Geriatrics Flashcards

1
Q

List 10 components of the Medication Appropriateness Index (MAI)

A

1) Indication
2) Efficacy
3) Correct dosage
4) Correct directions
5) Practical directions
6) Drug-drug interactions
7) Drug-disease/condition interactions
8) Unnecessary duplication with other drugs
9) Duration of therapy acceptable?
10) Cost- is the drug the least expensive alternative compared to others of equal utility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which class of antihistamines is stated in the BEERs list and why should it be avoided in elderly?

A

First-gen antihistamines

Rationale: highly anticholinergic, clearance reduced with advanced age, tolerance develops when used as hypnotic. Associated with increased risk of falls, delirium, dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some anticholinergic side effects? (list 5)

A

1) Dry mouth
2) Constipation
3) Hallucinations
4) Confusion
5) Drowsiness/dizziness
6) Blurred vision
7) Dry eyes
8) Urinary retention
9) Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

BEERs list:
Which drug should be avoided for initiation for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease? Why?

A

Aspirin; risk of major bleeding from aspirin increases markedly with older age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

BEERs list:
Which drug should be avoided for initiation for the treatment of non-valvular AF or VTE? Why? List 2 exceptions where this drug may still be used

A

Warfarin. Compared with DOACs, has a higher risk of major bleeding with similar/lower effectiveness, DOACs are preferred.

Exceptions:
- unless alternative options are CI / substantial barriers to their use
- for older adults who have been using warfarin long term, may be reasonable to continue with warfarin, particularly among those with well-controlled INRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

BEERs list:
Which class of antidepressants is known to have strong anticholinergic side effects and can cause orthostatic hypotension? List down 5 examples of antidepressants belonging to this class.

A

Tricyclic anti-depressants;
1) Amitriptyline
2) Nortriptyline
3) Imipramine
4) Desipramine
5) Dothiepine
6) Clomipramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

BEERs list:
List 5 examples of antipsychotics listed in the list and the rationale.

A

1st-gen antipsychotic:
- Haloperidol
2nd-gen antipsychotic:
- Aripiprazole
- Olanzapine
- Quetiapine
- Risperidone

Rationale: increased risk of stroke, greater rate of cognitive decline and mortality in persons with dementia

  • avoid use except in FDA-approved indications e.g. schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, Parkinson disease psychosis, short-term use as antiemetic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

BEERs list:
- List 3 other CNS depressants that is listed in the beers list and their rationale

A

1) Barbiturates- high rate of physical dependence, tolerance to sleep benefits, greater risk of overdose at low dosages

2) Benzodiazepines- increase risk of cognitive impairment, delirium, falls, fractures; risk of abuse, misuse and addiction

3) Z-drugs (e.g. zolpidem, zopiclone) - similar to benzodiazepine drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List 2 anti-hyperglycemic agents that is listed in the BEERs list and its rationale

A

1) Insulin, sliding scale (insulin regimens containing only short- or rapid-acting insulin dosed according to current blood glucose levels without concurrent use of basal/long-acting insulin): higher risk of hypoglycemia without improvement in hyperglycemia management

2) Sulfonylureas: higher risk of cardiovascular events, all-cause mortality and hypoglycemia than other agents; may increase CV death and ischemic stroke; among sulfonylureas, long-acting agents confer a higher risk of prolonged hyperglycemia than short acting agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain why PPIs are listed in the BEERs list

A

Risk of C. difficile infection, pneumonia, GI malignancies, bone loss, fractures;

avoid scheduled use for >8 weeks unless for high-risk patients (e.g. oral corticosteroids/ chronic NSAID use), erosive esophagitis etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Explain why metoclopramide is listed in BEERs list

A

Can cause extrapyramidal effects, including tardive dyskinesia; risk may be greater in frail older adults and with prolonged exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

BEERs list:
List 5 types of antispasmodics listed in the BEERs list and its rationale

A

1) Atropine (excludes ophthalmic)
2) Clidinium-chlordiazepoxide
3) Dicyclomine
4) Hyoscyamine
5) Scopolamine

