Cancer genetics + Metabolic disease Flashcards

1
Q

how do most cancers occur

A

sporadic - not due to hereditable gene mutation
combination of genetic, environment, hormones

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2
Q

what are 2 types of DNA repair paths

A

homologous recombination repair
mismatch repair

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3
Q

what is penetrance

A

penetrance = likelihood that specific gene mutation will cause disease in an individual

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4
Q

what is penetrance for breast cancer

A

although AD inheritance, incomplete penetrance

BRCA1 inheritance = 75% lifetime risk of breast Ca in women
men = 15% lifetime risk of prostate Ca

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5
Q

what are high + low risk susceptibility genes

A

high = TP53, BRCA/2, PTEN, CDH1, STR11
(rare gene variants that greatly increase the risk of a small proportion of cancers)
ascertained from FH

low = SNP single nucleotide polymorphisms, ATM, CHEK2
(relatively common gene variants that slightly increase risk of cancer)
multiple low risk variants combine to increase overall risk
ascertained from population studies

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6
Q

what are cancer red-flags in terms of
age
ethnicity
inheritance pattern
tumour type

A

age = premenopausal
ethnicity = jewish, east europe
inheritance = AD
tumour type = triple -ve cancer, high grade serous cancer, MMR deficient tumours

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7
Q

what are the cancer risk assessment tools

A

Manchester scoring system - finds probability of BRCA1/2 mutation
BODICEA/CanRisk

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8
Q

what are 4 criteria for MODY

A

young onset 6month-25yr
non-insulin dependent
beta cell dysfunction
autosomal dominant inheritance - single gene defect

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9
Q

what are 3 main types of MODY and how do they differ

A

GCK - lifelong mild, stable fasting hyperglycaemia, no treatment necessary
HNF1A - treat with SU
HNF4A - treat with SU, presents with macrosomia + hypoglycaemia at birth

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10
Q

what is GCK function and how does it differ to other hexokinases

A

GCK - acts as rate limiting step (glucose sensor in pancreatic B cell)
since lower affinity for glucose than other hex-kinases, so lacks feedback inhibition

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11
Q

how common are micro/macro-vascular complications in GCK

A

minimal

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12
Q

what MODY are babies born macrosomia

A

HNF4A only

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13
Q

when is GCK treated

A

only in pregnancy if foetus doesn’t have the AD mutation
test directly with CVS/amniocentesis, or cell free DNA

otherwise don’t treat with insulin as large amount needed to overcome regulatory response

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14
Q

why is HNF1A/HNFA4A sensitive to SU

A

low renal threshold for glucose

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15
Q

how is HNF1A/HNF4A treated

A

initially diet, then SU
after eating high carb food, post prandial hyperglycaemia seen

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16
Q

what is the pathophysiology of IEM (internal errors of metabolism)

A

lack of feedback
causes high levels of precursor
as enzyme deficient, product not made - so alternate pathway used instead, creating toxic products

17
Q

how are IEM inherited

A

IEM = autosomal recessive
MODY = autosomal dominant

18
Q

what IEM diseases are screened for

A

congenital hypothyroidism. sickle cell disease, cystic fibrosis

19
Q

what exacerbates IEM

A

diet, intercurrent illness

20
Q

what are neo/pre-natal screening tests

A

neo = blood prick test
pre = maternal fetal blood DNA analysis, CVS

CVS (tests for genetic abnormalities and common mutations)

21
Q

which IEM is treated by inserting genetic material

A

mitochondrial

22
Q

when do different carb IEM disorders present

A

glucose = from birth, fasting hypoglycaemia from birth
lactose (glu + gala) = during breast feeding
sucrose (flu + fru) = when weaning to solid food

23
Q

what is the most common glycogen storage disease

A

G6PD deficiency = glycogen storage disease 1

deficient of G6P enzyme, so less gluconeogenesis
causes hypoglycaemia

present: hypoglycaemia, hepatomegaly, lactic acidosis, hyper urea+TG

24
Q

what is McArdle disease

A

glycogen storage disease 5 - lack of glycogen phosphorylase

causes rhabdomyolysis (high CK + myoglobin in urine)
less extreme - muscle cramps, exercise intolerance
muscle wasting contractures

diagnose: genetic test, lactate not made on ischaemic exercise

treat: aerobic exercise

25
Q

how do galactokinase + gala-1PO4UT deficiencies differ

A

galactokinase causes cataracts as build-up of galacterol

gala-1PO4UT deficiency (galactosemia = Irish) causes hepatotoxic effects (jaundice, hepatomegaly) as build-up of gal-1-PO4

26
Q

when do IEM develop

A

within 24-48hr to 1st week of life

present with:
HYPOglycaemia
cataracts
hepatomegaly (+ spleno), jaundice
metabolic acidosis - lactic acidosis causing raised anion gap
cabbage smell as AA transport disorder causes AA aciduria

27
Q

when do IEM develop

A

within 24-48hr to 1st week of life

present with:

28
Q

why are IEM babies born full-term with NO physical abnormalities

A

they are protected during the pregnancy

29
Q

what are lab findings of IEM

A

hypoglycaemia
hyperammonia
metabolic acidosis

present with:
HYPOglycaemia
cataracts
hepatomegaly (+ spleno), jaundice
metabolic acidosis - lactic acidosis causing raised anion gap
cabbage smell as AA transport disorder causes AA aciduria

30
Q

how do galactokinase + gala-1PO4UT deficiencies differ

A

galactokinase causes cataracts as build-up of galacterol

gala-1PO4UT deficiency (galactosemia = Irish) causes hepatotoxic effects (jaundice, hepatomegaly) as build-up of gal-1-PO4