Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SmartyPANCE:GI > GI comp > Flashcards

GI comp Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three borders of Hesselbach’s triangle?

A

Medial border: rectus abdominus - Superior border: inferior epigastric artery - Lateral border: inguinal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the most common cause of painless rectal bleeding in pediatric population?

A

Polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is intestinal pseudo-obstruction without evidence of mechanical cause called?

A

Ogilvie Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

List the 6 “rule of 2” characteristics of Meckel’s diverticulum.

A

2% of population - 2 feet proximal to ileocecal valve - 2 inches long - 2 years old - 2:1 M:F ratio - 2 tissues: gastric & pancreatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Slate colored skin may represent which underlying GI disorder?

A

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What agent is used to chelate copper in the treatment of Wilson’s disease?

A

Penicillamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Treatment of chronic hepatitis due to hemochromatosis?

A

Phlebotomy and deferoxamine chelation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Treatment of chronic hepatitis due to Wilson’s disease?

A

Copper chelation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment of chronic autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Treatment of chronic viral hepatitis B or C?

A

Pegylated interferon-alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What serum gastrin levels are found with Zollinger Ellison Syndrome?

A

> 150 pg/mL is suggestive - > 200 pg/mL is diagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What level of eosinophilia is diagnostic of eosinophilic esophagitis on biopsy?

A

> 15 eosinophils/HPF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of diarrhea is seen in patients with cholera?

A

Secretory diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of diarrhea does lactose intolerance often cause?

A

Osmotic diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name the 3 most common symptoms of pellagra.

A

Diarrhea - Dementia - Dermatitis (3 D”s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of infectious diarrhea is often linked to deli meats and can be deleterious in pregnant women (lead to miscarriage)?

A

Listeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which vitamin deficiency can lead to problems clotting and excessive bleeding?

A

Vitamin K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Patient with Hepatitis C is at high risk for which malignancy?

A

Liver cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What disease is caused by vitamin C deficiency?

A

Scurvy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What disease is caused by niacin deficiency?

A

Pellagra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What vitamin deficiency can lead to cause rickets in children?

A

Vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name the fat soluble vitamins.

A

Vitamins: ADEK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Congenital error of metabolism in which life-long avoidance of phenylalanine is required?

A

Phenylketonuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the Dx? Nursing home patient with severe watery diarrhea after recent antibiotics.

A

C. difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Prophylactic antibiotic given to prevent traveler’s diarrhea?

A

Fluoroquinolone (e.g. ciprofloxacin) - (Pregnant woman or child give azithromycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which disorder commonly has cobblestoning or skip lesions on imaging?

A

Crohn’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What test is used to diagnose lactase deficiency?

A

Lactose breath hydrogen test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which vitamin deficiency is perifollicular petechiae suggestive of?

A

Vitamin C (Scurvy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What diarrhea related infection may lead to meningitis in neonates and immunocompromised patients?

A

Listeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of inguinal hernia is felt on the side of the finger during exam?

A

Direct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What type of inguinal hernia is felt on the tip of the finger during exam?

A

Indirect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Treatment for Giardia infection?

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Does Shigella cause bloody or nonbloody diarrhea?

A

Bloody diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Will umbilical hernias in children <12 months old usually resolve on their own?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Risk factors for ventral hernia?

A

Abdominal surgery - Age - Obesity - Wound infection - Surgical drains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the Dx and treatment? Stomach herniated up into thorax.

A

Paraesophageal hernia - Surgery recommended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Common symptoms associated with sliding hiatal hernia?

A

Reflux and heartburn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Patient with adenomatous colon polyp should have colonoscopy how often?

A

Every 3-5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Rectal mass rectal bleeding and tenesmus?

A

Rectal cancer (solitary tenesmus may occur with anal inflammation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What type of hemorrhoids are usually painless?

A

Internal hemorrhoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Tender indurated area at perianal area/gluteal cleft?

A

Pilonidal cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What disorder is colon dilation air fluid levels and thumbprinting sign on imaging suggestive of?

A

Toxic megacolon (Thumbprinting may also occur with mesenteric ischemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Treatment for fecal impaction?

A

Digital rectal /manual disimpaction - Diet with fiber stool softeners/laxatives for prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the Dx? Acute abdominal pain. KUB shows dilated loops of bowel with air fluid levels.

