GI mc 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what does tahycard and hypovol suggest with GI bleed

A

2L blood loss

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2
Q

what is stage 3 shock

A

2L blood loss

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3
Q

why is RR elevated in GI blood loss

A

increase oxygen delivery to the circulation and prevent tissue hypoxia

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4
Q

good measurement for severity of GI blood loss ilness

A

RR

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5
Q

what happens to CRT in GI blood loss

A

longer

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6
Q

immediate treatment for stage 3 blood loss

A

500 mL IV crystalloid containing 130-154 mmol/L Na over 15 minutes or less is indicated

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7
Q

what blatchford score = endoscopy urgent

A

above 6

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8
Q

what dosent blatchford include

A

endoscopy

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9
Q

what follows IV fluid in GI blood loss

A

transfusion of two units of cross-matched packed red cells

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10
Q

what significantly reduces rate of rebleeding in peptic ulcers

A

PPI

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11
Q

advantages of PPI

A

decrease the length of hospital stay, rebleeding rate, and need for blood transfusion in patients with high-risk ulcers treated with endoscopic therapy

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12
Q

how do PPIs work

A

inhibiting the parietal cell H+/K+ ATP pump

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13
Q

what to withold in GI bleed

A

amlodipine and ramipril

- hypotensives

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14
Q

four major risk factors for bleeding peptic ulcers are

A

Helicobacter pylori infection
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Physiologic stress
Excess gastric acid

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15
Q

what is it when yperacidity causes the ulcer

A

ZES

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16
Q

essential in UGIB

A

control of acid

17
Q

what is mucosal damage by NSAIDs and aspirin method

A

inhibition of COX-1

18
Q

what does inhibition of COX-1 do

A

reduces mucosal generation of protective prostaglandins (PG) such as PGE2

19
Q

what increases risk of complications with GUD

A

duration and dose of NSAIDs
age
PMH
glucocorticoids, anticoagulants, clopidogrel, bisphosphonates SSRIs

20
Q

prostaglandin E analog

A

misoprostol

21
Q

what bad thing is COX-2 associated with

A

risk of cardiovascular disease

22
Q

how to test for h pylori

A

CLO
faecal test
urea breath tests

23
Q

what is the CLO test

A

biopsy on agar containing urea and pH → alkaline pH and colour change if present

24
Q

what to avoid with metronidazole

A

alcohol - as risk of disulfiram interaction

25
Q

what to avoid with calrithromycin

A

simvastatin = myositis

26
Q

severe UC management

A

oral glucocorticoids and combination therapy with high dose oral 5-ASA, suppository- 5ASA or steroid, steroid enema or foam

27
Q

if a patient with UC is improving what do you give instead of IV hydrocortisone

A

oral prednisolone

28
Q

Fulminant colitis treatment

A

IV glucocorticoids + broad spectrum antibiotics

29
Q

Azathioprine is converted to

A

6-mercaptopurine

30
Q

how is azathioprine converted

A

nonenzymatic nucleophilic attack by sulfhydryl-containing compounds

31
Q

what to do before giving azathioprine

A

TPMT test needed to make sure its active

32
Q

Infliximab

A

Monoclonal antibody binding to tumor necrosis factor alpha

33
Q

when do you get high TNF alpha

A

rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, plaque psoriasis, Crohn’s disease and UC

34
Q

what does TNF alpha do x6

A
induces proinflammatory cytokines
enhancement of leukocyte migration
activation of neutrophils and eosinophils
leukocyte migration
neutrophil/ eosinophil activation
apoptosis of T cells
35
Q

how to end steroids

A

gradually so you dont get addisons