GI Flashcards

1
Q

what disease causes gene defect of UDP enzyme deficiency

A

crigler najjar - severe form from birth
gilbert syndrome - mild hyperbilirubinaemia

UGT1AT gene defect, causes UDP deficiency
so less bilirubin metabolism causing high UNconjugated bilirubin

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2
Q

what gene defect causes Dublin-johnson syndrome

A

MRP2 gene defect

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3
Q

what does INR measure

A

extrinsic coagulation
3+7 -> 10 -> 2 (thrombin) -> 1 (fibrin)

bilirubin/INR measure prognosis

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4
Q

what are time scales for acute, subacute, chronic liver diseases

A

acute <6wk, subacute 6-25wk, chronic 25+wk

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5
Q

what are the stages of progressive liver disease

A

normal -> steatohepatitis -> fibrosis ->
(IRREVERSIBLE) cirrhosis -> hepatocellular carcinoma

fibrosis is reversible, cirrhosis is not
cirrhosis is when liver architecture replaced by fibrotic nodules

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6
Q

how does cirrhosis appear on liver US

A

heterogenous irregular liver
splenomegaly, ascites

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7
Q

how is hepatic fibrosis assessed invasively + non

A

non:
ALT/AST levels
fibroscan for liver stiffness
FIB-4 scan
ELF test

invasive: biopsy (gold standard)

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8
Q

what are features of decompensated liver disease

A

jaundice
ascites
vatical bleed/haemorrhage
hepatic encephalopathy
coagulopathy INR >2

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9
Q

what is acute liver failure

A

jaundice -> encephalopathy within 4wk
no pre-existing liver disease

if pre-existing disease, acute on chronic liver failure instead

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10
Q

what is Budd chiari syndrome

A

portal vein thrombosis = main vessel to liver
triad - ascites, abdo pain, hepatomegaly

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11
Q

what is screened for in:
hepatitis serology
autoimmune hepatitis
ASH/NASH
PBC
alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
wilson disease
hereditary haemochromoatosis

A

hepatitis: hepA IgM, hepB sAg, hepC Ab, hepE IgM

autoimmune: ANA, anti-smooth muscle, LKM antibodies

ASH/NASH depends on ALT/AST ratio, if ALT high = fatty, if AST high = alcohol

PBC: anti-M2 (mitochondrial)

alpha-1: serum alpha-1 AT, phenotype

wilson: low serum Cu, low serum caeruloplasmin

HH: high serum ferritin

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12
Q

what is autoimmune hepatitis (what is it associated with) and how is it treated

A

usually affects women
associated with HLA DRB1/3

ANA, anti-smooth muscle, LMK Ab

treat with immunosuppression

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13
Q

what is PBC and how is it treated

A

usually affects women 40-50yr
causes granulomatous hepatitis affecting interlobular bile ducts

anti-M2
causes jaundice, pruritus/itch

treat with ursodeoxycholic acid (2nd line obtecholic acid)

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14
Q

what is PSC and how is it treated

A

associated with UC
triggered by bacteria and PAMP entering portal circulation via inflamed intestine
affects intra + extra hepatic bile ducts

biopsy shows concentric fibrosis of intra+extra-hepatic ducts

no effective treatment
increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma

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15
Q

what are congenital cholestatic syndromes

A

PFIC/PBIC

PFIC1 - ATP8 18q gene = reduced cholesterol secretion into bile

PFC2 - ATP11 2q gene = reduced bile acid secretion into bile, so hepatic BA accumulation and slowed hepatic BA flow

PFC3 - ACB4 7 q gene = less PL secretion, so bile more toxic

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16
Q

how do acute + chronic hepatitis differ

A

acute 1-3months = more florid
chronic 6month+ = abnormal LFT, positive serology

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17
Q

how many stages of hepatic fibrosis

A

6
s1-s3 = fibrosis of more portal areas
s4 = fibrosis bridging portal areas
s5 = probable cirrhosis
s6 = confirmed cirrhosis

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18
Q

summarise the different hepatitis viruses

A

A = acute infection, RNA picornavirus transmitted via faecal/oral route
investigate by checking HepA IgM

B (VACCINE) = acute->chronic, DNA virus transmitted via blood
most common cause globally
investigate with serology
if HepB sAg +ve, then treat (1st line: peginterferon a2, 2nd live: tenofovir/ectovir)

C = chronic, RNA virus transmitted via blood (body fluids - needles, sex OR vertical transmission)
usually IVDU
if HCV RNA +ve, then treat (sofosbuvir)

D = chronic, RNA virus that only infects if HepB also present, so spread via blood
treat with pegylated interferon-a (low success rate)

E = acute, ssRNA spread via faecal-oral route
if pregnant, risk of fulminant hepatitis

