GI Peer Teaching Flashcards

1
Q

what is GORD

A

Gastro Oesophageal Reflux Disease

it is where there’s reflux of gastric acid, bile and duodenal contents into the oesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

pathophys of GORD

A

it is where the lower oesophageal sphincter is incompetant and leads to gastric acid flowing up into the oesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

GORD risk factors

A

male

increased abdominal pressure (e.g. obesity or pregnancy)

smoking

hiatus hernia

gastric acid hypersecretion

high alcohol consumption

hiatus hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

clinical features of GORD

A

heartburn

relieved by antacids

belching

waterbrach

acid brash

chronic cough

nocturnal asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dx of gord

A

no Ix usually needed - diagnosis usually on clinical findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

management of GORD

A
  • antacids e.g. gaviscon
  • PPIs e.g. lansoprazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

complications of GORD

A

Peptic stricture

barret’s oesophagus (squamous to columnar)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are peptic ulcers

A
  • they are breaks in epithelial cells which penetrate down to the mucosa
    *
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

where are gastric ulcers mostly seen

A

in the lesser curve of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

are duodenal or gastric ulcers more common

A

duodenal ulcers are more common than gastric ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the two important causes of peptic ulcers

A

Helicobacter Pylori and NSAID use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

diagnosis of helicobacter pylori infection

A

urea breath test

serology

stool antigen test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the treatment for helicobacter pylori

A

PPI (lansoprazole)

with two antibiotics (Metronidazole and Clarithromycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

why do NSAIDs cause peptic ulcers

A

they inhibit cyclooxygenase 1 enzyme which is needed for preoduction of prostaglandins

prostaglandins are needed for the production of mucous

this leaves the epithelium unprotected by mucous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the component of gluten which causes coeliac

A

gliadin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what happens in coeliac disease

A
  1. gliadin binds to secretory IgA in the mucosal membrane
  2. gliadin IgA is transcytosed to the lamina propria
  3. gliadin binds to tTG and is deaminated
  4. deaminated gliadin is taken up by macrophages and expressed on MHC2
  5. T helper cells release inflammatory cytokines and stimulate B cells
  6. there is then antibody mediated gut damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

coeliac histology findings

A
  1. increased intraepithelial lymphocytes
  2. lamina propria inflammation
  3. villous atrophy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

diagnosis of coeliac disease

A
  • patient must be ingesting gluten in their normal diet
    • serology
      • IgA-tTG
    • FBC
      • iron deficiency anaemia
    • Histology
      • villous atrophy
      • increased intraepithelial lymphocytes
      • lamina propria inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the prevalence of coeliac disease

A

1% globally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

are men or women more affected by coeliac

A

women are slightly more likely to be affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the name of the criteria that the histological findings of coeliac are checked against

A

marsh criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the symptoms of coeliac

A

bloating

failure to thrive

diarrhoea

dermatitis herpetiformis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is dermatitis herpeteiformis

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis (DH) is a chronic autoimmune blistering skin condition, characterised by blisters filled with a watery fluid that is intensely itchy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what triad of things would you see in malabsorption

