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GI Block > GI Microbiology > Flashcards

GI Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

lymphoid tissue in GI tract; tolerates commensal microbes by default and prevents intestinal disorders like food allergies, celiac disease, and IBS

A

GALT (GI-Associated Lymphoid Tissue)

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2
Q

Default setting of GALT immune responses induces

A

tolerance

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3
Q

Ways that GALT “samples” ingested antigens

A

1) Microfold (M) cells absorb antigens and pass on to dendritic cells or other immune cells in Peyer’s Patches
2) Dendritic cells samples directly using its dendrites and directly absorb antigens

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4
Q

Another term for GALT in ileum

A

Peyer’s patches

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5
Q

Describe how GALT tissue can contribute to oral tolerance

A

If an antigen was injected directly into the blood stream, IMMUNITY (or disease) would develop
If an antigen was given orally, then TOLERANCE would develop b/c of antigen sampling in GALT.

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6
Q

Which immune cells are believed to contribute to oral tolerance

A

T reg cells

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7
Q

IFNy is considered (pro/anti)-inflammatory

A

pro-inflammatory

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8
Q

TGF-b is considered (pro/anti)-inflammatory

A

anti-inflammatory

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9
Q

The majority of Ig-secreting cells are located in what organ system?

A

GI tract (70-80%)

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10
Q

What are the two most synthesized immunoglobulins

A

IgA (mucous membranes)
IgG

  • Total IgA > Total IgG
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11
Q

immunoglobulin secreted as a dimer; involved with mucous membrane immunity; when combined with a secretory component, it is resistant to proteolytic enzymes in GI tract

A

IgA

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12
Q

What helps prevent the breakdown of IgA in the GI tract by proteolytic enzymes

A

Secretory component added by epithelial cells

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13
Q

The most common primary immunodeficiency is due to a lack of what immunoglobulin?

A

IgA

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14
Q

most common primary immunodeficiency; may be asymptomatic, but can also have chronic GI inflammatory issues (diarrhea, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, recurrent mucosal infections)

A

IgA deficiency

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15
Q 
Chronic diarrhea
Ulcerative colitis
Crohn's disease
Recurrent oral/mucosal infections 
... are common symptoms of
A

IgA deficiency

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16
Q

The levels of IgG will be higher following vaccination with an antigen with or without prior feeding of the antigen?

A

Without prior feeding (more pro-inflammatory Ig response b/c of lack of oral tolerance)

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17
Q

The levels of IgA will be higher following vaccination with an antigen with or without prior feeding of the antigen?

A

About the same (slightly higher without prior feeding of antigen)

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18
Q

The Fc region of IgE helps bind to _________, while the Fc region on IgG helps bind to ________

A

mast cells (IgE); macrophages (IgG)

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19
Q

Which immunoglobulin isotype commonly presents as a dimer?

A

IgA

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20
Q

Which immunoglobulin isotype commonly presents as a pentamer?

A

IgM

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21
Q

Early HIV causes the near depletion of…

A

GALT T cells

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22
Q

What type of T cell provides protection against colitis and maintains GI homeostasis?

A

T reg

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23
Q

What cytokine is produced by T reg?

A

IL-10 (anti-inflammatory)

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24
Q

Lactobacilli, Streptococci, Candida and Helicobacter pylori are the prominent bacteria in the (Stomach/SI/LI)

A

Stomach

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25
Q

Lactobacilli, E. coli and Enterococci are the prominent bacteria in the (Stomach/SI/LI)

A

Small Intestine

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26
Q

Lactobacilli, Bacteroides, Bifidobacteria, and Clostridia are the prominent bacteria in the (Stomach/SI/LI)

A

Large Intestine

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27
Q

There seems to be a correlation between gut flora and obesity and psychiatric issues (True or False)

A

True

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28
Q

Many Gram-negative enteric bacteria express……

A

flagella (makes sense for motility in fluid –> turbidity)

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29
Q

Flagella vs. Pili:

large, complex filaments for locomotion

A

Flagella

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30
Q

Flagella vs. Pili:

smaller, simpler fibers for adherence

A

Pili

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31
Q

Which branch of the immune system is most important for bacterial protection from viral infection: Innate, Humoral or Cell-Mediated

A

Innate: the normal gut flora helps prevent infection

Ex. TLR signaling

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32
Q

What is an essential gene required for immunoglobulins and T-cell receptor gene rearrangements (variability of mRNA splicing)?