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19
Q

how does HBV replicate

A

DNA virus
via reverse transcription of RNA intermediate

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20
Q

how does immune system down regulate HBV viral replication and protein synthesis

A

TLR3 recognises HBV’s PAMP with RIG-I signalling
IFN NF-kB activates interferon stimulating genes
these form IFN a/B that reduce viral replication + protein synthesis

also promote adaptive immunity via MHC-class1 expression on APC
causing cell death via perforins

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21
Q

what antibody provides lifelong immunity against HBV

A

HepB sAb - neutralising Ab against HBsAg that prevents uptake by uninfected hepatocytes

early priming of CD4+ and CD8+ intrehepatically

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22
Q

how does HBV persist to cause chronic infection

A

HBX protein protects cccDNA, preventing antigen presentation/processing
T-reg express more FoxP3, suppressing CD4/CD8
CD28 upregulated causes apoptosis of HBV specific T cell
IFN-a/y inhibited

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23
Q

what does HBV DNA correlate to

A

risk of fibrosis + HCC

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24
Q

why does HDV rely on HBV

A

HDV is an incomplete RNA virus, enclosed in shell of HBsAg

HDV is a satellite virus, so can not make its own viral proteins or replicate independently

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25
Q

how is chronic HBV + HCV treated

A

HBV - pegylated interferon-a2, tenofovir, ectovir (if HBsAg +ve)
HBV vaccine available

HCV - sofosbuvir (if HCV RNA +ve)
no vaccine for HepC

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26
Q

how does HCV cause chronic infection

A

RNA virus with rapid replication rate, so high viral load
many mutants (quasi-species that escape immune system) form as high error rate of RNA-polymerase
HCV non-structural viral proteins disrupt RIG-I signalling, inhibiting innate immunity
neutralising Ab develop too slowly and don’t last long

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27
Q

why does HCV re-infection occur

A

neutralising AB develop too slowly and don’t last long enough

28
Q

where does HCV replication occur

A

in cytoplasm only

29
Q

what are the symptoms of inflammatory diarrhoea

A

constant diarrhoea
worse when eating

30
Q

how does inflammation cause diarrhoea

A

inflammation -> ulcer -> necrosis

disrupts mucosal immunity
so mucous, serum and blood are lost into stool

31
Q

what are effects of thickened mucosa from inflammation, on absorption

A

SB - malabsorption of nutrients
LB - poor water reabsorption

32
Q

what causes inflammatory diarrhoea

A

bacteria - campylobacter, shigella, salmonella, c.doff, e.coli

parasite - giardiasis

ischaemia - vasculitis

33
Q

how do Crohn + UC differ

A

crohn - anywhere in GIT (mouth to anus - perianal disease)
skip lesions with transmural inflammation
crypt hyperplasia
goblet cell hyperplasia
granulomas, lymphoid hyperplasia
strictures, fistulas

UC - only LI, starts distally in rectum then spreads proximally
continuous mucosa/submucosa inflammation
crypt abscess/distortion
goblet cell depletion

34
Q

on colonoscopy, how do UC + crohn look

A

UC - pseudopolyp
crohn - cobblestone appearance

35
Q

what is impact of smoking on IBD

A

worsens crohn
protective for UC

36
Q

what is osmotic diarrhoea

A

osmotic solutes (lactose, bile salts) not absorbed into lumen
so salt/water reabsorption inhibited

MOA for osmotic laxatives - macragol, lactulose, Mg

37
Q

how to stop osmotic diarrhoea

A

not eat

38
Q

what disease causes osmotic diarrhoea

A

coeliac disease
malabsorption of bile salts prevents salt/water reabsorption

39
Q

what is coeliac disease

A

intolerance to dietary gluten
associated with HLA-DQ2/8

damages SI - mainly proximal in jejunum, then extends distally to ileum

40
Q

how is coeliac disease diagnosed + what is seen on biopsy

A

initial investigation - TTG IgA Ab, anti-endomysial, anti-gliadin

definitive - endoscopy + jejunal biopsy
shows: crypt hyperplasia, villous atrophy, intra-epithelial lymphocytes, lamina propria inflammation

41
Q

what is secretory diarrhoea

A

increased gut secretions - toxin, hormone, stimulant laxative, rectal cancer

42
Q

does fasting help with secretory diarrhoea

A

NO

43
Q

when is an erect CXR + AXR done

A

erect CXR = free gas, airspace disease (lower lobe pneumonia)

AXR = obstruction, perforation, IBD, calcification

44
Q

how do SBO + LBO differ on AXR

A

SBO = centrally dilated loops >3cm, valvulae conniventes - extend full width

LBO = peripherally dilated loops >6cm, haustra
(+associated SBO)

