GI Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

lymphoid tissue in GI tract; tolerates commensal microbes by default and prevents intestinal disorders like food allergies, celiac disease, and IBS

A

GALT (GI-Associated Lymphoid Tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Default setting of GALT immune responses induces

A

tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ways that GALT “samples” ingested antigens

A

1) Microfold (M) cells absorb antigens and pass on to dendritic cells or other immune cells in Peyer’s Patches
2) Dendritic cells samples directly using its dendrites and directly absorb antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Another term for GALT in ileum

A

Peyer’s patches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe how GALT tissue can contribute to oral tolerance

A

If an antigen was injected directly into the blood stream, IMMUNITY (or disease) would develop
If an antigen was given orally, then TOLERANCE would develop b/c of antigen sampling in GALT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which immune cells are believed to contribute to oral tolerance

A

T reg cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

IFNy is considered (pro/anti)-inflammatory

A

pro-inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

TGF-b is considered (pro/anti)-inflammatory

A

anti-inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The majority of Ig-secreting cells are located in what organ system?

A

GI tract (70-80%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two most synthesized immunoglobulins

A

IgA (mucous membranes)
IgG

  • Total IgA > Total IgG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

immunoglobulin secreted as a dimer; involved with mucous membrane immunity; when combined with a secretory component, it is resistant to proteolytic enzymes in GI tract

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What helps prevent the breakdown of IgA in the GI tract by proteolytic enzymes

A

Secretory component added by epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The most common primary immunodeficiency is due to a lack of what immunoglobulin?

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

most common primary immunodeficiency; may be asymptomatic, but can also have chronic GI inflammatory issues (diarrhea, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, recurrent mucosal infections)

A

IgA deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
Chronic diarrhea
Ulcerative colitis
Crohn's disease
Recurrent oral/mucosal infections 
... are common symptoms of
A

IgA deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The levels of IgG will be higher following vaccination with an antigen with or without prior feeding of the antigen?

A

Without prior feeding (more pro-inflammatory Ig response b/c of lack of oral tolerance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The levels of IgA will be higher following vaccination with an antigen with or without prior feeding of the antigen?

A

About the same (slightly higher without prior feeding of antigen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The Fc region of IgE helps bind to _________, while the Fc region on IgG helps bind to ________

A

mast cells (IgE); macrophages (IgG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which immunoglobulin isotype commonly presents as a dimer?

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which immunoglobulin isotype commonly presents as a pentamer?

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Early HIV causes the near depletion of…

A

GALT T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What type of T cell provides protection against colitis and maintains GI homeostasis?

A

T reg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What cytokine is produced by T reg?

A

IL-10 (anti-inflammatory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Lactobacilli, Streptococci, Candida and Helicobacter pylori are the prominent bacteria in the (Stomach/SI/LI)

