GI Pathology - Oral Cavity and Salivary Glands Flashcards

1
Q

What causes dental caries (tooth decay)?

It is a major cause of…

A

Focal demineralization of tooth structure (dentin and enamel) by acidic metabolites of fermenting sugars produced by bacteria.

Tooth loss before age 35.

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2
Q

What are symptoms of dental caries?

What is a potential life-threatening complication?

A

Pain, weight loss, nutritional problems.

Life-threatening infections.

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3
Q

What is gingivitis?

What is it the result of?

A

Inflammation of the oral mucosa surrounding teeth.

Poor oral hygiene and leads to accumulation of dental plaque and calculus.

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4
Q

What is dental plaque?

If dental plaque is not removed, what will ensue?

A

Sticky, colorless biofilm that collects between and on the surface of teeth. It contains bacteria, salivary proteins, and desquamated epithelial cells.

It becomes mineralized to form calculus (tartar).

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5
Q

What age group is most at risk for gingivitis?

What is a unique characteristic of gingivitis?

A

Adolescents

It is reversible

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6
Q

What is periodontitis (what 3 things does it affect)?

What occurs as sequlae?

Adult periodontal disease is associated with which dental bacteria? (3)

A

An inflammatory process that affects the periodontal ligament, alveolar bone and cementum.

Complete destruction of the periodontal l. leading to tooth loss. It also causes a shift in the normal flora of the mouth.

Aggregatibacter (Actinobacillus) actinomycetemcomitans, Porphyromonas gingivalis and Prevotella intermedia.

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7
Q

What systemic diseases can cause periodontal disease? (9)

A
AIDS
Leukemia
Crohn's dz
DM
Down syndrome
Sarcoidosis
Syndromes associated with neutrophil defects
IE
Pulmonary/brain abscesses
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8
Q

What is an aphthous ulcer?

When are they most common?

What type of WBC infiltrate is seen?

When does it resolve?

A

“Canker sore”
They are common, painful, recurrent, superficial ulcers of unknown etiology.

First 2 decades of life.

Initially mononuclear, but eventually a secondary bacterial infection may lead to a neutrophilic infiltrate.

Usually 7-10 days later.

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9
Q

What is a traumatic fibroma (irritation fibroma)?

What causes it?

What is the treatment?

A

A submucosal nodular mass of fibrous CT stroma occuring usually in the buccal mucosa along the biteline or the gingiva.

It is thought to be from repeated trauma.

Surgical excision.

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10
Q

What is a pyogenic granuloma? Who is most likely to get it?

What does it look like on histology?

What can occur as a result? (3)

What is the treatment?

A

An inflammatory lesion typically in the gingiva of kids, young adults and pregnant women.

Highly vascular proliferation of organizing granulation tissue.

Regress, mature into dense fibrous masses, or develop into a peripheral ossifying fibroma.

Surgical excision.

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11
Q

What 3 infections of the oral cavity are common in immunosupressed patients?

A

Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

Candidia (Thrush)

Mucormycosis

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12
Q

What types of HSV are most common known to infect the mouth?

What age is most common for these infections?

10-20% of cases may present as…

A

HSV-1 (most common) and oral HSV-2 (genital herpes)

Mostly at ages 2-4.

Usually asymptomatic.

Acute herpetic gingivastomatitis with abrupt onset of vesicles and ulcerations of oral mucosa, accompanied by lymphadenopathy, fever, anorexia and irritability.

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13
Q

Candida albicans is a normal component of…

What form causes Thrush?

A

Normal component of oral cavity flora in 50% of patients.

Pseudomembranous form.

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14
Q

What is Mucormycosis?

A

A fungal infection common in patients with DM and immunosuppression that can be life-threatening.

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15
Q

Oral changes associated with Scarlet fever (2)

A

Fiery red tongue with prominent papillae (raspberry tongue)

White-coated tongue through which hyperemic papillae project (strawberry tongue)

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16
Q

Oral changes associated with Measles (2)

A

Spotty enanthema in the oral cavity often precedes the skin rash

Ulcerations of the buccal mucosa produce Koplik spots

17
Q

Oral changes associated with Infectious Mononucleosis (3)

A

Acute pharyngitis and tonsilitis that may cause coating with a gray-white exudative membrane

LN enlargement

Palatal petechiae

18
Q

Oral changes associated with Diphtheria (1)

A

Dirty white, fibrinosuppurative, tough, inflammatory membrane over the tonsils and retropharynx.

19
Q

Oral changes associated with HIV are causes by predisposition to… (2)

A

Predisposition to opportunistic oral infections (herpes, Candida, etc.)

Oral lesions such as Kaposi sarcoma and hairy cell leukemia

20
Q

What is leukoplakia?

Until proven otherwise, they should be considered…

A

A white patch or plaque that cannot be scraped off and cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other disease.