A

Small bowel obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

At what age should routine colonoscopy screening begin for men and women?

A

Age 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Most common type of colon cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the DX? 65-year-old male 3 months of recent weight loss poor appetite new constipation and anemia.

A

Think colon cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Celiac sprue intestinal biopsy findings?

A

Villous atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Good test for malabsorption?

A

Fecal fat testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Steatorrhea is often associated with which type of bowel disorders?

A

Malabsorption disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Intestinal angina?

A

Chronic mesenteric ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the Dx? 60-year-old male smoker complains of recurrent dull abdominal cramps/pain within 1 hour of eating meals.

A

Chronic mesenteric ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is severe abdominal pain out of proportion to physical exam findings suggestive of?

A

Acute mesenteric ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Acute thrombosis or embolism of the celiac or mesenteric arteries?

A

Acute mesenteric ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Name the criteria used to diagnose Irritable bowel syndrome.

A

Rome criteria: Pain relieved with defecation - Change in frequency and form - Altered stool passage - Passage of mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Irritable bowel disease that may affect the entire GI tract from mouth to anus?

A

Crohn’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the extraintestinal manifestations that can be seen in ulcerative colitis patients?

A

Pyoderma gangrenosum - Arthritis - Ankylosing spondylitis - Erythema nodosum - Uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Inflammatory bowel disease that only affects the large intestines?

A

Ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Inflammatory bowel disease that often presents with bloody diarrhea?

A

Ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the Dx? Newborn with double bubble sign on abdominal X-ray.

A

Duodenal atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

List 3 antibiotic regimens which can be used for diverticulitis?

A

Quinolone with metronidazole - Amoxicillin-clavulanate - Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Treatment for acute diverticulitis?

A

Initial: NPO/IV fluids antibiotics - May require surgery if perforation or abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

.+anti-tissue transglutaminase +anti gliadin and +anti endomysial antibodies are suggestive of what disorder?

A

Celiac sprue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What cardiac disorders are acute mesenteric ischemia associated with?

A

Atrial fibrillation - MI - CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What genetic abnormality is duodenal atresia associated with?

A

Hereditary Spherocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What criteria are used to predict mortality in acute pancreatitis?

A

Ranson’s criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What chronic viral disease increases the chance of liver cancer?

A

Hepatitis B and C (C increases chances more than B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What tumor marker may be elevated in liver cancer?

A

Alpha-fetoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Common causes of constipation?

A

Lack of fiber - Opiate use - hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Sign seen with appendicitis with pain over the right lower quadrant one-third of the distance from the ASIS to the umbilicus?

A

McBurney’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Tumor marker elevated with pancreatic cancer?

A

CA 19-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Most common type of pancreatic cancer?

A

Ductal adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Ecchymosis around the umbilicus which represents retroperitoneal or intra-abdominal bleeding?

A

Cullen’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the Dx? Epigastric pain radiating to back with elevated lipase.

A

Acute pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What does a porcelain gallbladder or a radiopaque gallbladder on imaging suggest?

A

Gallbladder cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What disease process does Charcot’s triad (fever, jaundice and RUQ pain) suggest?

A

Cholangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the routes of transmission for hepatitis C?

A

Infants: perinatal infection Adults: Blood to blood exposure - Sexual - IV drug abuse - tattoos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the routes of transmission for hepatitis B?

A

Infants: perinatal infection Adults: Blood to blood exposure - Sexual - IV drug abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the routes of transmission for hepatitis A?

A

Fecal-oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which types of hepatitis have available vaccines?

A

Hepatitis A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (AKA non-alcoholic fatty liver disease) risk factors?

A

Diabetes obesity - Metabolic syndrome - Steroid use - CAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are +Anti-Mitochondrial antibodies associated with?

A

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the Dx? Fatigue Pruritus hepatomegaly associated with high alk phos cholesterol and bilirubin.

A

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Treatment for acetaminophen toxicity?

A

Acetylcysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What findings are expected in a patient who is immune to Hepatitis B due to vaccination?

A

HBsAg negative - Anti-HBc negative - Anti-HBs positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What findings are expected in a patient who is immune to Hepatitis B due to natural infection?

A

HBsAg negative - Anti-HBc positive - Anti-HBs positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

RUQ palpation maneuver reveals pain and cessation of inspiration. What is this called? What does it indicate?

A

Murphy’s sign = cholecystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Most common type of gastric cancer?

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Medications to treat gastroparesis?

A

Metoclopramide - IV erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Treatment for gastritis?

A

Proton pump inhibitor - Treat H. Pylori if present - Remove irritants

91
Q

List two medications which may cause cholelithiasis?

A

Ceftriaxone and Clofibrate

92
Q

What two hematological disorders may cause cholelithiasis?

A

Sickle cell disease and Hereditary spherocytosis

93
Q

What GI cancer is acanthosis nigricans associated with?

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma

94
Q

What side effect must patients be counseled on prior to metoclopramide treatment?

A

Tardive Dyskinesia

95
Q

What medications may result in a false-negative urea breath test in a patient with H. pylori?

A

Proton pump inhibitors - H2 blockers - Bismuth - Antibiotics

96
Q

What symptoms of GERD may present as a pulmonary disease process?

A

Hoarseness cough wheeze

97
Q

Syndrome with elevated gastrin levels?

A

Zollinger Ellison

98
Q

What type of GI ulcer has pain relief with food?

A

Duodenal ulcer

99
Q

In addition to peptic stricture what is another complication of chronic GERD?

A

Barrett’s esophagus

100
Q

What disorder can cause heartburn hoarseness and atypical chest pain?

A

GERD

101
Q

What is the Dx? Hematemesis from esophageal laceration after forceful retching.

A

Mallory-Weiss tear

102
Q

Motility disorder caused by degeneration of Auerbach’s plexus?

A

Achalasia

103
Q

What medication may be used to treat stable esophageal varices?

A

Beta blockers

104
Q

Name 2 viruses seen in infectious esophagitis.

A

HSV (Herpes Simplex Virus) and CMV (Cytomegalovirus)

105
Q

In which conditions do you often see infectious esophagitis?

A

Immunocompromised: HIV - Cancer patients - Bone marrow transplant patients

106
Q

Medication used to treat candida esophagitis?

A

Fluconazole

107
Q

What conditions are associated with eosinophilic esophagitis?

A

Allergic conditions - Asthma

108
Q

What type of esophagitis is often caused by bisphosphonates?

A

Non-infectious

109
Q

Vitamin C deficiency is associated with what problems?

A

Scurvy (Fatigue - Petechiae - Bleeding gums - Impaired wound healing)

110
Q

Vitamin B6 deficiency is associated with what problems?

A

Anemia - Weakness - Insomnia

111
Q

Niacin (Vitamin B3) deficiency is associated with what problems?

A

Pellagra -Diarrhea - Flushing - Psychosis

112
Q

Vitamin B2 deficiency is associated with what problems?

A

Glossitis - Seborrheic dermatitis

113
Q

Vitamin B1 deficiency is associated with what problems?

A

Beriberi (CHF - Peripheral neuropathy - Wernicke’s - Cerebellar SX

114
Q

What does Vitamin K deficiency result in?

A

Vitamin K deficiency leads to less factors and bleeding (increased PT/INR)

115
Q

What factors is Vitamin K deficiency associated with?

A

Vitamin K is needed to make clotting factors 2,7,9 and 10

116
Q

Vitamin E deficiency is associated with what problems?

A

Neuropathy - Ataxia - Hemolytic anemia

117
Q

What test is both diagnostic and therapeutic for a patient with intussusception?

A

Barium enema

118
Q

A sausage shaped mass and currant jelly stool are consistent with what diagnosis?

A

Intussusception

119
Q

A newborn with bilious vomiting and a non-distended abdomen is found to have a double bubble sign on KUB. What is your diagnosis?

A

Duodenal atresia

120
Q

What exam finding would be possibly seen on radiologic work up for child with pyloric stenosis?

A

US for identification shows a Double-track - Follow up barium studies show String sign and Shoulder sign

121
Q

Use of what antibiotic is associated with increased risk of pyloric stenosis?

A

Clarithromycin (Note: erythromycin is also associated)

122
Q

A baby presents with vomiting and abdominal exam reveals an olive like mass in the RUQ. What do you suspect?

A

Pyloric stenosis

123
Q

A baby with untreated PKU will develop what long-term complications?

A

Mental retardation

124
Q

A newborn brought from a developing nation at day 12, has a mouse like smell to the urine. What do you suspect?

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

125
Q

What organism commonly causes diarrhea after drinking in a mountain stream?

A

Giardia

126
Q

What virus commonly causes breakouts of diarrhea on cruise ships?

A

Norovirus

127
Q

What virus commonly causes breakouts of diarrhea in day care centers?

A

Rotavirus

128
Q

What diarrhea is associated with poorly done home canned foods?

A

C. Perfringens

129
Q

What diarrhea is associated with a patient post antibiotics?

A

C. Difficile

130
Q

What diarrhea associated with picnics and egg salad?

A

Staph Aureus

131
Q

What diarrhea associated with undercooked poultry or pork?

A

Salmonella

132
Q

What diarrhea associated with shellfish?

A

Vibrio cholerae

133
Q

What is the most common cause of traveler’s diarrhea?

A

E. coli

134
Q

Which type of inguinal hernia is congenital and generally happens before age one?

A

Indirect

135
Q

A 14 year old male presents with a protruding mass that touches the side of the index finger with coughing. What is your diagnosis?

A

Direct inguinal hernia

136
Q

A small umbilical hernia is tender to the touch, not reducible and purple in color. What is the recommend treatment plan?

A

Emergent surgery for strangulated hernia

137
Q

Obesity and previous abdominal surgery has lead to a very large ventral herniation. What is the recommended treatment?

A

Observation or elective surgery as they rarely strangulate

138
Q

What type of hernia can worsen GERD symptoms?

A

Hiatal hernia

139
Q

What is the recommended follow-up time for colonoscopy in a patient who had polyps removed?

A

Repeat colonoscopy in 3 to 5 years

140
Q

What is the recommended treatment for a perianal cyst?

A

Surgical drainage

141
Q

Are polyps located in the distal colon and rectum usually benign or cancerous?

A

Benign

142
Q

Anal cysts can be benign or cancerous. Which of the following is cancerous? (Teratoma, epidermoid, dermoid)

A

Teratoma

143
Q

A 64 year old male presents with bloody stools. Digital rectal exam reveals a step off at Bulmer’s shelf. What is your diagnosis?

A

Rectal cancer

144
Q

A 45 year old female presents with painful defecation, pruritus of the anus and occasional blood. What is your diagnosis?

A

Internal hemorrhoids

145
Q

What is the recommended treatment of a pilonidal cyst?

A

Surgical drainage

146
Q

A 25 year old male has a large red tender abscess located in the gluteal cleft near the coccyx. What is your diagnosis?

A

Pilonidal cyst

147
Q

Both mesenteric ischemia and toxic megacolon may have a thumb printing sign on imaging. What differentiates the two on physical exam?

A

Mesenteric ischemia has a soft abdomen - Toxic megacolon as rigid abdomen

148
Q

What is the recommended treatment for an elderly patient with fecal impaction?

A

Digital rectal disimpaction followed by dietary changes that increase fluids and dietary fiber

149
Q

X-ray showing dilated large intestine and a large amount of stool in the sigmoid colon in an elderly patient is most likely represents what disorder?

A

Fecal impaction

150
Q

What is the most common location for a large bowel obstruction?

A

Sigmoid colon

151
Q

What would be the expected findings on KUB in a patient with a mechanical obstruction?

A

Dilated loops of bowel with air fluid levels and little or no gas in the colon

152
Q

What is the most common cause of mechanical obstruction in a patient with history of abdominal surgery?

A

Adhesions

153
Q

A patient undergoes a barium study of the colon and an “Apple core” lesion is found. What do you suspect?

A

Colon Cancer

154
Q

What is the most common type of colon cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

155
Q

A 17 year old presents with abdominal pain, bloating, flatulence, and diarrhea after ingesting dairy. What is the test used to make the diagnosis?

A

Lactase breath hydrogen test

156
Q

What lab antibodies would likely be positive in a patient with Celiac sprue?

A

+anti-tissue transglutaminase, +antigliadin and +anti endomysial antibodies

157
Q

Celiac sprue is an abnormal immune response to what food product?

A

Gluten

158
Q

What are the fat-soluble vitamins?

A

A - D - E - K

159
Q

What is the test of choice for malabsorption?

A

Fecal fat

160
Q

A patient presents with acute mesenteric ischemia. What medication may be given via the angiography to improve blood flow while the patient waits for surgery?

A

Papaverine for vasodilation via angiogram until in patient gets to OR

161
Q

What finding on abdominal X-ray is suggestive of acute mesenteric ischemia?

A

Thumb-printing of small bowel or right colon due to submucosal bleeding (Thumb printing may also be seen with toxic megacolon)

162
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosis of mesenteric ischemia?

A

Angiography

163
Q

A diabetic presents with abdominal pain that begins one hour after eating and resolves a few hours later. What is your suspected diagnosis?

A

Chronic mesenteric ischemia

164
Q

A 55 year old male presents with acute abdominal pain. He is in atrial fibrillation and has a relatively benign exam. What is your diagnosis?

A

Mesenteric ischemia

165
Q

What antibodies will be found positive in Crohn’s disease?

A

NAME?

166
Q

What antibodies will be found positive with ulcerative colitis?

A

NAME?

167
Q

Patient presents with alternating diarrhea and then constipation. A complete workup and physical exam are normal. What do you suspect?

A

Irritable bowel syndrome

168
Q

What are the three major complications of ulcerative colitis?

A

Toxic megacolon - Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis - Colorectal cancer

169
Q

Crohn’s disease affects what part of the GI tract?

A

Mouth to anus

170
Q

Which type of diverticular problem generally is painless bleeding?

A

Diverticulosis

171
Q

Which type of laxative is first in the line of treatment after lifestyle changes and adequate fiber?

A

Osmotic Laxatives

172
Q

A patient having less than two bowel movements per week is defined as having what?

A

Constipation

173
Q

What is the test of choice to diagnose appendicitis in an adult?

A

CT

174
Q

What is the test of choice to diagnose appendicitis in a child?

A

Ultrasound

175
Q

What is Iliopsoas sign?

A

RLQ pain with R hip extension

176
Q

What is Obturator sign?

A

RLQ pain upon flexion and internal rotation of RLE

177
Q

What is Rovsing’s sign?

A

RLQ pain upon palpation of LLQ

178
Q

What is McBurney’s sign?

A

Pain upon palpation of the RLQ

179
Q

What tumor marker is elevated in pancreatic cancer?

A

CA-19-9

180
Q

Patients with chronic pancreatitis commonly need pharmacological supplementation for what two problems?

A

Insulin for diabetes and pancreatic enzymes for digestion

181
Q

A 45 year old male alcoholic with epigastric abdominal pain and radiation to mid back develops ARDS. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Acute pancreatitis and sepsis

182
Q

A family history of cirrhosis, skin hyperpigmentation, diabetes mellitus, pseudogout, and cardiomyopathy are suggestive of what disorder?

A

Hereditary Hemochromatosis

183
Q

A 65 year old male with central obesity and ultrasound finding of a fatty liver can eventually develop what condition?

A

NAFLD (Non Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease) may lead to cirrhosis

184
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis often has high elevation of alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin levels. What is the gold standard for diagnosis?

A

Gold standard - antimitochondrial antibodies found with liver biopsy

185
Q

Diffuse, multifocal strictures and focal dilation of bile ducts with a “beaded look” are found on a patient with ulcerative colitis. What is your suspected diagnosis?

A

Primary Sclerosing cholangitis

186
Q

What is the medical management of ascites due to cirrhosis?

A

Single morning oral doses of spironolactone and furosemide

187
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis is commonly associated with what GI disease process?

A

Ulcerative colitis

188
Q

What test provides definitive diagnosis of liver cancer?

A

Liver biopsy

189
Q

What tumor marker is elevated in liver cancer?

A

Alpha-fetoprotein

190
Q

A patient presents with AMS and hepatomegaly. Physical exam reveals ring-like deposits in the eyes. What is the suspected diagnosis?

A

Wilsons disease (copper deposition)

191
Q

Which of the hepatitis viruses is a DNA virus?

A

Hepatitis B (the rest are all RNA viruses)

192
Q

A patient has positive Anti-HBc IGG, negative Anti-HBc IGM and positive HBsAg. What is the status of their hepatitis B?

A

Chronic hepatitis B

193
Q

A patient has negative Anti-HBc IGG, positive Anti-HBc IGM and positive HBsAg. What is the status of their hepatitis B?

