GI Flashcards

1
Q

Gastric cancer etiology?

A

Helicobacter (H.) pylori infection
smoking, alcohol
diet (pickled or salt-preserved foods, low consumption of fruit and vegetables)
occupational (rubber industry)
low socioeconomic status
reduced gastric acid production
infection with EBV
blood group A
radiation exposure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Gastric cancer mutation?

A

E-cadherin gene CDH1 mostly in signet cell carcinoma
BRCA2, but not BRCA1
Li–Fraumeni, FAP, HNPCC, and Peutz–Jeghers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The majority of gastric tumours (>90%) are

A

adenocarcinomas,divided into intestinal and diffuse types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Intestinal type gastric cancer associated with?

A

Intestinal type: usually arises in association with a precancerous condition such as gastric atrophy or intestinal metaplasia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Signet rings seen in which type of gastric cancer?

A

Diffuse type: of gastric carcinoma is usually poorly differentiated and is usually composed of signet rings. It is more common in younger patients and in ♀

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the symptoms of gastric cancer?

A

LOADS
Presentation: early disease non-specific,more advanced disease, weight loss, anorexia, early satiety, or vomiting, dysphagia and odynophagia.Supraclavicular lymphadenopathy (Virchow’s node), periumbilical mass (Sister Joseph’s nodule), ascites, and jaundice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Diagnostic work-up for gastric cancer?

A

CBC
LFT & RFT
Endoscopy and biopsy
EUS for LNs
CT of thorax, abdomen, pelvis
PET
Assess nutrition status
Laparoscopic washing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Rx : early gastric cancer T1a & T1b?

A

Endoscopic mucosal resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Margins for gastric cancer surgery?

A

Proximal : 5 cm
Distal : pylorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Important late complications of gastrectomy?

A

bleeding (often short gastric vessel or splenic tear) and an anastomotic leak ,
dumping syndrome
anaemia (iron deficiency, folate deficiency, B12 deficiency—lack of intrinsic factor)
impaired fat absorption
osteoporosis
osteomalacia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Etiology of pancreatic cancer?

A

Smoking
diabetes
obesity,high saturated fat consumption
post gastrectomy change in bacterial flora
family history
mutations in Kras,p53,Smad4, BRCA 2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Familial syndromes associated with pancreatic cancer?

A

Familial syndromes associated with ductal adenocarcinomas include
HNPCC
FAP
Peutz–Jeghers
cystic fibrosis
the familial atypical mole/ malignant melanoma syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Most common pancreatic cancer?

A

Exocrine ductal adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most common location for pancreatic cancers?

A

Head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pancreatic cancer symptoms?

A

Obstructive jaundice
weight loss and anorexia
epigastric pain.
Malnutrition due to steatorrhoea and malabsorption
Gastric outlet obstruction
Diabetes mellitus in up to 5%; 1% of new-onset adult diabetics have an underlying pancreatic carcinoma.

A palpable gallbladder, in the presence of painless jaundice, is likely to be due to a pancreatic carcinoma .

ascites,
supraclavicular (Virchow’s) lymph node
(Trousseau’s sign), migratory thrombophlebitis
acanthosis nigricans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Diagnosis for pancreatic cancer?

A

USS
abdomen, chest, and pelvis CT.
MRI better for invasion
EUS
Laparoscopy
PET-CT staging
Ca19.9 is widely measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Surgery for pancreatic cancers involving head?

A

pylorus-preserving pancreatoduodenectomy (PPPD), or
Whipple’s procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Surgery for pancreatic cancers involving body and tail?

A

distal pancreatectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Post op complications of pancreatic cancer?

A

pancreatic fistula
delayed gastric emptying,
bleeding,
biliary and enteric leaks ,
intra-abdominal abscesses,
pancreaticinsufficiency,
diabetes,
cardiorespiratory and. thrombotic complications .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Most common colorectal cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

21
Q

Colorectal cancer associated with which syndromes ?

A

FAP
MYH associated polyposis
Lynch or HNPCC

22
Q

Colorectal cancer symptoms?

A

Alterations in bowel habit
abdominal pain,
weight loss
weakness
iron deficiency anaemia

23
Q

Diagnostics for colorectal cancer?

A

CBC,LFT,RFT,albumin
CEA,coagulation
Complete colonoscopy if not possible then CT colonography
CT lung, abdomen , pelvis

24
Q

Wild BRAF colorectal cancer treatment?

A

Bevacizumab

25
Q

Wild KRAS colorectal treatment?

A

Cetuximab

26
Q

Total Neoadjuvant Therapy?

A

SCRT then FOLFOX/CAPOX then TME
IT IS USED FOR RECTAL CANCER

27
Q

RAPIDO AND PRODIGE 23?

A

Rectal cancer

28
Q

Most common anal cancers?

A

Squamous

29
Q

Most anal tumors arise from?

A

Most anal tumours arise from the epidermal elements of the anal canal lining

30
Q

Anal cancer risk factors?

A

• HPV infection.
• Receptive anal intercourse.
• Sexually transmitted disease, >10 sexual partners.
• Previous cervical, vulval, or vaginal cancer.
• Immunosuppression after solid organ transplant.
• HIV
• Cigarette smoking

31
Q

Types of anal epidermoid tumors?

A

•SCCs
• basaloid (or cloacogenic) carcinomas •mucoepidermoid

32
Q

Symptoms of epidermoid anal cancer?

A

• pain • bleeding • itch • discharge • mass.

Later symptoms: • faecal incontinence • ano-vaginal fistula.

33
Q

Investigation for anal cancer?

A

Biopsy

FNA cytology—enlarged inguinal lymph nodes

CT or MRI scan—abdomen and pelvis

34
Q

Anal cancer rx?

A

chemo-irradiation

35
Q

HCC risk factors?

A

HBV,HCV
NAFLD & AFLD
Diabetes & obesity
Hereditary hemochromatosis
Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
Wilson disease
Hepatic porphyria
Aflatoxins,tobacco,vinyl chloride,arsenic

36
Q

most common in well- and moderately differentiated HCCs

A

Trabecular

37
Q

Prognosis for HCC?

A

The degree of differentiation has prognostic importance; 40% of tumours of 1–3 cm have two or more grades,
percentage of well-differentiated HCCs decreases, as size increases

38
Q

What is well differentiated HCC?

A

Well—usually <2cm, minimal atypia

39
Q

What is moderately differentiated HCC?

A

Moderate—usually >3cm, mainly trabecular or pseudoglandular, but sometimes a solid pattern, abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm and large round nucleoli with distinct nucleoli, and bile often seen.

40
Q

What is poorly differentiated HCC?

A

Poor—solid or scirrhous pattern
no distinct sinusoid-like blood spaces
increased nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio,
prominent polymorphism
giant cells

41
Q

Pathogenesis for HCC?

A

The pathogenesis of HCC includes at least four distinct genetic processes:
1. oncogene activation (myc, K-ras, BRAF);
2. tumour suppressor inactivation (p53, Rb),
3.reactivation of developmental pathways (Wnt, hedgehog) and
4.growth factors and their receptors (TGFα, IGF receptor).

42
Q

Diagnostics for HCC?

A

USG
Multiphase MRI
AFP increased
Pelvic, chest , abdomen CT
No biopsy , no pet ct

43
Q

LiRADS used in ?

A

liver cirrhosis and

chronic HBV without cirrhosis

44
Q

What is included in LiRADS?

A

Arterial phase hyperenhancement (APHE)
Non-peripheral washout
Capsule
Size
Threshold growth

45
Q

Child pugh score classes?

A

5-6 : class A
7-9 : class B
10-15 : class C

46
Q

Locoregional Therapy for HCC?

A

TACE,TARE,RFA,PCI,Microwave

47
Q

Systematic therapy for HCC?

A

Atezolizumab + bevacizumab

48
Q

Milan criteria ?

A

recommend transplantation for a single nodule of ≤5cm or
3 nodules up to 3cm in diameter