They should be considered precancerous

21
Q

What is erythroplakia?

What does the epithelium look like?

There is a higher risk of…

A

A red, velvety eroded area within the oral cavity that remains level or slightly depressed in relation to the surrounding mucosa.

Markedly atypical epithelium.

Much higher risk for malignant transformation than leukoplakia.

22
Q

What ages are patients most likely to develop leukoplakia or erythroplakia?

What sex is more common?

A

Ages 40-70

M>F 2:1

23
Q

What is the most common cancer of the head and neck (95%)?

What are the remainder of cancers mostly consist of?

A

Squamous cell carcinomas

Adenocarcinomas of salivary gland origin

24
Q

What patients are at the greatest risk? (3)

A

Tobacco and alcohol abusers (classic)

HPV (oropharynx)

Betel quid and paan use (India/Asia)

25
Q

HPV-16 causes 70% of the SCCs of the…

A

Oropharynx, possibly involving the tonsils, base of the tongue and pharynx.

26
Q

What are the molecular biological changes in SCC?

What about those associated with HPV-16?

A

Regulation of squamous differentiation - p53, p63 and NOTCH1

HPV-associated - overexpression of p16, inactivation of p53 and RB

27
Q

Morphology of SCC

A

Usually are raised, firm and irregular verracous areas of mucosal thickening (can be mistaken for leukoplakia)

28
Q

What is an odontogenic keratocyst (OKC)?

What do they consist of?

Why are they concerning?

What patients are most likely to get it?

What is the treatment?

A

A cyst in the mouth, most commonly within the posterior mandible

Cyst lining consists of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium with a prominent basal cell layer.

They are at a high risk to be locally aggressive.

Males from ages 10-40.

Must be removed due to aggressive activity; if inadequately removed, they are likely to reoccur.

29
Q

What is xerostomia?

What are possible causes?

It can increase the risk for…

A

Dry mouth

Sjogrens*
Medication S/E

Dental caries, candidiasis, problems in speaking/swallowing

30
Q

What causes Sialadenitis?

What is the most common form of viral Sialadenitis?

What is the most common type of inflammatory salivary gland lesion?

A

Trauma, infection or AI dz.

Mumps, affecting the salivary glands (mostly parotids).

Mucoceles

31
Q

Where do Mucoceles present most? What causes it?

Who is most likely to get it?

What is the presentation of a Mucocele? What does it consist of?

What is the treatment?

A

Lower lip; from trauma

All ages, but mostly toddlers, young adults, elderly and pts. prone to falling.

A fluctuant swelling that may have a blue hue that may change in size. It is a cyst lined by inflammatory granulation tissue or fibrous CT filled with mucin and Mo.

Surgical excision is required.

32
Q

What is the general presentation of Sialadenitis?

What is the cause usually?

A

Pain, tenderness, redness, and gradual, localized swelling of the affected area. Hyposecretion of glands.

Obstruction of the gland by a stone which leads to infection.

33
Q

Neoplasms of the salivary glands include: (4)

A

Pleomorphic adenoma
Warthin tumor
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Adenoid cystic carcinoma

34
Q

What is a pleomorphic adenoma?

What gene is implicated?

Why are they called “mixed tumors”?

What do they look like?

A

A benign tumor consisting of a mix of ductal (epithelial) and myoepithelial cells, showing epithelial and mesenchymal differentiation.

PLAG1

They are very diverse histologically.

Painless, slow growing, mobile, discrete masses within the parotid or submandibular areas, or the buccal cavity.

35
Q

What is a Warthin tumor?

Who has a greater risk of getting it?

A

A benign tumor of the parotid gland

M>F, usually in the 5th-7th decades of life, especially smokers* (8x greater risk)

36
Q

What is Mucoepidermoid carcinoma?

They are the most common…

What do they look like?

What is the prognosis?

A

Neoplasms composed of mixtures of squamous cells, mucous-secreting cells and intermediate cells.

Most common primary malignant tumor of the salivary gland.

Can grow large (as big as 8 cm in diameter) and are circumscribed, without capsules and are often infiltrative at the margins.

Depends on grade; 5 year survival is 50%

37
Q

What is Adenoid cystic carcinoma?

What makes them tricky?

Where do they metastasize?

What is the survival rate?

A

An uncommon tumor that is found in minor salivary glands (palatine gland) approx. 50% of the time. They can also exist in the submandibular and parotid glands.

They are slow growing, but are unpredictable and tend to invade perineural spaces.

Bone, liver and brain.

60-70% at 5 years, but drops to 30% at 10 years and 15% at 15 years.

38
Q

What is torus palatinus? Who is most likely to get it?

What is torus mandibularis?

A

Harmless and painless bony outgrowths on the roof of the palate. F>M; Asian descent.

Exostoses that are localized and bony and exist in the lower mouth. They’re asymptomatic.