A

weight loss

steatorrhoea

anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
name 5 causes of malabsorption
* poor intake * poor intraluminal digestion * bacterial overgrowth * pancreatic insufficiency * poor bile secretion * reduced surface area * coeliac * bowel resection (crohns) * extensive parasites (giardia) * lymphatic obstruction * TB * lymphoma * lack of digestive enzymes * dissaccharide insufficiency causing lactose intolerance
26
what is crohns
it is transmural, granulomatous inflammation affecting any part of the gut it is due to an inappropriate immune response to the gut flora in a genetically susceptible individual
27
what is the macroscopic appearance of crohns
skip lesions, cobblestone appearance
28
which mutation increases risk of crohns
NOD2 on chromosome 16
29
what is the prevalence of crohns
1-2%
30
in crohns and ulcerative colitis does smoking increase or decrease risk
in crohns smoking increases risk a lot in ulcerative colitis smoking is protective
31
what are the symptoms of crohns
diarrhoea abdo pain weightloss/failure to thrive systemic symptoms of fever, fatigue, malaise and anorexia
32
5 signs of crohns
bowel ulceration abdo tenderness/mass anal strictures perianal abscess/fistulae/skin tags clubbing of fingernails
33
what is the macroscopic appearance of crohns disease
skip lesions cobblestone appearance
34
what is the microscopic appearance of crohns disease
transmural granulomatous goblet cells present
35
how is crohns diagnosed
colonoscopy and biopsy looking for macroscopic and miscroscopic changes
36
which part of the gut is most commonly affected by crohns
terminal ileum but can affect anywhere mouth to anus
37
in crohns is there blood and excess mucus in the stool
no
38
crohns risk factors
smoking female mutation on NOD2 on chromosome 16 chronic stress
39
Ix for crohns
Dx relies on colonoscopy and biopsy stool sample has to be done to rule out infectious causes FBC - raised ESR and CRP, low Hb due to anaemia
40
crohns management
oral corticosteroids IV hydrocortisone in severe flare ups anti-TNF antibodies (infliximab) if no improvement
41
what should you add to someone's crohns management if they have frequenct exacerbations
azathioprine or methotrexate
42
what do you get from B12 deficiency
glossitis lemon tinged skin (due to pallor and jaundice at same time) neuro symptoms
43
what is ulcerative colitis
it is a relapsing remitting inflammatory disorder of the colonic mucosa
44
what is the macroscopic appearance of ulcerative colitis
continuous inflammation with ulcers and pseudo polyps
45
what is the microscopic appearance of ulcerative colitis
mucosal inflammation, no granulomas, depleted goblet cells and increased crypt abscesses
46
symptoms of ulcerative colitis
pain typically in the lower left quadrant diarrhoea with blood and mucus
47
signs of ulcerative colitis
fever clubbing erythema nodusum
48
what is the cause of ulcerative colitis
* Inappropriate immune response against colonic flora in genetically susceptible individuals
49
is the inflammation transmural in ulcerative colitis and crohns
in crohn's it's transmural in ulcerative colitis it's usually not
50
what is the prevalence of ulcerative colitis
1-2%
51
what age are people when they usually present with ulcerative colitis
they are usually 20-40yrs old
52
what Ix would you do for ulcerative colitis
FBC: * high ESR and CRP pANCA may be present in serology Stool sample M,C&S must be done to rule out infectious diseases
53
management of ulcerative colitis
sulfasalazine add oral prednisolone if there's no response if they still have disease you can use infliximab (anti TNF alpha) colectomy is indicated if they have severe UC and are not responding to treatment
54
fill in this table
55
what is IBS
irritable bowel syndrome is a group of abdominal symptoms for which no organic cause can be found
56
what are the risk factors of IBS
stress being female
57
what are the symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome
abdominal pain relieved by defacating bloating alternating bowel habits
58
medical management of IBS
* pain and bloating: buscopan * for constipation: laxative like senna * for diarrhoea: anti motility like loperamide
59
what is the prevalence of irritable bowel syndrome
10-20%
60
lifestyle advice for IBS
adequate water reduce/increase fibre encourage them to find trigger foods low FODMAP diet
61
what is the aim of the Ix if you suspec IBS
to rule out other pathology
62
what are the risk factors for infective diarrhoea
foreign travel poor hygeine overcrowding new or different foods
63
is infective diarrhoea more commonly bacterial, viral or parasitic
mostly viral sometimes bacterial occasionally parasitic
64
what are the 3 most common viral causes of infective diarrhoa
* rotavirus in children * norovirus * adenovirus
65
what are 4 common causes of bacterial diarrhoea
campylobacter jejuni e.coli salmonella shigella
66
name two parasitic causes of infective diarrhoea
giardia lamblia cryptosporidium
67
which are the 4 antibiotics which may cause a C.diff infection
cephalosporins coamoxiclav ciprofloxacin clindamycin
