GFES Components Flashcards

1
Q

VARs in
infinite grid
Generator voltage less than grid voltage

A

becoming reactive load

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2
Q

VARs out
infinite grid
Generator voltage more than grid voltage

A

supplying reactive load

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3
Q

MW out
infinite grid

A

supplying real load

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4
Q

MW in
infinite grid

A

becoming real load
(motoring the generator)

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5
Q

How do VARs affect amps?
infinite grid

A

Closer to zero (in or out) = fewer amps
Farther from zero (in or out) = more amps

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6
Q

How do MW affect amps?
infinite grid

A

More MW = more amps

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7
Q

generator frequency higher than grid frequency
infinite grid

A

generator supplies load to sync

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8
Q

generator frequency lower than grid frequency
infinite grid

A

grid supplies load to sync
(motoring the generator)

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9
Q

Generator voltage regulator up

A

excitation goes up
VARs up

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10
Q

Generator voltage regulator down

A

excitation goes down
VARs down

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11
Q

Motor-Generator Sets

Power Out =

A

P-out = P-in - losses

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12
Q

Power Factor Trends via VARs

A

When VARs in or out = zero, Power factor = 1

As VARs get farther from zero (positive or neg, in or out), power factor lowers

Always between 0 and 1

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13
Q

VARs for paralleled generators

isolated electrical bus

A

Add generator VARs together
(VARs going in are negative numbers)

Total net VARs will stay the same

If one generator increases/decreases VARs, the other will change to maintain the same total net VARs

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14
Q

Throttling ≠ Pump Speed
(pump laws do not apply)

Air

A

Throttle valve closes, backpressure ↑, amps ↑
Throttle valve open, backpressure ↓, amps ↓

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15
Q

Throttling ≠ Pump Speed
(pump laws do not apply)

Liquid

A

amps ∝ ṁ
Throttle valve open, V̇ ↑, amps ↑
Throttle valve closed, V̇ ↓, amps ↓
Temperature ↓, density ↑, ṁ ↑, amps ↑

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16
Q

Heat produced by current

A

Heat ∝ current squared

Don’t forget the ambient temp!

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17
Q

Isochronous Mode

A

speed (frequency) is constant regardless of load on generator

If speed goes up, ONLY Hz increases; everything else stays constant

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18
Q

Droop Mode

A

Speed (frequency) lowers as load on generator increases

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19
Q

Thermocouples

If the reference junction temperature increases due to ambient conditions, then indicated temperature will…

A

decrease
(reduces ΔT)

(T-ref typically colder than T-measuring)

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20
Q

Thermocouples

If the reference junction temperature decreases due to ambient conditions, then indicated temperature will…

A

increase
(increases ΔT)

(T-ref typically colder than T-measuring)

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21
Q

An open circuit in a thermocouple causes indicated temp to fail…

A

to reference junction temp (low).

(voltage difference → 0)

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22
Q

A short circuit in a thermocouple causes indicated temp to fail…

A

to reference junction temp (low).

(voltage difference → 0)

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23
Q

RTD stands for…

How does it work?

A

Resistance Temperature Detector

change in electrical resistance ∝ temperature

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24
Q

An open circuit in an RTD causes indicated temp to fail…

A

high

(open circuit seen as large resistance → maximum temp)

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25
Q

A short circuit in an RTD causes indicated temp to fail…

A

low

(short circuit seen as very low resistance → minimum temp)

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26
Q

RTD vs Thermocouple

RTDs are better suited for __________ temperature bands

(small or large)

A

small

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27
Q

RTD vs Thermocouple

RTDs have ___________ output voltage which means…

(higher or lower)

A

higher

…less extra equipment needed to boost output signals

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28
Q

RTD vs Thermocouple

RTDs _________ require reference junctions

(do or don’t)

A

don’t

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29
Q

RTD vs Thermocouple

RTD circuitry is __________ tolerant to electrical noise

(more or less)

