; ensures swallowing center/reflex has not been impacted

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37
Q

What are the two types of secretory cells in the stomach?

A

parietal and chief cells

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38
Q

Describe parietal cells?

A

Secrete intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid

Intrinsic factor: helps absorb vit B12 in small intestine

Hydrochloric acid: highly acidic

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39
Q

Describe chief cells?

A

Secrete pepsinogen and renin/gastric lipase

Pepsinogen: inactive proenzyme which is converted to pepsin in gastric lumen; functions as proteolytic (digests proteins)

Renin and gastric lipase: enzymes produced in newborns which assist in digestion of milk; NOT PRESENT IN ADULTS

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40
Q

At what pH do the parietal cell secretions keep the stomach at?

A

1.5-2.0

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41
Q

What are 4 functions of the highly acidic environment of the stomach?

A
  1. Kills most microorganisms ingested in foods
  2. Denatures proteins in food and inactivates enzymes in foods
  3. Breaks down plant cell walls and connective tissue in meat
  4. Activates pepsin
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42
Q

Do pyloric glands produce enzymes or acids?

A

NO

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43
Q

What do pyloric glands secrete?

A

a mucus secretion containing hormones;
enteroendocrine cells that secrete:
-gastrin
-somatostatin

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44
Q

Describe gastrin

A

a hormone produced by enteroendocrine cells that stimulates secretion of parietal and chief cells

stimulates contraction of gastric wall (helps mix and churn chyme)

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45
Q

Describe somatostatin

A

Hormone produced by enteroendocrine cells that INHIBIT the secretion of gastrin

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46
Q

What 3 phases regulate gastric activity

A
  1. cephalic phase
  2. gastric phase
  3. intestinal phase
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47
Q

Describe the cephalic phase

A

begins when you see, smell, taste, or think of food
Vagus nerve is stimulated via parasympathetic nervous system
-triggers production of gastric juices
Several minutes in duration

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48
Q

Function of cephalic phase

A

prepare stomach for arrival of food

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49
Q

Describe mechanism of cephalic phase

A

neural, via preganglionic fibers in vagus nerve and synapses in submucosal plexus

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50
Q

Describe the gastric phase

A

Begins when food arrives in the stomach

Acids and enzymes process undigested food

3-4 hours in duration

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51
Q

What stimulates gastric phase

A
  1. distension of stomach
  2. increase in pH of gastric contents
  3. Presence of undigested substances in stomach
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52
Q

What is the function of the gastric phase?

A

enhances secretion started in cephalic stage; initiate digestion of proteins by pepsin

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53
Q

Describe the intestinal phase?

A

begins when chyme first enters small intestine

functions as control rate of gastric emptying to ensure functions of small intestine proceed efficiently: secretory, digestive, absorptive

Also triggers activities of pancreas, intestines, liver, and gallbladder

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54
Q

What triggers gastrin

A

vagus nerve; food in stomach, esp. undigested proteins

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55
Q

Where is gastrin released from?

A

G-cells within gastric glands and also the duodenum

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56
Q

What are the actions of gastrin?

A

Stimulates the stomach (production of acids and enzymes and also increase motility)

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57
Q

What triggers secretin release?

A

Chyme entering duodenum

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58
Q

Where is secretin released from?

A

duodenum

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59
Q

What are the actions of secretin?

A

stimulates the pancreas to secrete buffers; slows down digestion in stomach; increases production of bile

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60
Q

What triggers cholecystokinin (CCK)

A

chyme entering the duodenum containing lipids and partially digested proteins

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61
Q

Where is cholecystokinin (CCK) released from?

A

duodenum

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62
Q

What are the actions of cholecystokinin?

A

stimulate pancreas to secrete digestive enzymes; slows down digestion in stomach; causes gall bladder and liver to release contents; reduces feeling of hunger

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63
Q

What triggers gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)?

A

chyme entering the duodenum containing many lipids and/or glucose

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64
Q

Where is gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) secreted from?

A

duodenum

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65
Q

What are the actions of gastric inhibitory peptide? (GIP)

A

stimulates the release of insulin from pancreas, inhibits stomach

66
Q

What is the function of the intestinal phase?

A

control rate of chyme entry into duodenum

67
Q

What triggers central reflexes of gastric regulation?

A

stretch receptors in stomach

68
Q

What is the gastroenteric reflex?

A

stimulates motility and secretion in small intestine

INCREASE motility/secretion:
-carbs
-alcohol
-caffeine

DECREASE motility/secretion:
-proteins
-lipids

69
Q

Describe the gastroilieal reflex?

A

triggers opening of the ileocecal valve
-allows material to enter from small to large intestine

70
Q

Where is the vomiting center located?

A

medulla oblongata

71
Q

When does vomiting occur?

A

in response to irritation of the pharynx, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, or oral fauces

72
Q

What happens during emesis?

A

motor response from the medulla
-pylorus relaxes
-contents from the duodenum regurgitate

73
Q

General info about liver?

A

largest visceral organ

> 200 functions in the body

center for metabolic regulation in the body

74
Q

Describe the metabolic regulation of the liver

A

regulates composition of circulating
-all blood leaving the GI tract enters liver via hepatic portal system
-Liver cells extract nutrients and toxins from blood prior to it entering back into systemic circulation via hepatic veins

75
Q

What are the functions of metabolic regulation of the liver?

A

carbohydrate metabolism
lipid metabolism
amino acid metabolism
waste product removal
vitamin storage
mineral storage
drug inactivation

76
Q

Describe carbohydrate metabolism by the liver and the different triggers?

A

stabilizes blood glucose

hypoglycemia triggers:
-glycogenolysis puts glucose into blood
-gluconeogenesis

hyperglycemia triggers:
-storage of glycogen in liver
-synthesis of lipids utilizing glucose for liver

77
Q

describe lipid metabolism by the liver

A

regulates circulating levels of triglycerides, fatty acids, and cholesterol

high levels: lipids removed from bloodstream for storage

low levels: lipid reserves are broken down and released into blood

78
Q

Describe amino acid metabolism by the liver

A

removal of excess amino acids from bloodstream for:
-protein synthesis
-conversion to lipids or glucose

79
Q

Hepatic encephalopathy syndrome symptoms?

A

confusion
personality changes
intellectual impairment
depressed level of consciousness

80
Q

Etiology of hepatic encephalopathy

A

Ammonia is unable to be metabolized by damaged hepatocytes, enters bloodstream, crosses blood-brain barrier and negatively impacts astrocytes

81
Q

Treatment of hepatic encephalopathy

A

low-protein diet (amino acids are converted to ammonia)

Lactulose (decreases production of ammonia in intestinal tract)

82
Q

What mineral storage does the liver do

A

converts iron to ferritin for storage

83
Q

What vitamin storage does the liver do

A

B12
Fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, K

84
Q

What drug inactivation does the liver do

A

removes and breaks down circulating drugs
-limiting duration of their effects

85
Q

How much cardiac output does the liver receive?

86
Q

What are the elements of hematologic regulation that the liver does?

A

phagocytosis/antigen presentation
synthesis of plasma proteins
removal of circulating hormones
removal of antibodies
removal/storage of toxins

87
Q

What part of the liver does phagocytosis/antigen presentation?

A

Kupffer cells

88
Q

Describe Kupffer cells in the liver

A

-antigen presenting cells
-capable of stimulating an immune response
-engulf old and damaged RBCs, cell debris, and pathogens to remove them from the bloodstream

89
Q

What is an example of phagocytosis in the liver?

A

Kupffer cells engulf and phagocytize old RBCs –> RBC heme converted to bilirubin which travels to large intestine and is converted to urobilinogen

90
Q

Describe the synthesis of plasma proteins that the liver does

A

-albumins, transport proteins, clotting proteins, and complement proteins
-ex) prolonged PT/PTT:
-In presence of liver damage/disease, liver is not able to adequately synthesize clotting proteins

91
Q

Describe the removal of circulating hormones by the liver

A

absorb and recycle:
-epinephrine
-norepinephrine
-insulin
-thyroid hormones
-steroid hormones (sex hormones)
-corticosteroids
-cholecalciferol (VIt D3)

92
Q

Does the liver remove antibodies

93
Q

Describe the removal/storage of toxins by the liver?

A

Absorbs lipid soluble toxins in the diet (DDT) and stores them in lipid deposits where they do not disrupt cell functions

Also removes toxins for excretion in the bile

94
Q

What is the function of the gall bladder

A

stores and concentrated bile prior to excretion into small intestine

95
Q

What are the main structures of the gall bladder?

A

3 regions: neck, body, fundus
Cystic duct:
-extends from gallbladder
-Unites with common hepatic duct from common bile duct

96
Q

Describe the anatomy of the common bile duct?

A

Common bile duct meets pancreatic duct then enters duodenal ampulla

97
Q

Describe the duodenal ampulla

A

chamber that receives:
-buffers and enzymes from the pancreas
-bile from the liver and gall bladder

Ampulla of Vater

98
Q

Describe the hepatopancreatic sphincter?

