Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharma 4 > GI Drugs 2 > Flashcards

GI Drugs 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Salt of sucrose in SUCRALFATE is complexed to

A

sulfated aluminum hydroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Duration of sucralfate’s tenacious paste on ulcers

A

6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MOA of sucralfate

A

It is NEGATIVELY CHARGED and it binds to the POSITIVELY CHARGED proteins in the base of ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Superficial break found only in the mucosa

A

Erosions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Deeper lesions extending up to the muscularis

A

Ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sucralfate vs H2RA

A

Sucralfate is less effective and it will only work in an ACIDIC environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Sucralfate is taken when?

A

1 hour before meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ADR of Sucralfate is minimal because?

A

It is not systemically absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Constipation in Sucralfate

A

Accumulation of ALUMINUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Methyl analog of PGE1

A

Misoprostol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Dose reduction is not needed in Prostaglandin analogs. Why?

A

It is excreted in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Only indication of Misoprostol

A

MISSED ABORTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MOA of Prostaglandin analogs

A

Binding to PG receptor of parietal cell –> reduced histamine stimulated cAMP production –> acid inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Other actions of Misoprostol

A

Intestinal fluid and electrolyte secretion

Uterine contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Increase intestinal motility is facilitated by?

A

It’s VASODILATING effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most significant CI of Misoprostol

A

Mucosal protection in NSAID-induced ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

2 Bismuth Compounds

A 
Bismuth Salicylate
Bismuth subcitrate (tetracycline and metronidazole)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Main excretion of Bismuth compounds

A

Stool (reduced frequency and liquidity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Direct anti-microbial effects of Bismuth targets what bacteria and dse?

A

H. pylori, Traveler’s Diarrhea (E. coli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Erradication of H. pylori

A

PPI + Bismuth subsalicylate + Bismuth subcitrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Most common ADR of Bismuth

A

Blackening of stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Inhibitory neurotransmitter in the GI

A

Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cholinomimetic agents

A

Bethanecol

Neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Bethanecol stimulates what receptors in the muscles and myenteric plexuses?

A

M3 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Other uses of cholinomimetic Bethanecol

A

Neurogenic bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Ach-ase inhibitor

A

Neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Neostigmine is indicate for acute colonic pseudoobstruction or?

A

Ogilvie’s Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ADR of cholinomimetic Neostigmine

A

Salivation

Bardycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Metoclopramide and Domperidone are?

A

D2 receptor antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

MOA of Metoclopramide and Domperidone?

A

Inhibits smooth muscle stimulation –> PROKINESIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

3 actions of Metoclopramide and Domperidone

A

Increase eophageal peristalsis
Increase LES pressure
Enhance gastric emptying time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Specificity of Metoclopramide and Domperidone

A

Do not affect intestinal and colonic motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Anti-nausea and anti-emetic action

A

D2 receptor blockade in the CTZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Metoclopramide use

A

anti-emetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Domperidone use

A

GERD

Postpartum lactation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Macrolide mainly used for MOTILIN receptor stimulation

A

IV Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Plant derivatives of bulk-forming laxatives

A

Psyllium

Methylcellulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Intermittent constipation is best prevented by

A

High fiber diet
Fluids
Exercise
Heeding of nature’s call

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Synthetic derivative of bulk-forming laxatives

A

Polycarbophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

MOA of Bulk-forming laxatives

A

Increase absorption of water, fromation of bulky emolient gel, increase colon distention = increase colon peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Softeners are administered

A

Oral or Rectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Used in hospitalized patients to prevent constipation and minimize straining

A

Docusate

43
Q

Vasovagal reflex in cardiac patients

A

strain

44
Q

Lubricates fecal material, retarding water absorption from the stool

A

Mineral Oil

45
Q

ADR of Mineral Oil

A

Impaired absorption of ADEK

LIPID PNEUMONITIS

46
Q

Osmotic Laxatives are

A

soluble but nonabsorbable

47
Q

PEG difference with bulk-forming laxatives

A

does not produce flatus

48
Q

Osmotic laxative for ACUTE CONSTIPATION or for the prevention of chronic constipation

A

Non-absorbable Sugars and salts

49
Q

Sorbitol and Lactulose are

A

Non absorbable SUGARS

50
Q

Prevents hepatic encephalopathy

A

Lactulose

51
Q

Non absorbable antibiotic used in HE

A

Neomycin

52
Q

Hepatic encephalopathy pathogenesis

A

Stool stays in the colon serves as food to attract bacteria, digestion and end product is AMMONIA

53
Q

Magnesium citrate and sodium phosphate ADR

A

Dehydration

MOA- High volume of liquid stool followed by rapid constipation relief

54
Q

Sodium Phosphate ADR

A

Hyperphosphatemia
Hypocalcemia
Hypernatremia
Hypokalemia

55
Q

Laxatives that are safest in long term use

A

Stimulant Laxatives

56
Q

Stimulant laxatives that are derived from plants

A

Anthraquinone derivatives

57
Q

Anthraquionones Oral and Rectal effect

A

Oral- 6-12 hours

Rectal- 2hrs

58
Q

Antharquinone derivatives chronic use ADR

A

MELANOSIS COLI - brown spots in the colon

59
Q

Bisacodyl is in what form of stimulant laxative?