A

more

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30
Q

RTD vs Thermocouple

RTDs have an _____________ sensitivity to small changes in temperature

(increased or decreased)

A

increased

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31
Q

RTD vs Thermocouple

RTDs are __________ accurate then thermocouples

(more or less)

A

more

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32
Q

RTD vs Thermocouple

Thermocouples are __________ rugged than RTDs

(more or less)

A

more

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33
Q

RTD vs Thermocouple

Thermocouples are well suited for ____________ temperature bands

(large or small)

A

large

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34
Q

RTD vs Thermocouple

Thermocouples give a ____________ response to temperature changes

(fast or slow)

A

fast

(sensing wires drawn very thin)

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35
Q

Bourdon Tube

Changes in atmospheric pressure ________ affect readings

(will or won’t)

A

will

(tube expansion is against atmospheric pressure; e.g. if atmospheric pressure goes up by 5#, then indicated pressure goes down by 5#)

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36
Q

Bourdon Tube

If ambient temperature goes up, indicated pressure will…

A

go up

(tube becomes more flexible)

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37
Q

Bourdon Tube

If ambient temperature goes down, indicated pressure will…

A

go down

(tube becomes less flexible)

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38
Q

With NO density compensation, indicated flow of a gas (steam) will be ________________ than actual flow

(higher or lower)

A

lower

(higher density = higher mass flow rate = more steam = more reactor power)

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39
Q

A steam flow measuring instrument uses density compensation to convert _________________ into ____________________

A

volumetric flow rate; mass flow rate

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40
Q

A steam flow measuring instrument uses density compensation and square root compensation to convert the differential pressure across a flow element to flow rate in lbm/hr.

The purpose of square root compensation in this flow measuring instrument is to convert ________ to __________.

A

differential pressure; volumetric flow rate

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41
Q

In a venturi flow detector (or other D/P-type flow detector), how does D/P follow flow?

A

Flow ↑, D/P ↑

Flow ↓, D/P ↓

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42
Q

D/P flow detectors measure flow using the principle that the flow rate of a liquid is…

A

directly proportional to the square root of the D/P

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43
Q

Gas Amplification Curve

Region I

A

Recombination Region

(not used for much)

44
Q

Gas Amplification Curve

Region II

A

Ionization Region

(least sensitive, most accurate region)

(used for rad detectors, Intermediate and Power Range neutron detectors)

45
Q

Gas Amplification Curve

Region III

A

Proportional Region

(gas amplification factor ∝ applied voltage)

46
Q

Gas Amplification Curve

Region IV

A

Limited Proportionality Region

(not used for detector operation)

47
Q

Gas Amplification Curve

Region V

A

Geiger-Mueller Region

(most sensitive, least accurate region)

(Geiger counters; cannot distinguish between types of particles; pulse height is independent of type of radiation)

48
Q

Gas Amplification Curve

Region VI

A

Continuous Discharge Region

(can’t be used for rad detection)

49
Q

Specific Ionization Pulse Height

Why is it important?

A

Different types of particles produce different pulse heights when detecting ionization pulses.

50
Q

Rad Detectors

In a proportional counter, what does a discriminator do?

A

Can be set to only read larger pulses produced by neutrons

(excludes other radiation types)

51
Q

Scintillation detectors convert radiation energy into light by a process known as…

A

luminescence

(crystals called phosphors)

52
Q

A source range NI detector normally uses what kind of detector?

A

proportional counter

53
Q

Intermediate and power range detectors use what kind of detector?

A

ionization chamber

54
Q

The intermediate range NI detector uses a/an _______________ ion chamber

(compensated or uncompensated)

A

compensated

55
Q

The power range NI detector uses a/an _______________ ion chamber

(compensated or uncompensated)

A

uncompensated

(neutron to gamma ratio so high that gammas are insignificant)

56
Q

Source range detection is measured in…

A

counts per second

57
Q

Intermediate range is measured in…

A

amps (or percent power)

58
Q

Power range is measured in…

A

percent power

59
Q

How does core voiding affect Nuclear Instrumentation?

A

moderator is displaced → more neutron leakage → readings initially increase

(then decrease once K-eff is dramatically lowered by loss of moderation)

60
Q

Which radionuclides might we expect to see in the case of fuel cladding failure?

A

Iodine-131, Cesium-138, Strontium-89

61
Q

For wet reference leg, what is the relationship between temp/pressure and level indication?

A

ρ ↑, L-indicated ↑
(temp/press ↓, D/P ↓)

ρ ↓, L-indicated ↓
(temp/press ↑, D/P ↑)

62
Q

In an open loop system, the controlled variable _________ used to adjust any of the inputs to the process.

(is or isn’t)

63
Q

In a closed loop system, the controlled variable _________ used to adjust any of the inputs to the process.

(is or isn’t)

64
Q

What is the deadband for a bistable controller?

A

It is the region between the point when a controller has turned off and the point where the input reaches the setpoint again. Prevents oscillation around the setpoint.

Example:
Oil temperature in a HX rises above the 125 setpoint. Cooling water flow increases. Once the temperature comes down to 115, the controller returns cooling water flow to previous rate.

The deadband is the time between the oil temperature hitting 115 and when it rises to 125 again.

65
Q

What is the proportional band of a controller?

A

the ratio of the amount of change possible in the controlled variable to the amount of change possible in the final control element (in %)

input/output
(inverse of gain)

66
Q

What is the gain of a controller?

A

the ratio of the amount of change possible in the final control element to the amount of change possible in the controlled variable (in %)

(factor by which magnitude of error signal will be increased)

output/input
(inverse of proportional band)

67
Q

What is offset in a controller?

A

the deviation that remains after a process has stabilized

(difference between setpoint and steady-state value of the controlled parameter)

68
Q

What is deviation in a controller?

A

Difference between the setpoint and actual value (a.k.a. “error”)

69
Q

What is feedback in a controller?

A

Info on the controlled variable sent back to the controller for finer control

Example:
current control valve position might feed back to controller

70
Q

How does the proportional mode of control work?

A

throttling control; linear relationship
valve movement ∝ amount of signal deviation

matches supply to demand; parameter stabilizes at “new setpoint”

positions valve at full open, full closed, or intermediate positions

71
Q

How does integral control work?
(a.k.a. reset control)

A

magnitude of output dependent on magnitude of input
large error = valve moves quickly
small error = valve moves slowly

controlled variable returns to setpoint following a disturbance; eliminates offset error

slow response to error signal; might initially allow a large deviation, leading to system instability

72
Q

How does proportional integral control work?

A

combines proportional and integral

output produced as soon as error signal exists; quickly repositions final control element

eliminates slow response of integral and residual offset of proportional

73
Q

What problem is common with proportional integral controllers?

A

reset windup

large sustained error causes controller to drive to its limit to restore system control; causes large oscillations when restoring to setpoint

not well suited for processes that are frequently shut down and started up

74
Q

How does proportional derivative control work?

A

controller responds to rate of change of error signal, not just amplitude

controller output initially larger in direct relation with error signal rate change → final control element positioned to desired value sooner

reduces initial overshoot of measured variable; not susceptible to reset windup

75
Q

How does proportional integral derivative control work?

A

used for processes that can’t tolerate continuous cycling or offset error and require stability

quick stabilization; return to setpoint; reduces initial overshoot and cycling period before stabilizing at setpoint

76
Q

EDG Droop mode is used for…

A

starting and paralleling the EDG to a bus for testing

load changes affect speed; backed up by mechanical governor

% speed droop = (no Load speed - full load speed) / no load speed

77
Q

EDG isochronous mode is used for…

A

emergencies when EDG is only source of power to vital AC bus

controller returns EDG to setpoint for 60 Hz for any change in load
(loads sequenced on to minimize impact on EDG)

78
Q

Wet Reference Leg

How does indicated level relate to the pressure inside the vessel?

79
Q

Wet Reference Leg

How does temperature change in the reference leg affect indicated level?

A

Temp ↑, ρ ↓, D/P ↓, L-ind ↑

Temp ↓, ρ ↑, D/P ↑, L-ind ↓

80
Q

What is the positive space charge effect associated with a gas-filled radiation detector?

A

Pulse amplitude from ionization is reduced because positive ions form a cloud around the positive electrode. Electric field strength reduces, so there aren’t as many secondary ionizations.

81
Q

A typical alpha particle produces free electrons in a gas-filled radiation detector primarily by…

A

electrostatic attraction of bound electrons

82
Q

Which pair of radiation detector types are the most sensitive to low energy beta and/or gamma radiation?

A

Geiger-Mueller and scintillation

83
Q

Rule of Thumb for Makeup Valves & Controllers
(works 90% of the time)

A

fail closed valve = reverse acting controller
fail open valve = direct acting controller

(controller could be a different component, e.g. detector, valve, etc.)

84
Q

Rule of Thumb for Drain Valves & Controllers
(works 90% of the time)

A

fail closed valve = direct acting controller
fail open valve = reverse acting controller

(controller could be a different component, e.g. detector, valve, etc.)

85
Q

Demineralizers

What is breakthrough?

A

the point at which the ionic impurities at the demineralizer exit start to show resin exhaustion

86
Q

Demineralizers

What is leakage?

A

the very small (nearly undetectable) amounts of undesirable ions that continuously pass through the demineralizer without being exchanged

87
Q

How are cation beds regenerated?

A

with an acid

88
Q

How are anion beds regenerated?

A

with a base

89
Q

What is demineralization factor (or decontamination factor)?

A

a direct measure of demineralizer efficiency

DF = inlet conductivity / outlet conductivity

OR

DF = inlet contamination level / outlet contamination level

90
Q

Demineralizers

What does a low D/P indicate?

A

reduced efficiency or channeling

91
Q

Demineralizers

What does a high D/P indicate?

A

excessive buildup of solids

(or excess flow which could reduce ion exchange rates, break apart resin and cause resin fines, or cause channeling)

92
Q

How does a crud burst affect demineralizer performance?

A

causes more blockage by solids, lower flow, higher D/P, and more radiation

93
Q

How does raising the fluid temperature affect demineralizer performance?

A

causes resin to release boron

94
Q

How does lowering the fluid temperature affect demineralizer performance?

A

causes resin to hold more boron
(basically dilution: positive reactivity addition)

95
Q

How should we determine what a demineralizer’s D/P should be?

A

Use the volumetric flow equation to determine expected D/P.

96
Q

What is the main ion that cation beds remove?

97
Q

What is the main ion that anion beds remove?

98
Q

If a temperature display fails, which sensors can be measured manually and converted to a temperature value with the help of conversion tables?

A

RTD and thermocouple

99
Q

What is Net Positive Suction Head?

A

NPSH = P(suction) - P(saturation)
(in ft)

Make sure to read carefully for available vs required NPSH!

102
Q

What do the four pump curves represent?

A
  1. two pumps in parallel
  2. change in pump speed
  3. two pumps in series
  4. a system change (valve throttled, etc.)
103
Q

What is the function and use of the backseat on a manual valve?

A

removes pressure from the packing/stuffing box and is typically used when needed to isolate packing leakage

104
Q

For proper operation of a thermocouple circuit, the reference junction temperature…

A

may be less than, greater then, or equal to the measuring junction temperature.

105
Q

A PDP is operating in a water system. How can the net positive suction head requirement (NPSH-R) for the pump be determined?

A

by referencing the pump performance curve provided by the vendor, if volumetric flow rate is known