A

Acute active Hepatitis B (contagious)

194
Q

Which viral Hepatitis causes a high infant mortality rate in a pregnant woman?

A

Hepatitis E

195
Q

Which hepatitis can be obtained via blood transfusion and is likely to lead to cirrhosis and liver cancer?

A

Hepatitis C

196
Q

Which hepatitis is only associated with hepatitis B?

A

Hepatitis D

197
Q

A 24 year old returns from an Asian vacation tour and develops fatigue, fever, jaundice and hepatomegaly 3 days later. What is the likely cause?

A

Hepatitis A

198
Q

A patient with painless jaundice weight loss and a palpable RUQ mass has what suspected diagnosis?

A

Gallbladder or Pancreatic cancer

199
Q

What is the next test of choice in a patient with RUQ pain and an inconclusive US for cholecystitis?

A

Nuclear scan (HIDA or PIPIDA)

200
Q

A patient presents to your office with weight loss and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. What X-ray finding supports gallbladder cancer?

A

Porcelain gallbladder

201
Q

A patient with cholangitis develops confusion and hypertension. What do you suspect?

A

Acute obstructive suppurative cholangitis

202
Q

A patient presents with fever, jaundice, and right upper quadrant pain. What do you suspect?

A

Cholangitis

203
Q

During exam, palpation of the right upper quadrant during inspiration causes the patient to stop breathing in due to pain? What is the initial test of choice?

A

RUQ Ultrasound

204
Q

What antibiotic is a major cause of biliary sludge?

A

Ceftriaxone

205
Q

A patient presents with left supraclavicular lymphadenopathy and an umbilical lymph node. What do you suspect?

A

Gastric cancer or abdominal cancer (Left supraclavicular lymphadenopathy aka Virchow’s node)

206
Q

A diabetic regularly checking his post prandial glucose readings finds that despite a good meal his readings are low. What do you suspect?

A

Gastroparesis

207
Q

What MEN I tumor causes excess gastric acid production?

A

Zollinger Ellison

208
Q

A patient describes abdominal discomfort that is worse with meals and gets better an hour or so later after eating? What do you suspect?

A

Gastric ulcer

209
Q

A patient describes abdominal discomfort that improves with meals and gets worse an hour or so later. What do you suspect?

A

Duodenal ulcer

210
Q

A patient complains he regurgitates small amounts of food back into his mouth. He also has noted very foul-smelling breath. What do you suspect?

A

Zenker’s diverticulum

211
Q

What lifestyle change, in addition to smoking cessation, not eating before bedtime, and proper food choices, has the largest effect on GERD symptoms?

A

Weight loss

212
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosis of GERD?

A

pH monitoring with a intra-esophageal electrode

213
Q

What surgical procedure is indicated for refractory GERD?

A

Nissen Fundoplication

214
Q

Patient presents with bleeding esophageal varices. What medication is often given IV to stop the bleeding?

A

Octreotide and vasopressin

215
Q

What disease process is commonly associated with esophageal varices?

A

Cirrhosis of the liver

216
Q

What medication is indicated for the prevention of esophageal varices?

A

Beta Blockers - Nadolol or propranolol

217
Q

A patient develops severe retching and vomiting followed by excruciating retrosternal chest and upper abdominal pain. What is the definitive treatment?

A

Emergent Surgery (Boerhaave’s)

218
Q

What is expected to be seen on endoscopy in a patient with a Mallory Weiss tear?

A

Long mucosal tears through venous or arterial plexus

219
Q

A 24 year old male complains of bloody vomitus after a night of heavy drinking. What is the suspected cause of the bleeding?

A

Mallory Weiss tear

220
Q

What is the treatment for the esophageal webs in Plummer Vinson disease?

A

Endoscopy and dilation plus Iron supplementation

221
Q

A 60 year smoker presents with difficulty swallowing solids. What do you suspect?

A

Throat cancer

222
Q

A female presents with dysphagia to solid foods and is found to be anemic. What is your expected finding on endoscopy?

A

Esophageal webs from Plummer Vinson (associated with iron deficiency anemia)

223
Q

What is the main cause of strictures?

A

Healing scar due to ulcerative esophagitis

SmartyPANCE:GI (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions