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SmartyPANCE:GI > GI CME - Sheet1 > Flashcards

GI CME - Sheet1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a modality for a patient with significant night time GERD symptoms?

A

H2 blocker at night and a PPI in the day

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2
Q

What are common viral causes of esophagitis?

A

CMV and HSV

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3
Q

What are common causes of esophagitis in a patient with HIV?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis, EBV, Mycobacterium Avium Complex

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4
Q

How do we treat HSV esophagitis?

A

Acyclovir

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5
Q

How do we treat CMV esophagitis?

A

Ganciclovir

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6
Q

What is a key feature of Zenkerís diverticulum?

A

Vomiting undigested food after several hours

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7
Q

What is the classic finding on barium swallow in a patient with Achalasia?

A

Parrot beak

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8
Q

What is the condition called that is caused by thrombosis of the portal vein that leads to esophageal varices?

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome

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9
Q

What three diseases does H. Pylori cause?

A

Peptic ulcers, gastric adenocarcinoma and gastric

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10
Q

What is the most common cause of PUD ( peptic ulcer disease)?

A

H. Pylori

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11
Q

What is the name of a gastrin secreting tumor that causes hypergastrinemia?

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

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12
Q

What is diagnostic of Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome?

A

Fasting Gastrin level greater than 150pg/mL

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13
Q

What is strongly associated with gastric adenocarcinoma?

A

H. Pylori

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14
Q

What is the supraclavicular lymphadenopathy of gastric adenocarcinoma called?

A

Virchowís node

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15
Q

What is the umbilical nodule of gastric adenocarcinoma called?

A

Sister Mary Joseph nodule

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16
Q

Which organism causes the most rapid onset of diarrhea?

A

S. Aureus

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17
Q

What denotes an inflammatory process in diarrhea?

A

WBC in stool

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18
Q

When should a colonoscopy be ordered in a patient with constipation?

A

Patients older than 50 with new onset constipation

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19
Q

What causes most small bowel obstructions?

A

Adhesions and hernias

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20
Q

What is the most common cause of a large bowel obstruction?

A

Tumor

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21
Q

What test distinguishes mal-digestion from malabsorption?

A

D-xylose test

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22
Q

What is the most common genetic condition in the USA?

A

Celiac

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23
Q

What are the screen tests for Celiac disease?

A

IgA antiendomysial and anti-tissue transglutaminase

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24
Q

What is the age of onset of Crohnís disease?

A

25 years old M=F

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25
Q

What is possible curative in ulcerative colitis?

A

Surgery

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26
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic or recurrent ABD pain in the USA?

A

IBS

27
Q

What is the most common cause of intussusception in a child and adult?

A

Child ñ viral infection and adult ñ neoplasm

28
Q

What is the presentation of intussusception?

A

Colicky pain, current jelly stool and a sausage like mass

29
Q

How do we both diagnose and treat intussusception in a child?

A

Barium or air enema

30
Q

How do we diagnose intussusception in an adult?

A

CT

31
Q

What test is avoided in diverticulitis?

A

Barium enema

32
Q

What is the risk of inherited polyposis syndrome?

A

Near-100% risk of CA

33
Q

What lab test is used to monitor colorectal CA?

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

34
Q

What is the most common cause of appendicitis?

A

Fecalith

35
Q

What is the most common emergency surgery?

A

Appendicitis

36
Q

What is the initial symptom of appendicitis?

A

Periumbilical or epigastric pain

37
Q

What are the most common causes of pancreatitis?

A

ETOH and cholelithiasis

38
Q

What is the classic pain pattern of pancreatitis?

A

Epigastric pain radiating to back

39
Q

What is bleeding into the flanks called?

A

Grey Turner sign

40
Q

What is bleeding into the umbilical area called?

A

Cullen sign

41
Q

What is a palpable gallbladder and jaundice called?

A

Courvoisier sign

42
Q

What is the* surgical resection of pancreatic cancer* called?

A

Whipple procedure

43
Q

What are the complications of choledocholithiasis?

A

Cholecystitis, pancreatitis and acute cholangitis

44
Q

What is Charcot triad?

A

RUQ pain, jaundice and fever

45
Q

What is Charcotís triad that also has an altered mental status and hypotension called?

A

Reynoldís Pentad

46
Q

What is primary sclerosing cholangitis associated with?

A

Ulcerative colitis

47
Q

What is the most common presentation of primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

Jaundice and pruritus

48
Q

What is the only known treatment for primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

Liver transplant

49
Q

What represents ongoing hepatitis B infection?

A

Hepatitis B SURFACE antigen (HBsAg)

50
Q

What represents immunity to hepatitis B?

A

Anti-HBs ñ Antibody against hepatitis B surface antigen

51
Q

What medication is used for acetaminophen toxicity?

A

Acetlycysteine

52
Q

What is the general cause of a liver abscess?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

53
Q

Where is the liver a common source or metastases from?

A

Lung and breast

54
Q

Which diseases cause an elevation of Alpha fetoprotein?

A

Hepatic carcinoma, hepatitis C and cirrhosis

55
Q

What is the location of an indirect inguinal hernia?

A

Through internal inguinal ring

56
Q

What is the location of a direct inguinal hernia?

A

Through the external ring at Hesselbachís triangle

57
Q

What is the basic patient demographic for pyloric stenosis?

A

5 week old male

58
Q

What is the radiographic finding of pyloric stenosis?

A

String sign

59
Q

What is the disease caused by vitamin D deficiency?

A

Rickets

60
Q

What is the disease caused by a lack of Thiamine?

A

Beriberi

61
Q

What is another name for vitamin B6?

A

Pyridoxine

62
Q

What is the problem with phenylketonuria?

A

Inability to metabolize phenylalanine

63
Q

What is the treatment for phenylketonuria?

A

Low phenylalanine diet and tyrosine supplementation

SmartyPANCE:GI (5 decks)

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