A

Recombination Activating Genes (RAG 1 & RAG 2)

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33
Q

Bacterial disease associated with antibiotic treatments; normal gut flora wiped out after antibiotic, allowing for these normal spore-forming bacteria to vegetate and predominate

A

Clostridium difficile

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34
Q

C. difficile is part of the normal gut flora and is in phylum

A

Firmicutes

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35
Q

Obligate aerobes will be where in an inoculated test tube

A

Top

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36
Q

Obligate anaerobes will be where in an inoculated test tube

A

Bottom

  • Clostridium
  • Bacteroides
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37
Q

Facultative anaerobes will be where in an inoculated test tube

A

Throughout, but heavy at top

  • Candida albicans
  • E. Coli
  • Staphylococcus
  • Streptococcus
38
Q

Microaerophiles will be where in an inoculated test tube

A

NEAR the top

  • H. pylori
39
Q

Aerotolerant bacteria will be where in an inoculated test tube

A

even throughout (can’t use oxygen, but unaffected by it’s presence)

40
Q

Anaerobes metabolize glucose and produce what products during metabolism?

A

Ethanol and CO2

41
Q

Anaerobic bacteria are not found in the mouth because of the presence of air (True or False)

A

False: can survive in even shallow layers of fluid (mucous) due to the low solubility of Oxygen in water

42
Q

Which are more prominent in the GI tract: aerobes or anaerobes

A

Anaerobes (1000:1)

43
Q

Two predominant phyla of anaerobes in the GI tract

A

Bacteroidetes

Firmicutes

44
Q

Most anaerobic infections, like abscesses, are mix infections containing both anaerobic and aerobic bacteria (True or False)

A

True (b/c of synergy between mixed species)

45
Q

What is bacterial biofilms that form in mouth/teeth?

A

Plaque

46
Q

Dental PAB (plaque-associated biofilm) is composed of

A

host and bacterial proteins, polysaccharides, and over 700 species of bacteria

47
Q

Multispecies form communities in bacterial biofilms (T or F)

A

True

48
Q

What bacterial species are more prominent in supra-gingival PAB?

A

Aerobic or aerotolerant Gram +

  • Actinomycetes
49
Q

What bacterial species are more prominent in sub-gingival PAB?

A

Anaerobic Gram -

  • Bacteroides
50
Q

What are the most common reasons of oral and gut infection?

A
  1. Opportunistic pathogens that are outside the normal environment
  2. Intestinal or oral injury compromising epithelial barrier
  3. Aspiration of oral bacteria into lung
  4. Tissue ischemia and lowered redox potential leading to development of anaerobic infections (typically as mixed infections)
51
Q

Gram negative, non-spore forming, anaerobic bacilli; found in oropharynx, GI tract and female genital tract; predominant flora in GI tract and helps prevent infection by utilizing nutrients (carbs, nitrogen, etc.) and colonizing surfaces; also most common genus isolated from anaerobic infections

A

Bacteroides

*(B. fragilis most common)

52
Q

Most common genus of gut flora isolated from anaerobic infections

A

B. fragilis

53
Q

Why does B. fragilis require synergy from facultative bacteria to cause disease?

A

B. fragilis is unable to invade cell or tissues and requires breach of epithelial barrier to cause infection in deeper tissues

54
Q

Gram positive, non-spore forming, anaerobic bacilli; has hyphae-like structures; part of normal oral flora; can cause dental carries/disease, especially following dental procedures (opportunistic pathogen); can cause “Lumpy Jaw”

A

Actinomyces spp.

55
Q

Actinomyces’s nickname b/c of its hyphae-like structure

A

ray fungus

56
Q

chronic infection of Actinomyces (A. israelii) resulting in a swelling mass on the face; contains sulfur granules in drained fluid; requires prolonged antibiotic therapy (IV penicillin and oral antibiotics up to a year)

A

Actinomycosis (Lumpy jaw)

57
Q

Why does Actinomycosis have “mycosis” in it’s name?

A

Because it forms “hyphae-like” structures

58
Q

“Lumpy jaw” with sulfur granules makes you think of a __________

A

Actinomycosis

59
Q

Gram positive, spore forming bacilli; firmicutes phylum; common in external environment, but a MINOR component of the normal flora; infection can produce a very foul odor

A

Clostridium spp.

60
Q

Clostridium spp. that is strict anaerobe

A

C. difficile

61
Q

Clostridium spp. that are aerotolerant

A

C. Perfringens

C. Septicum

62
Q

What do Clostridium spp. produce foul odor?

A

They can ferment nutrients (carb, protein, FA) and produce reaction metabolites that have foul odor

63
Q

Clostridium species associated with gas gangrene (produce gas in gangrenous tissue)

A

C. Perfringens

C. Septicum

64
Q

What Clostridium species can spread via bloodstream b/c it is aerotolerant?