68
what finding in stool may be suggestive of a bacterial infection
blood
69
treatment for infectious diarrhoea
rehydration antibiotics antimotility (loperamide)
70
what would be your findings on auscultation of the bowel if there was obstruction
tinkling bowel sounds
71
main features of bowel obstruction
colic pain occurs early but goes with long-standing obstruction vomiting nausea anorexia distension constipation may be absolute (no flatus) tinkling sounds on auscultation
72
how can you tell if it's small or large bowel obstruction
small bowel: vomiting occurs early, distention is less and pain is higher AXR
73
what is ileus
it is functional obstruction from decreased bowel motility bowel sounds will be absent
74
what is paralytic ileus and what does it commonly follow
* adynamic bowel due to the absence of normal peristaltic contractions. Often follows abdo surgery or spinal injury.
75
what is a simple obstruction
* one obstructing point and no vascular compromise
76
what is a closed loop obstruction
forming a loop of grossly distended bowel at risk of perforation
77
what is a strangulated obstruction
* blood supply is compromised and the patient is iller than you would expect. * Pain is sharper, more constant and localised. * Peritonism is the cardinal sign. * 100% mortality if untreated
78
causes of small bowel obstruction
adhesions hernias
79
causes of large bowel obstruction
colon cancer constipation diverticular disease volvolus
80
what is a hernia
it is a protrusion of an organ or tissue out of the body cavity in which it normally lies
81
causes of hernias
muscle weakness (age and trauma) body strain (constipation, heavy lifting, pregnancy and chronic cough)
82
what is an inguinal hernia
it is a protrusion of abdominal cavity through the inguinal canal
83
what is the difference between a direct and an indirect inguinal hernia
direct protrudes directly into the inguinal canal medial to the inferior epigastric vessels indirect protrudes through the internal inguinal rind lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels
84
what is a hiatus hernia
it is where part of the stomach herniates through the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm
85
what is the difference between a sliding and rolling hiatus hernia - which is more common
SLIDING: Oesophageal-gastric junction slides through the hiatus and lies above the diaphragm no symptoms other than reflux ROLLING: uncommon - the gastric fundus rolls up through the haitus alongside the oesophagus. the gastro-oesophageal junction remains below the diaphragm. can be treated with surgery
86
DDx of GORD
oesophagitis duodenal or gastric ulcers cardiac disease MSK - costochondritis
87
lifestyle advice in GORD
* weight loss * smaller meals * smoking cessation * reduce intake of * citrus fruit * alcohol * spicy food * caffeine * onions * avoid eating \<3hrs before bed
88
Surgical treatment for GORD
* Fundoplication: twist in the top of the stomach * Wrap the fundus around the top of the oesophagus giving an extra sphincter * This would aim to increase lower oesophageal sphincter pressure * Only consider in severe GORD if drugs are not working
89
Lifetime risk of appendicitis
6%
90
what age does appendicitis usually occur
10-20
91
what is the pathophysiology of appendicitis
gut organisms invade the appendix wall after lumen obstruction by lymphoid hyperplasia, faecal pellets or filarial worms this leads to oedema, ischaemic necrosis and perforation
92
Roysing's sign
pain is more in the RIF than the LIF when LIF is palpated
93
Ix for appendicitis
* Bloods * CRP * ESR may not have developed yet * CT * useful if diagnosis unclear and reduces -ve appendectomy rate
94
appendicitis presentation
fever pain (mcburney's point) anorexia peritonism with guarding comiting
95
what is peritonitis
it is inflammation of the peritoneum due to entry of blood, air, bacteria or GI contents
96
symptoms of peritonitis
dull pain that becomes sharp pain worse on coughing or moving systemic symptoms and they are generally unwell
97
name 6 causes of peritonitis
* AEIOU * appendicitis * ectopic pregnancy * infection * obstruction * ulcer * peritoneal dialysis
98
differentials for appendicitis
ectopic pregnancy (do preg test) UTI (test urine) diverticulitis cholecystitis
99
how does ectopic pregnancy present
low abdo pain sudden onset tachycardia low bp
100
what are the investigations for peritonitis
* clinical examination * AXR * FBC * U&E * LFT * Ascitic tap
101
what is pancreatitis
it is inflammation of the pancreas which may lead to pancreatic enzymes damaging the pancreas and nearby blood vessels
102
what is the presentation of pancreatitis
nausea and vomiting epigastric pain radiationg to back (relieved by sitting forwards) Cullen's sign Grey Turner's sign
103
what are the causes of pancreatitis
* IGETSMASHED * Idiopathic * Gallstones * Ethnol (alcohol) * Trauma * Steroids * Malignancy * Autoimmune * Scorpion sting * Hypercalcaemia * ERCP * Drugs
104
what are cullen's and grey turner's sign? what do they indicate