A

Stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Lactobacilli, E. coli and Enterococci are the prominent bacteria in the (Stomach/SI/LI)
Small Intestine
26
Lactobacilli, Bacteroides, Bifidobacteria, and Clostridia are the prominent bacteria in the (Stomach/SI/LI)
Large Intestine
27
There seems to be a correlation between gut flora and obesity and psychiatric issues (True or False)
True
28
Many Gram-negative enteric bacteria express......
flagella (makes sense for motility in fluid --> turbidity)
29
Flagella vs. Pili: | large, complex filaments for locomotion
Flagella
30
Flagella vs. Pili: | smaller, simpler fibers for adherence
Pili
31
Which branch of the immune system is most important for bacterial protection from viral infection: Innate, Humoral or Cell-Mediated
Innate: the normal gut flora helps prevent infection Ex. TLR signaling
32
What is an essential gene required for immunoglobulins and T-cell receptor gene rearrangements (variability of mRNA splicing)?
Recombination Activating Genes (RAG 1 & RAG 2)
33
Bacterial disease associated with antibiotic treatments; normal gut flora wiped out after antibiotic, allowing for these normal spore-forming bacteria to vegetate and predominate
Clostridium difficile
34
C. difficile is part of the normal gut flora and is in phylum
Firmicutes
35
Obligate aerobes will be where in an inoculated test tube
Top
36
Obligate anaerobes will be where in an inoculated test tube
Bottom - Clostridium - Bacteroides
37
Facultative anaerobes will be where in an inoculated test tube
Throughout, but heavy at top - Candida albicans - E. Coli - Staphylococcus - Streptococcus
38
Microaerophiles will be where in an inoculated test tube
NEAR the top - H. pylori
39
Aerotolerant bacteria will be where in an inoculated test tube
even throughout (can't use oxygen, but unaffected by it's presence)
40
Anaerobes metabolize glucose and produce what products during metabolism?
Ethanol and CO2
41
Anaerobic bacteria are not found in the mouth because of the presence of air (True or False)
False: can survive in even shallow layers of fluid (mucous) due to the low solubility of Oxygen in water
42
Which are more prominent in the GI tract: aerobes or anaerobes
Anaerobes (1000:1)
43
Two predominant phyla of anaerobes in the GI tract
Bacteroidetes | Firmicutes
44
Most anaerobic infections, like abscesses, are mix infections containing both anaerobic and aerobic bacteria (True or False)
True (b/c of synergy between mixed species)
45
What is bacterial biofilms that form in mouth/teeth?
Plaque
46
Dental PAB (plaque-associated biofilm) is composed of
host and bacterial proteins, polysaccharides, and over 700 species of bacteria
47
Multispecies form communities in bacterial biofilms (T or F)
True
48
What bacterial species are more prominent in supra-gingival PAB?
Aerobic or aerotolerant Gram + * Actinomycetes
49
What bacterial species are more prominent in sub-gingival PAB?
Anaerobic Gram - * Bacteroides
50
What are the most common reasons of oral and gut infection?
1. Opportunistic pathogens that are outside the normal environment 2. Intestinal or oral injury compromising epithelial barrier 3. Aspiration of oral bacteria into lung 4. Tissue ischemia and lowered redox potential leading to development of anaerobic infections (typically as mixed infections)
51
Gram negative, non-spore forming, anaerobic bacilli; found in oropharynx, GI tract and female genital tract; predominant flora in GI tract and helps prevent infection by utilizing nutrients (carbs, nitrogen, etc.) and colonizing surfaces; also most common genus isolated from anaerobic infections
Bacteroides *(B. fragilis most common)
52
Most common genus of gut flora isolated from anaerobic infections
B. fragilis
53
Why does B. fragilis require synergy from facultative bacteria to cause disease?
B. fragilis is unable to invade cell or tissues and requires breach of epithelial barrier to cause infection in deeper tissues
54
Gram positive, non-spore forming, anaerobic bacilli; has hyphae-like structures; part of normal oral flora; can cause dental carries/disease, especially following dental procedures (opportunistic pathogen); can cause "Lumpy Jaw"
Actinomyces spp.
55
Actinomyces's nickname b/c of its hyphae-like structure
ray fungus
56
chronic infection of Actinomyces (A. israelii) resulting in a swelling mass on the face; contains sulfur granules in drained fluid; requires prolonged antibiotic therapy (IV penicillin and oral antibiotics up to a year)
Actinomycosis (Lumpy jaw)
57
Why does Actinomycosis have "mycosis" in it's name?
Because it forms "hyphae-like" structures