Rationale: highly anticholinergic, uncertain effectiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

BEERs list:
List 5 examples of non-selective NSAIDs listed in the BEERs list and the rationale why it may not be suitable for elderly

A

1) Aspirin (>325mg/day)
2) Diclofenac
3) Ibuprofen
4) Ketorolac
5) Naproxen

Rationale: increased risk of GI bleeding or peptic ulcer diseases, incl. >75 y/o; taking oral/parenteral steroids; anticoagulants/anti-platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

BEERs list:
List 1 example of skeletal muscle relaxants listed in the BEERs list and explain why there is a need to avoid its use

A

Orphenadrine;

Rationale: poorly tolerated by older adults due to anticholinergic side effects, sedation, increased risk of fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

BEERs list:
List 3 classes of medications listed in the BEERs list that has potential for drug-disease interaction in heart failure patients and its rationale

A

1) Non DHP CCBs (Diltiazem & Verapamil): promote fluid retention, exacerbate heart failure
2) NSAIDs & COX-2 inhibitors: promote fluid retention, exacerbate heart failure
3) Thiazolidinediones (Pioglitazone): promote fluid retention, exacerbate heart failure
4) Dronedarone: potential to increase mortality in older adults with heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

BEERs list:
List 4 classes of medications listed in the BEERs list that has potential for drug-disease interaction in syncope patients and its rationale

A

1) Antipsychotics (Chlorpromazine & olanzapine): increase risk of orthostatic hypotension
2) TCAs: Increase the risk of orthostatic hypotension
3) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine): can cause bradycardia, should avoid use in syncope patients due to bradycardia
4) Non-selective peripheral alpha-1 blockers (doxazosin, prazosin, terazosin): can cause orthostatic hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

BEERs list:
List 7 classes of medications listed in the BEERs list that has potential for drug-disease interaction in delirium patients and its rationale

A

1) Anticholinergics
2) Antipsychotics
3) Benzodiazepines
4) Corticosteroids (oral & parenteral)
5) H2-receptor antagonists (cimetidine, famotidine, nizatidine)
6) Z- hypnotics (zolpidem, eszopiclone)
7) Opioids

Rationale: avoid in older adults with or at high risk of delirium due to potential of inducing/worsening delirium; except for prescribed exceptions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

BEERs list:
List 4 classes of medications listed in the BEERs list that has potential for drug-disease interaction in dementia/cognitive-impairment patients and its rationale

A

1) Anticholinergics
2) Antipsychotics, chronic use/ persistent prn use: increased risk of stroke and greater rate of cognitive decline and mortality
3) Benzodiazepines
4) Z-hypnotics (zolpidem, eszopiclone)

Rationale: due to adverse CNS effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

BEERs list:
List 9 classes of medications listed in the BEERs list that has potential for drug-disease interaction in patients with history of falls and fractures and its rationale

A

1) Anticholinergics
2) SNRIs
3) SSRIs
4) TCAs
5) Antiepileptics: avoid except for seizures and mood disorders
6) Antipsychotics
7) Benzodiazepines
8) Z-hypnotics
9) Opioids: avoid except for pain management in severe acute pain

Rationale: may cause ataxia, impaired psychomotor function, syncope, or additional falls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

BEERs list:
List 4 types of medications listed in the BEERs list that has potential for drug-disease interaction in Parkinson disease patients and its rationale

A

1) Metoclopramide
2) Prochlorperazine
3) Promethazine
4) antipsychotics (except Clozapine, quetiapine and pimavenserin)

Rationale: dopamine receptor antagonists have potential to worsen parkinson symptoms

Exception: Clozapine, quetiapine and pimavenserin less likely to precipitate worsening of PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

BEERs list:
List 2 types of medications listed in the BEERs list that has potential for drug-disease interaction in patients with history of gastric/duodenal ulcer and its rationale

A

1) Aspirin
2) Non-cox2-selective NSAIDs

Rationale: may exacerbate ulcers or cause new/additional ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

BEERs list:
List 2 types of medications listed in the BEERs list that has potential for drug-disease interaction in women with urinary incontinence (all types) and its rationale

A

1) Non-selective peripheral alpha-1 blockers (doxazosin, prazosin, terazosin)
2) Estrogen (oral and transdermal): excludes intravaginal estrogen

rationale: aggravation of incontinence (alpha-1 blockers), lack of efficacy (oral estrogen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

BEERs list:
List 1 type of medications listed in the BEERs list that has potential for drug-disease interaction in patients with lower urinary tract symptoms/ BPH and its rationale

A

1) Strongly anticholinergic drugs, except antimuscarinics for urinary incontinence

Rationale: may decrease urinary flow and cause urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

BEERs list:
List 9 types of medications that may exacerbate or cause SIADH/ hyponatremia?

A

1) Mirtazipine
2) SNRIs
3) SSRIs
4) TCAs
5) Carbamazepine
6) Oxcarbazepine
7) Antipsychotics
8) Diuretics
9) Tramadol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

BEERs list:
Older adults using SGLT2 inhibitors are at an increased risk of (1) and (2)?

A

1) Urogenital infections
2) euglycemic diabetics ketoacidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

BEERs list:
List 4 classes of medications that Lithium can interact with to cause increased risk of lithium toxicity

A

1) ACEI
2) ARBs
3) ARNIs
4) Loop diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

BEERs list:
List 2 types of antiemetics that has strong anticholinergic properties

A

1) Prochlorperazine
2) Promethazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

List 2 anti-parkinsonian agents that has strong anticholinergic properties

A

1) Benztropine
2) Trihexylphenidyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Based on STOPPFall, when should medications be considered to be deprescribed ALWAYS? (2 reasons)

A

1) If no indication for prescribing
2) If safer alternatives available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

List 4 classes of drugs where stepwise withdrawal is generally required.

A

1) BZDs and BZD-related drugs
2) Antipsychotics
3) Opioids
4) Antidepressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

STOPPFall:
For BZDs and BZD- related drugs, in which cases should withdrawal be considered? (List at least 3 points)

A

If:
1) Daytime sedation
2) cognitive impairment
3) psychomotor impairment
4) Sleep and anxiety disorder (?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

STOPPFall:
For antipsychotics, when should withdrawal be considered? (List at list 5 points)

A

If:
1) Extrapyramidal side effect
2) Cardiac Side effects
3) Sedation/ signs of sedation
4) Dizziness
5) Blurred vision
6) Given for BPSD or sleep disorder (?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

STOPPFall:
For opioids, when should withdrawal be considered? (List 3 points)

A

If:
1) Slow reaction
2) Impaired balance
3) Sedative symptoms
4) If given for chronic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

STOPPFall:
For antidepressants, when should withdrawal be considered? (List 5 points)

A

If:
1) Hyponatremia
2) Orthostatic hypotension
3) Dizziness
4) Sedative symptoms
5) Tachycardia/arrhythmia
6) If given for depression but depended on symptom-free time and history of symptoms
7) Given for sleep disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

STOPPFall:
For antiepileptics,when should withdrawal be considered? (List 5 points)

A

If:
1) Ataxia
2) Somnolence
3) Impaired balance
4) Dizziness
5) Given for anxiety disorder / neuropathic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

STOPPFall:
For diuretics, when should withdrawal be considered? (list 3 points)

A

If:
1) Orthostatic hypotension
2) hypotension
3) Electrolyte disturbance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

STOPPFall:
For alpha-blockers used for hypertension, when should withdrawal be considered? (List 3)

A

If:
1) Hypotension
2) Orthostatic hypotension
3) Dizziness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

STOPPFall:
For alpha-blockers used for BPH, when should withdrawal be considered? (List 3)

A

If:
1) Hypotension
2) Orthostatic hypotension
3) Dizziness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

STOPPFall:
For centrally-acting hypertensives, when should withdrawal be considered? (list 3)

A

If:
1) Hypotension
2) Orthostatic hypotension
3) Sedative symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

STOPPFall:
For sedative antihistamines, when should withdrawal be considered? (list 4)

A

If:
1) Confusion
2) Drowsiness
3) Dizziness
4) blurred vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

STOPPFall:
For vasodilators used in cardiac disease, when should withdrawal be considered? (list 3)

A

If:
1) Hypotension
2) Orthostatic hypotension
3) Dizziness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

STOPPFall:
For overactive bladder and incontinence medications, when should withdrawal be considered?