A

C. Septicum

65
Q

Clostridium species associated with food poisoning and wound botulism; secretes a toxin that prevents the release of stimulatory transmitters, causing flaccid paralysis

A

C. botulinum

  • Don’t feed honey to babies
66
Q

Clostridium species; secretes a toxin that prevents the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters, causing spasticity and tetanus

A

C. tetani

67
Q

Clostridium species associated with antibiotic-associated diarrhea, colitis and horrendous smell

A

C. difficile

68
Q

All Clostridium produce

A

toxins

69
Q

Endotoxin, Exotoxin or Enterotoxin:

integral part of gram- bacteria; LPS (lipid A + polysaccharide)

A

Endotoxin

70
Q

Endotoxin, Exotoxin or Enterotoxin:

secreted toxin

A

Exotoxin

  • Botulinum
  • S. aureus toxins
  • Streptococcal pyogenic toxins
71
Q

Endotoxin, Exotoxin or Enterotoxin:

secreted toxin that targets enteric cells

A

Enterotoxin

  • E. coli (Shiga toxin)
  • cholera toxin
  • S. aureus enterotoxin
72
Q

What type of toxins are produced by C. tetani and C. botulinum?

A

Exotoxins

  • Binary A-B toxins (proteins linked by S-S bond)
73
Q

What type of toxin is produced by C. perfringens?

A

a-toxin (lecithinase degrades tissue/cell membranes)

74
Q

What type of toxin is produced by C. diff?

A

Toxin B (cytotoxic and inflammatory)

  • single protein with different domains
75
Q

What is another term for gas gangrene?

A

Clostridial myonecrosis

76
Q

C. Perfringens cause what type of gas gangrene?

A

Traumatic

(Traumatic tissue damage allows anaerobic metabolism and C. perfringens spores contaminate wound and germinate –> tissue destruction/septic shock –> mortality about 25% )

77
Q

C. Septicum cause what type of gas gangrene?

A

Spontaneous

(Breaks in GI mucosa allows C. septicum to enter the bloodstream since it’s aerotolerant –> invades mucle and other sites –> septic shock/tissue destruction –> mortality up to 100%)

78
Q

Common pathogens involved with peritonitis

A

Synergy of Enterobacteriaceae (E. coli) + B. fragilis

79
Q

What’s B. fragilis role in causing peritonitis?

A

Its capsular polysaccharide recruits PMN

80
Q

How can you diagnose an anaerobic infection?

A
  • Aspirate abscesses, tissue or blood (specimens must not have contacted mucus membrane)
  • Rapid transport is essential to preserve anaerobes
  • Gram stain (for cell morphologies)
81
Q

Treatment for anaerobic infections

A

Drainage
Debridement
Antibiotic therapy

82
Q

Best antibiotics for anaerobes

A

Best: Azoles, Carbapenems, B-lactams/B-lactamase inhibitors

Next Best: Clindamycin, Tygecycline, Cephalosporins (cef-)

Never Active: Aminoglycosides, TMP-SMX, Aztreonam

83
Q

inflammation of the esophagus; caused by Candida or Herpesviruses; treated with fluconazole

A

Esophagitis

84
Q

Pathogens involved with esophagitis

A

Candida

Herpesviruses

85
Q

Candida esophagitis is treated with

A

Fluconazole

86
Q

gram negative spiral bacteria with flagella; plays a role in the pathogenesis of peptic ulcer disease

A

Helicobacter pylori

87
Q

Discoverers of H. pylori playing a role in gastritis and peptic ulcer disease

A

Marshall and Warren

88
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of H. pylori with peptic ulcer disease

A

1) Flagella allow to penetrate mucous layer and colonize epithelial cells
2) Urease in bacteria converts urea to ammonia, neutralizing acid (increase pH)
3) Replicate at alkaline pH
4) Bacterial mucinases damage epithelia and induce inflammation

89
Q

The presence of virulence factors (CAG genes) in a specific cluster in a bacterial genome

A

CAG pathogenicity island

90
Q

What gene strain must be present in H. Pylori in development of peptic ulcers and gastric cancer?

A

CAG+ (Cytotoxin-Associated Genes)

91
Q

How to diagnose H. pylori with peptic ulcers

A

Biopsy smears and gram stains
Urea breath test (radiolabeled CO2 produced is measured upon urea ingestion)
Antigen detection (stool)
Serology

92
Q

Treatment for peptic ulcers

A

Combination of antibiotics (to prevent resistance)
Proton pump inhibitors
Bismuth subsalicylate

GI Block (9 decks)

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