58
"Lumpy jaw" with sulfur granules makes you think of a __________
Actinomycosis
59
Gram positive, spore forming bacilli; firmicutes phylum; common in external environment, but a MINOR component of the normal flora; infection can produce a very foul odor
Clostridium spp.
60
Clostridium spp. that is strict anaerobe
C. difficile
61
Clostridium spp. that are aerotolerant
C. Perfringens | C. Septicum
62
What do Clostridium spp. produce foul odor?
They can ferment nutrients (carb, protein, FA) and produce reaction metabolites that have foul odor
63
Clostridium species associated with gas gangrene (produce gas in gangrenous tissue)
C. Perfringens | C. Septicum
64
What Clostridium species can spread via bloodstream b/c it is aerotolerant?
C. Septicum
65
Clostridium species associated with food poisoning and wound botulism; secretes a toxin that prevents the release of stimulatory transmitters, causing flaccid paralysis
C. botulinum * Don't feed honey to babies
66
Clostridium species; secretes a toxin that prevents the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters, causing spasticity and tetanus
C. tetani
67
Clostridium species associated with antibiotic-associated diarrhea, colitis and horrendous smell
C. difficile
68
All Clostridium produce
toxins
69
Endotoxin, Exotoxin or Enterotoxin: | integral part of gram- bacteria; LPS (lipid A + polysaccharide)
Endotoxin
70
Endotoxin, Exotoxin or Enterotoxin: | secreted toxin
Exotoxin - Botulinum - S. aureus toxins - Streptococcal pyogenic toxins
71
Endotoxin, Exotoxin or Enterotoxin: | secreted toxin that targets enteric cells
Enterotoxin - E. coli (Shiga toxin) - cholera toxin - S. aureus enterotoxin
72
What type of toxins are produced by C. tetani and C. botulinum?
Exotoxins * Binary A-B toxins (proteins linked by S-S bond)
73
What type of toxin is produced by C. perfringens?
a-toxin (lecithinase degrades tissue/cell membranes)
74
What type of toxin is produced by C. diff?
Toxin B (cytotoxic and inflammatory) * single protein with different domains
75
What is another term for gas gangrene?
Clostridial myonecrosis
76
C. Perfringens cause what type of gas gangrene?
Traumatic (Traumatic tissue damage allows anaerobic metabolism and C. perfringens spores contaminate wound and germinate --> tissue destruction/septic shock --> mortality about 25% )
77
C. Septicum cause what type of gas gangrene?
Spontaneous (Breaks in GI mucosa allows C. septicum to enter the bloodstream since it's aerotolerant --> invades mucle and other sites --> septic shock/tissue destruction --> mortality up to 100%)
78
Common pathogens involved with peritonitis
Synergy of Enterobacteriaceae (E. coli) + B. fragilis
79
What's B. fragilis role in causing peritonitis?
Its capsular polysaccharide recruits PMN
80
How can you diagnose an anaerobic infection?
- Aspirate abscesses, tissue or blood (specimens must not have contacted mucus membrane) - Rapid transport is essential to preserve anaerobes - Gram stain (for cell morphologies)
81
Treatment for anaerobic infections
Drainage Debridement Antibiotic therapy
82
Best antibiotics for anaerobes
Best: Azoles, Carbapenems, B-lactams/B-lactamase inhibitors Next Best: Clindamycin, Tygecycline, Cephalosporins (cef-) Never Active: Aminoglycosides, TMP-SMX, Aztreonam
83
inflammation of the esophagus; caused by Candida or Herpesviruses; treated with fluconazole
Esophagitis
84
Pathogens involved with esophagitis
Candida | Herpesviruses
85
Candida esophagitis is treated with
Fluconazole
86
gram negative spiral bacteria with flagella; plays a role in the pathogenesis of peptic ulcer disease
Helicobacter pylori
87
Discoverers of H. pylori playing a role in gastritis and peptic ulcer disease
Marshall and Warren
88
Explain the pathogenesis of H. pylori with peptic ulcer disease
1) Flagella allow to penetrate mucous layer and colonize epithelial cells 2) Urease in bacteria converts urea to ammonia, neutralizing acid (increase pH) 3) Replicate at alkaline pH 4) Bacterial mucinases damage epithelia and induce inflammation
89
The presence of virulence factors (CAG genes) in a specific cluster in a bacterial genome
CAG pathogenicity island
90
What gene strain must be present in H. Pylori in development of peptic ulcers and gastric cancer?
CAG+ (Cytotoxin-Associated Genes)
91
How to diagnose H. pylori with peptic ulcers
Biopsy smears and gram stains Urea breath test (radiolabeled CO2 produced is measured upon urea ingestion) Antigen detection (stool) Serology
92
Treatment for peptic ulcers
Combination of antibiotics (to prevent resistance) Proton pump inhibitors Bismuth subsalicylate