A

Diphenylmethane derivative

60
Q

Diphenylmethanes Oral and Rectal effect

A

Oral- 6-10 hrs

Rectal- 30-60 minutes

61
Q

Used for colonic cleansing

A

Bisacodyl + PEG

62
Q

Chloride Channel Activator

A

Lubiprostone

63
Q

Lubiprostone Indications

A

Chronic constipation and IBS

64
Q

Lubiprostone is derived from

A

Prostanoic acid

65
Q

Lubiprostone MOA

A

Stimulates CIC 2 in the SI -> stimulates intestinal motility -> shortens transit time (soft stools)

66
Q

Lubiprostone is in what category in pregnancy?

A

C - PregnanC

67
Q

Opioid MOA on GI

A

Dec intestinal motility -> prolonged transit time

68
Q

Selective antagonists of the u-opiod receptor and it cannot cross the BBB

A

Methylnaltrexone bromide and Alvimopan

69
Q

Opioid induced constipation in patients receiving palliative care

A

Methylnaltrexone

70
Q

Treatment for shortening the period of post operative ileus

A

Alvimopan

71
Q

ADR of Alvimopan after more than 7 days of usage

A

Cardiotoxicity

72
Q

Serotonin 5-HT4 PARTIAL agonists

A

Tegaserod

Cisapride

73
Q

Serotonin 5-HT4 agonist that causes QT prolongation

A

Cisapride

74
Q

High affinity for 5 HT4 receptor, found in Europe and for WOMEN

A

Prucalopride

“PUTAlopride”

75
Q

Contraindications for usage of Anti-diarrheal

A

Blood diarrhea
High fever
Systemic toxicity

76
Q

Opioid agonist that does not cross the BBB thus no potential for addiction

A

Loperamide

77
Q

Opioid agonist that do not cross the BBB having high potential for addiction

A

Diphenoxylate

78
Q

Bile salt binding resins that decreases diarrhea by causing excess fecal bile acids

A

Cholestyramine
Colestipol
Colesevelam

79
Q

Cholestyramine and colestipol

A

should not be given within 2 hours with other drugs

80
Q

A somatostatin analog

A

Octreotide

81
Q

Octreotide clinical indications

A

VIPomas
Dumping syndrome
Diarrhea due to vagotomy

82
Q

ADR of octreotide

A

Steatorrhea - ADEK deficiency
Gallstones (inhibits gallbladder contractions)
Hypothyroidism

83
Q

Serotonin 5HT3 antagonists are restricted to

A

Emesis due to post vagal stimulation

Emesis post-chemotheraphy

84
Q

Ondansetron, Ganisetron and Dolasetron

A

administered daily, half-life of 4-9 hours

85
Q

Greater affinity for 5HT3 and have longest (40 hrs) half life

A

Palonosetron

“PaLONGnosetron”

86
Q

Best effective for anti emesis post chemotherapeutic

A

30 minutes prior to chemo

87
Q

Enhanced combination therapy for anti emesis post chemotherapeutic

A

5HT3 antagonists + Dexamethasone + NK- 1 antagonist (e.g. Aprepitant)

88
Q

QT prolongation of 5HT3 antagonists is best pronounced by

A

Dolasetron

89
Q

Corticoids used in anti-emesis

A

Dexamethasone

Methylprednisolone

90
Q

Highly selective NK-1 antagonist that CROSSES the BBB

A

Aprepitant

91
Q

converted to Aprepitant after infusion within 30 minutes

A

Fosaprepitant

92
Q

Drugs that increase Aprepitant levels

A

Ketoconazole, Ciprofloxacin, Verapamil, Quinidine

93
Q

Phenothiazines and Butyrophemones are

A

anti-psychotics with anti-emetic and sedative properties

94
Q

Phenothiazines MOA

A

Inhibition of dopamine and muscarinic receptors

95
Q

Extremely sedating butyrophemones

A

Droperidol

96
Q

Droperidol ADR

A

Extrapyramidal effects
QT prolongation
Torsades de pointes

97
Q

Metoclopramide and Trimethobenzamide inhibits dopamine receptor. What are their ADR?

A

Extrapyramidal

Parkinsonian

98
Q

Meclizine and Hyoscine

A

Anti-histamines

99
Q

Vertigo with labyrinth dysfunction

A

Meclizine

100
Q

Best for motion sickness; given as transdermal patch

A

Hyoscine

101
Q

Cannabinoid used as anti-emetic agent

A

Dronabinol

102
Q

Dronabinol effects

A

Anti emesis

Appetite stimulant

103
Q

Dronabinol ADR

A

Euphoria, Dysphoria, Sedation

Tachycardia + Orthostatic Hypotension

Pharma 4 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions