GI exams Flashcards

1
Q

What should you ask the patient before proceeding with any examination?

A

If they have any pain

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2
Q

List two conditions associated with hyperpigmentation of the skin.

A

Haemochromatosis
Addison’s disease

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3
Q

What is palmar erythema associated with?

A

Chronic liver disease

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4
Q

What does koilonychia indicate?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia

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5
Q

What abdominal conditions is finger clubbing associated with?

A

inflammatory bowel disease
liver cirrhosis
coeliac
liver cirrhosis
GI lymphoma

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6
Q

What are 3 possible causes of asterixis?

A

Hepatic encephalopathy
Uraemia
CO2 retention

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7
Q

What does Dupuytren’s contracture involve?

A

Thickening of the palmar fascia

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8
Q

What does acanthosis nigricans indicate?

A

Insulin resistance or gastrointestinal malignancy

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9
Q

What is the significance of Kayser-Fleischer rings?

A

Associated with Wilson’s disease

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10
Q

What does glossitis indicate?

A

Deficiencies in iron, B12, or folate

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11
Q

What is the first clinical sign of metastatic intrabdominal malignancy?

A

Enlargement of Virchow’s node - L supraclavicular

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12
Q

What does Cullen’s sign indicate?

A

Bruising around umbilicus associated with haemorrhagic pancreatitis

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13
Q

Fill in the blank: Caput medusae is associated with _______.

A

Portal hypertension

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14
Q

What does Grey-Turner’s sign indicate?

A

Bruising in the flanks associated with haemorrhagic pancreatitis

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15
Q

What should be assessed if a stoma is present?

A

Location
Contents
Consistency of stool
Spout presence

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16
Q

What does rebound tenderness indicate?

A

can be associated with peritonitis

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17
Q

What does Rovsing’s sign involve?

A

Palpation of the left iliac fossa causing pain in the right iliac fossa

appendicitis

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18
Q

What characteristics should be assessed if a mass is identified during deep palpation?

A

Location
Size and shape
Consistency
Mobility
Pulsatility

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19
Q

What is a palpable liver edge suggestive of?

A

Gross hepatomegaly

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20
Q

List 11 potential causes of hepatomegaly.

A

Hepatitis
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Hepatic metastases
Wilson’s disease
Haemochromatosis
Leukaemia
Myeloma
Glandular fever
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Tricuspid regurgitation
Haemolytic anaemia

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21
Q

What does a palpable gallbladder indicate?

A

Enlargement due to biliary flow obstruction or infection

Conditions include pancreatic malignancy or cholecystitis.

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22
Q

What does Murphy’s sign suggest?

A

Presence of cholecystitis

Indicated by pain when the patient stops mid-breath during palpation.

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23
Q

What are common causes of splenomegaly?

A

Portal hypertension
Haemolytic anaemia
Congestive heart failure
Splenic metastases
Glandular fever

24
Q

What does a ballotable kidney suggest?

A

Enlarged kidneys

25
Q

How do you palpate the aorta?

A

Perform deep palpation just superior to the umbilicus in the midline

26
Q

What indicates a distended bladder during palpation?

A

Palpation in the suprapubic area arising from behind the pubic symphysis

27
Q

What does dullness to percussion indicate during bladder assessment?

A

A distended bladder

28
Q

What does an aortic bruit suggest?

A

Turbulent blood flow

Auscultated 1-2 cm superior to the umbilicus may be associated with an abdominal aortic aneurysm.

29
Q

What further assessments are suggested for completeness?

A

ISHRUG

Inguinal lymph nodes
Stool sample
Hernial orifices
Rectal Exam
Urine dip
Genital Exam

30
Q

where are colostomies typically located?

31
Q

where are ileostomies and urostomies typically located?

32
Q

what is the association with number of lumens in stoma and purpose?

A

1 lumen in RIF - end ileostomy/urostomy
1 lumen in LIF - end colostomy

2 lumens in RIF - loop ileostomy
2 lumens in LIF - loop colostomy

33
Q

what does a spouted stoma mean?

A

presence of spout = ileostomy/urostomy - as cause skin irritation

no spout = colostomy

34
Q

what kind of output comes from colostomies?

A

solid/semisolid faeces

35
Q

what kind of output comes from ileostomies?

A

liquid or mushy bowel contents

36
Q

what are 5 complications of stomas?

A

parastomal hernia
stoma prolapse
stoma retraction
stoma haemorrhage
stoma ischaemia/infarction

37
Q

what are 4 features of parastomal hernia?

A

enlarged stoma
bulging of area behind stoma
increased size on coughing or sneezing
reducible mass

38
Q

what does a stoma prolapse appear like?

A

elongation when patient stands, coughs or strains and reduction when lying

39
Q

what is a complication of stoma retraction?

A

poor stoma bag attachment and frequent peristomal skin complications

40
Q

what does stoma ischaemia appear like?

A

pain at stoma site
necrosis of stoma

41
Q

how do hernias typically present on examination?

A

Single lump in the inguinal region
Positive cough impulse (unless incarcerated)
Soft on palpation
Reducible (unless incarcerated)
Unable to get above the lump during palpation
Painless (unless incarcerated)
Bowel sounds on auscultation (may be absent if incarcerated

42
Q

where are inguinal hernias located?

A

above and medial to pubic tubercle and inguinal ligament

43
Q

where are femoral hernias located?

A

below and lateral to pubic tubercle and inguinal ligament

44
Q

what examination needs to be done with inguinal hernias?

A

scrotal examination - hernia may extend into scrotum

45
Q

what is being examined for externally in PR exam?

A

skin excoriation
skin tags - associated with crohns
haemorrhoids
anal fissure
external bleeding
anal fistula
irregular growths - warts, cancer

Cough - rectal prolapse, internal haemorrhoids

46
Q

what may be seen on general inspection in lymphoreticular examination?

A

Bleeding/bruising/petechiae - thrombocytopenia
abdo distention
pallor
cachexia

47
Q

what characteristics should be assessed in an enlarged lymph node?

A

size
site
shape
consistency
tenderness
mobility
overlying skin changes

48
Q

what are the characteristics of a benign lymph node?

A

<1cm, smooth round, non tender, mobile

49
Q

what are the characteristics of a reactive lymph node?

A

smooth, round, tender, mobile, associated infective symptoms

50
Q

what are the characteristics of lymphadenopathy due to haematological malignancy?

A

widespread, enlarged, rubbery lymph nodes

51
Q

what are the characteristics of lymphadenopathy due to metastasis?

A

Hard, firm, irregular and tethered nodes

52
Q

what areas need to be examined in a lymph node exam?

A

Cervical node
Axillary nodes
epitrochlear nodes - elbow
Inguinal nodes
Full Abdomen - for hepatomegally/splenomegally

53
Q

what further assessments are required with lymph node exam?

A

FBC, blood film, US node
Biopsy of suspect node
Examination of relevant organ if mets are suspected

54
Q

How do you measure insertion length of NG tube?

A

Tip of nose to tragus to xiphisternum

55
Q

what pH suggests correct NG placement?

56
Q

what are some risks of NG insertion?

A

aspiration pneumonia
Trauma and bleeding
Tube dislodgement
Nosebleed
sore throat