45
Q

what is triad for gallstone ileus

A

rigler triad - SBO, pneumobilia (air in bile duct), ectopic gallstone

46
Q

what is sigmoid volvulus

A

coffee bean sign
summation line - large bowel gas upstream

47
Q

what is toxic megacolon

A

medical emergency - complication of UC

dilated transverse colon
mural oedema, creating thumb-printing

48
Q

what contrast studies are done for
UGI
LGI
small bowel

A

UGI - OGD
LGI - colonoscopy, CT colonography, flexi-sigmoidoscopy if volvulus
small bowel - MR enterography

49
Q

why is a barium swallow done

A

post-OGD
test for functional disease - benign (achalasia) or malignant

50
Q

what are the different types of colorectal cancer

A

colon cancer = laparoscopic surgery, if node -ve then chemotherapy as well

rectal cancer = MRI staging, neo-adjuvant chemo/RT, anterior resection

oligo-metastatic disease = MRI/PET, metastatectomy

widespread metastatic disease = palliative chemo + support

51
Q

what is histology of colorectal cancer

A

adenocarcinoma

52
Q

what is progression of colorectal cancer

A

progression from normal mucosa -> polyps -> cancer

normal mucosa
APC gene forms initial adenoma
k-RAS gene forms intermediate adenoma
DCC gene causes loss of long-arm of chr18 causes late adenoma
TP53 gene causes loss of short-arm of chr17 causes cancer

53
Q

what genes are involved in colorectal cancer

A

APC gene forms initial adenoma (from normal mucosa)
k-RAS gene forms intermediate adenoma
DCC gene causes loss of long-arm of chr18 causes late adenoma
TP53 gene causes loss of short-arm of chr17 causes cancer

54
Q

what are 6 hallmarks of cancer

A

1 - sustain proliferative signalling
2 - evade growth suppressors
3 - activate invasion + metastasis
4 - enable replicative immortality
5 - induce angiogenesis
6 - resist apoptosis

55
Q

what are emerging hallmarks + enabling characteristics of cancer

A

emerging hallmark: dysregulate cellular energetics, avoid immune destruction

enabling characteristic: tumour-promoting inflammation, genetic instability/mutation

56
Q

what causes point mutations

A

accidental silencing (epigenetic loss) of mismatch repair genes
causing point mutations

57
Q

which 2 hereditary syndromes linked to colorectal cancer

A

all with AD inheritance

FAP - inherited loss of APC so multiple polyps form during teens, driving further mutation to cause cancer
virtually guaranteed colorectal Ca in 20s so need prophylactic pan-proctocolectomy

Lynch/HNPCC - inherited mutation of MLH1/MSH2 in mismatch repair genes, causes multiple point mutations increasing risk of cancer
colorectal, endometrial, small bowel, pancreatic

(also juvenile polyposis, peutz-jegher syndrome - STK11 mutation)

58
Q

what cancers affected in Lynch/HNPCC

A

colorectal, endometrial, small bowel, pancreatic

59
Q

what are management options for FAP/Lynch

A

direct referral for genetic testing
(1st degree relative 2-4x risk)

FAP - consider prophylactic pan-colectomy at 40yr
HNPCC - regular screening colonoscopy, preventative treatment with 600mg aspirin daily

60
Q

where does colorectal cancer metastasise

A

liver - via portal circulation
lung - via venous circulation

resection/ablation of lung/liver may be curative

61
Q

what cellular dysfunction occurs in colorectal cancer

A

activating mutations in k-RAS
esp in polyp -> cancer progression + left-sided or rectal cancers

if right-sided MMR tumour, usually BRAF mutation

62
Q

how is colorectal cancer classified

A

with Duke + TNM staging
from Duke C or TNM stage 3, adjuvant chemo needed as lymph node involvement

Duke
A - not beyond muscularis
B - beyond msucularis
C - regional lymph nodes involved
D - distant metastasis

63
Q

what is colorectal cancer screening

A

FIT every 2yr for anyone aged 60-74yr
if +ve referred for colonoscopy

if histology +ve, CT TAP to stage
if rectal cancer = MRI/endorectal US to identify local invading disease

64
Q

what is urgent 2WW for colorectal cancer

A

> 40yr with weight loss + abdo pain

> 50yr with unexplained rectal bleeding

> 60yr with Fe-deficient anaemia OR changed bowel habit

red-flag: rectal bleeding +
abdo pain, changed bowel habit, weight loss OR Fe-deficient anaemia

65
Q

how are colon + rectal cancers managed

A

if stage 1-3 = surgical resection
if stage 3 = surgery + post-op chemotherapy (as lymph nodes involved)

same for rectal cancer
if tumour >8cm from anal canal or in proximal 2/3 of rectum = anterior resection
if tumour <8cm from anal canal or in distal 1/3 rectum = abdomino-perineal resection