A

Muscular sphincter that encircles lumen of common bile duct

Sphincter of Oddi

99
Q

Describe the process of bile release and the importance of cholecystokinin (CCK)

A

Released when chyme (especially lipid rich) enters the duodenum
-stimulates the relaxation of hepatopancreatic sphincter
-Triggers gallbladder contraction and bile release
-bile blows to duodenum via common bile duct

100
Q

What is cholelithiasis

A

presence of gallstones in the gallbladder
-usually cholesterol or bile salts/calcium salts
-effects 20% of patients over age 40

101
Q

What are the risk factors for cholelithiasis?

A

cirrhosis of the liver
female gender

102
Q

Define cholecystitis?

A

acute inflammation of the gallbladder, usually caused by a gallstone which cannot pass through cystic duct

103
Q

What are the risk factors for acute cholecystitis?

A

female
fertile
fat
forties
fair-skinned

104
Q

What is bile

A

synthesized by liver and excreted into lumen of the duodenum

105
Q

What are the components of bile?

A

-majority water

-ions: dilute and buffer acids prior to entrance into duodenum

-bilirubin: pigment derived from hemoglobin

-cholesterol

-bile salts: lipids synthesized from cholesterol in the liver

106
Q

What is the function of bile?

A

bile salts emulsify ingested lipids and fat-soluble vitamins in stomach
-increase surface area to facilitate action of lipid-insoluble enzymes

107
Q

Describe the enterohepatic circulation of bile?

A

after lipid digestion, 90% of bile salts are:
-reabsorbed into the ileum
-enter the hepatic portal circulation
-liver collects and recycles bile salts

108
Q

What happens following a cholecystectomy?

A

-gallbladder no longer present to store bile produced by liver
-large amounts of bile enter the large intestine (lack of regulation)
-Triggers intestinal water secretion and increased motility
-leads to frequent loose stools/diarrhea

109
Q

What is the function of the pancreas?

A

produces digestive enzymes and buffers

exocrine: secretes pancreatic juice:
-alkaline mixture of digestive enzymes, water, and ions

110
Q

Describe the pancreatic duct (duct of Wirsung)

A

-delivers digestive enzymes and buffers to duodenum
-Also meets with common bile duct to empty into duodenum via the ampulla of Vater

111
Q

Describe the Accessory pancreatic duct (duct of santorini)

A

-Present in 3-10% of the population
-directly branches from the pancreatic duct
-empties into the duodenum independently

112
Q

How is the pancreas controlled?

A
  1. hormones in the duodenum
    -control the secretory activities of the pancreas
  2. stimulation of vagus nerve (CN X)
    -during cephalic phase of gastric regulation
    -allows pancreas to get a “head start” on digestive enzyme production
113
Q

What type of cells produce pancreatic enzymes

A

acinar cells

114
Q

What are the types of pancreatic enzymes?

A

Alpha-amylase
Lipase
Nucleases
Proteolytic enzymes

115
Q

Describe proteolytic enzymes of the pancreas?

A

-70% of all pancreatic enzyme production
-Attack peptide bonds of amino acids
-Secreted as inactive proenzymes, then activated in the small intestine; protects the secretory cells from their own destructive effects

116
Q

What is pancreatic insufficiency

A

Condition characterized by inadequate production and secretion of pancreatic enzymes and/or hormones

117
Q

What is the etiology of pancreatic insufficiency

A

disease process which is destructive to pancreatic tissues
-chronic alcohol use syndrome
-cystic fibrosis
-pancreatic cancer obstructing duct

118
Q

What are the treatment options for pancreatic insufficiency?

A

pancreatic enzyme replacement
Dietary modification
vitamin supplementation

119
Q

What is the function of the small intestine?

A

90% of nutrient absorption

120
Q

What is peristalsis?

A

movement through small intestine:
increased via reflexes
1. gastroenteric
2. gastroilial

121
Q

Describe the anatomy and function of the duodenum

A

receive chyme from stomach and neutralize acids prior to damaging the small intestine

122
Q

Describe the anatomy and function of the jejunum

A

performs majority of nutrient absorption via plicae circulares of villi

123
Q

What is the function of the ileum

A

immune function

124
Q

What are Peyer’s patches

A

-masses of lymphoid tissues within lamina propria of small intestine
-protect small intestine from commensal bacteria of large intestine
-also respond to GI infection

125
Q

Describe the intestinal villi

A

-fingerlike projections within the mucosa of small intestine
-covered by simple columnar epithelium and microvilli (brush border)
-move substances through the small intestine

126
Q

Describe the intestinal cells of the small intestine

A

glandular pockets which extend deep into the lamina propria

127
Q

Describe brush border enzymes

A

-integral membrane proteins on the surfaces of intestinal microvilli
-function in breaking down material that contact microvilli; then, epithelial cells absorb the breakdown products

128
Q

Describe the duodenal glands (brunner’s glands)

A

-Produce copious amounts of mucus when chyme arrives from stomach
-protects epithelium from acidity of chyme
-Contains bicarb which raises pH of chyme

129
Q

What are the duodenal hormones?