cullen's: bruising around umbilicus grey turner's: bruising around the flanks both indicate acute pancreatitis
105
what are the Ix for pancreatitis and what do they show
high amylase high lipase AXR CT chest/abdo
106
management of pancreatitis
IV fluids and maintain electrolyte balance pain relief maybe bowel rest
107
what is the cause of ischaemic colitis
low flow in the inferior mesenteric artery
108
how does ischaemia colitis present
left iliac fossa pain bloody diarrhoea
109
how do you diagnose ischaemic colitis
colonoscopy
110
what is the cause of acute mesenteric ischaemia
low flow in the superior mesenteric artery
111
what is the presentation of acute mesenteric ischaemia
acute severe abdo pain that is out of proportion with signs patient is sicker than they look rapud hypovolaemia --\> shock
112
diagnosis of acute mesenteric ischaemia
metabolic acidosis and high lactate often made on exploratory laparotomy
113
management of acute mesenteric ischaemia
surgery to remove the dead bowel fluid resus antibiotics thrombolytics infused locally by catheter if thrombosis is identified by arteriography
114
if someone has AF and abdo pain you should always think of what?
bowel/mesentry ischaemia
115
what is intestinal angina
chronic mesenteric ischaemia
116
how does chronic mesenteric ischaemia present
* triad 1. severe, colicky, post-prandial abdo pain 2. weightloss because eating hurts 3. upper abdo bruit * also * bleeding PR * malabsorption * N&V
117
causes of chronic mesenteric ischaemia
typically due to a low flow state due to atherosclerotic disease in all mesenteric arteries
118
treatment for ischaemic colitis
conservative with fluid replacement and antibiotics
119
is stomach carcinoma more common in men or women
men
120
what are 4 risk factors for stomach carcinoma
pernicious anaemia H. pylori atrophic gastritis smoking
121
symptoms of gastric carcinoma
* non specific * dyspepsia * weightloss * vomiting * anaemia
122
what are the Ix for stomach carcinoma
gastroscopy with multiple biopsies CT/MRI for staging cytology of peritoneal wash can help discover peritoneal mets
123
risk factors for oesophageal cancer
alcohol excess smoking achalasia reflux oesophagitis obesity drinking very hot drinks
124
125
are men or women more commonly affected by oesophageal cancer
men much more commonly
126
what is diverticulitis
A GI diverticulum is an outpouching in the gut wall. These usually occur at the sites of entry of perforating arteries. Diverticulitis refers to inflammation of a diverticulum
127
where does most diverticulitis occur
95% in the sigmoid colon
128
what is diverticulosis
this is the presence of diverticula but they are not inflamed
129
what is the presentation of diverticulitis
pyrexia high white cell coult high ESR/CRP a tender colon localised or generalised peritonism
130
what is the treatment for diverticulitis
Mild: bowel rest (fluids only) and antibiotics surgery indicated if there's any peritonitis
131
complications of diverticulitis
* perforation: ileus, peritonitis and shock * this has high mortality and requires an emergency laperotomy * haemorrhage: can cause a big, sudden, painless rectal bleed * needs colonic haemostasis ± colonic resection
132
what is a mallory weiss tear
* Persistent vomiting/retching causes haematemesis via an oesophageal mucosal tear
133
what is a pilonidal sinus and how does it happen
* Obstruction of natal cleft hair follicles ~6cm above the anus * Ingrowth of hair excites a foreign body reaction * There may be fowl smelling discharge * Much more common in men * There may be fowl smelling discharge
134
what is an anal fistula
it communicates between the skin and the anal/rectal canal
135
causes of anal fistulae
crohn's diverticulitis rectal carcinoma idiopathic
136
what are haemorrhoids
They are disrupted and dilated anal cushions anal cushions are the masses of spongy vascular tissue that contribute to anal closure
137
causes of piles
straining pregnancy congestion from a pelvic tumour
138
symptoms of piles
bright red rectal bleeding on tissue or after defication may coat stools mucous discharge pruritis ani
139
what should you do for all rectal bleeding?
abdominal exam PR exam colonoscopy to exclude malignancy if \>50yrs old
140
predisposing factors to colorectal cancer
IBD genetic (FAP and HNPCC) low fibre and high processed meat diet high alcohol consumption smoking
141
two syndromes that cause colon cancer
lynch syndrome (HNPCC) FAP
142
what is lynch syndrome
* causes 1-3% of colorectal cancer * AD inheritance due to mutations in MMR genes * lifetime risk is 80% * also increased risk of * endometrial * ovarian * stomach
143
what is FAP
* Familial adenomatous polyposis * mutations in APC TSG * causes \<1% colon cancer * penetrance is 100% by 50
144
what are DUKES A,B and C
* Colon cancer staging * A: limited to muscularis mucosae * B: extended beyond muscularis mucosae * C: involvement of regional lymph nodes * D: distant metastatic spread
145
management of colon cancer
* surgery * radiotherapy * biologics * bevacizumab (anti-VEGF)
146
what is the microscopic appearance of crohns
transmural granulomas - goblet cells present