A

secretin
CCK
Gastrin
gastric inhibitory peptide
vasoactive inhibitory peptide

130
Q

When is secretin released

A

when chyme enters the duodenum

131
Q

What does secretin trigger

A

pancreatic secretion of a watery buffer solution that helps to raise pH of chyme

132
Q

How does CCK effect pancreatic enzymes

A

stimulates their release

133
Q

What cells secrete gastrin

A

G cells in stomach

134
Q

What triggers gastrin secretion

A

exposure to undigested proteins

135
Q

What does gastrin do

A

promotes stomach motility and secretion of enzymes/gastric acid

136
Q

When is gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) secreted?

A

when fats and carbs enter the small intestine

137
Q

What does gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) do

A

inhibit gastric activity so that insulin is released and lipids synthesized

138
Q

What are the effects of vasoactive inhibitory peptide (VIP)?

A

-stimulates secretion of intestinal glands
-inhibits stomach acid production
-dilates intestinal capillaries to allow for nutrient absorption

139
Q

What is the dominant feature of glands in the large intestines? why?

A

dominated by mucous glands
-mucus lubricates fecal material as it becomes dry due to water reabsorption

140
Q

Do large intestines have villi

A

No; little nutrient absorption (10%)

141
Q

What is the reabsorbed in the large intestine?

A

water
bile salts
vitamins
organic waste products

142
Q

Why is vitamin K reabsorbed in the large intestine?

A

required for liver synthesis of clotting factors

143
Q

Why is biotin reabsorbed in the large intestine?

A

needed for glucose metabolism

144
Q

Why is vitamin B5 reabsorbed in the large intestine?

A

required to manufacture steroid hormones and neurotransmitters

145
Q

What are the organic waste products reabsorbed by the large intestines?

A

bilirubin
peptides
indole/skatole
hydrogen sulfide
toxins

146
Q

Describe bilirubin as a waste product in large intestine?

A

breakdown product of heme conversion to urobilinogen by bacteria in large intestine

some urobilinogen reabsorbed into bloodstream and excreted in urine

remaining urobilinogen stays in large intestine and provide feces with brown color

147
Q

Describe breakdown by peptides in large intestines?

A

breakdown by normal flora in large intestine yields:
-ammonia: enters hepatic portal circulation, removed by liver, and converted to urea for excretion

148
Q

What is indole/skatole

A

nitrogen compounds responsible for odor of feces

149
Q

What is hydrogen sulfide

A

gas with rotten egg odor

150
Q

How do the large intestines move

A

Slowly:
-peristalsis
-haustral churning (segmental)
- mass movement

151
Q

Describe mass movements in the large intestine

A

-occurs several times a day
-move contents from transverse colon through rest of large intestine
-forces feces into rectum and provides the urge to defecate

152
Q

What is the defecation reflex?

A

occurs when rectal wall distends and consists of 2 positive feedback loops

153
Q

Describe the long defecation reflex

A

-parasympathetic innervation
-internal anal sphincter relaxes, allowing feces to move into anal canal

154
Q

Describe the short defecation reflex?

A

somatic reflex (involuntary response to a stimulus

stimulates contraction of external anal sphincter

155
Q

Does the release of feces require conscious effort

156
Q

What coordinates the movements of the GI tract?

A

enteric nervous system (ENS)

157
Q

What are the components of the enteric nervous system?

A

sensory neurons
interneurons
motor neurons

158
Q

What part of the nervous system is the enteric nervous system?

A

Part of the ANS
-primary innervation is PARASYMPATHETIC
-sympathetic fibers also have synapses here
Many fibers continue and innervate the myenteric plexus

159
Q

Describe the myenteric plexus

A

Contains both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation

160
Q

What elements of the GI tract does the parasympathetic portion of the myenteric plexus control?

A

increase:
-muscle tone
-GI activity
-glandular secretion

161
Q

What elements of the GI tract does the sympathetic portion of the myenteric plexus control?

A

decreases:
-muscle tone
-GI activity
-glandular secretion