A

If:
1) dizziness
2) confusion
3) blurred vision
4) drowsiness
5) Increased QT-interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

STOPPFall:
Which diuretic is more fall-risk increasing than other diuretics?

A

Loop diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which antidepressant is more fall-risk increasing than other antidepressants?

A

TCAs- tricyclic antidepressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

List 3 aspects that is missing from Medication Appropriateness Index

A

1) Untreated indications
2) Adverse Drug Reactions
3) Failure to receive drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What constitutes a DRP? (2 points)

A

1) Drug-related
2) Affect outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

List the 5 classifications of DRP

A

1) Indication related
2) Dose-related
3) Interactions
4) Adverse drug reactions
5) Failure to receive drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

List 3 barriers for appropriate medicines to reach patients

A

1) Non-adherence
2) Poor technique
3) Inappropriate storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

List the 5 domains of the Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment

A

1) Functional status
2) Medical
3) Mental
4) Medication/Nutrition
5) Socioeconomic resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Under the functional status domain of the Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment, list 5 components of basic activities of daily living (recall: DEATH)

A

1) Dressing
2) Eating
3) Ambulating (transfer)
4) Toileting
5) Hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Under the functional status domain of the Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment, list 7 components of Instrumental Activities of Daily living (recall: SHAFTTT)

A

1) Shopping
2) Housekeeping
3) Accounting
4) Food
5) Taking meds
6) using Telephone
7) taking Transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Must all older adults receive Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment

A

No. CGA is most beneficial for older adults who are at least CFS 4 and above, but not more than 8-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Under the ABCDEF framework, what does A stands for?

A

Accurate diagnosis of dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Under the ABCDEF framework, what does B stands for?

A

Behavioural and psychological symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Under the ABCDEF framework, what does C stands for?

A

Caregiver stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Under the ABCDEF framework, what does D stands for?

A

Drug and disabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Under the ABCDEF framework, what does E stands for?

A

End-of-life discussion and Equipment

58
Q

Under the ABCDEF framework, what does F stands for?

A

Financial supports

59
Q

What are the 4 components to the pharmaceutical care framework?

A

1) What matters most/important to patient
2) Explicit criteria/high alert medicines
3) Implicit criteria
4) Successful delivery of appropriate drugs

60
Q

Why must we care about PK and PD changes in older adults? (4)

A

1) Less oldest adults in trials
2) Healthier older adults recruited
3) Affect Generalizability
4) Knowledge of PK/PD changes help optimize pharmacotherapy in older adults

61
Q

Why do PK and PD changes occur in older adults? (3)

A

1) Physiological changes associated with normal aging
2) Effects of co-morbidities
3) Effects of medications

62
Q

Comment on the relationship between reduced gastric secretion and age, which might cause PK changes for absorption in older adults

A

Gastric acid secretion is not reduced by age alone if mucosal atrophy is absent

Reduced gastric acid secretion is usually due to mucosal atrophy and not by age

63
Q

List 3 types of vitamins and minerals whose absorption is reduced by gastric acid suppression therapy, and what disease condition it can manifest
(ref: PK changes- absorption in older adults, oral route)

A

1) Vitamin B12: deficiency, anemai
2) Calcium: fractures, osteoporosis
3) Iron: anemia

64
Q

List 5 examples of medications whose absorption can be affected by use of gastric acid suppression therapy
(Ref: PK changes-absorption in older adults, oral route)

A

1) Itraconzaole (up to 85% reduction): can be overcome through using IV/oral suspension
2) Ketoconazole (up to 64-66% reduction): rarely used, mostly for hormonal indications
3) Erlotinib (Tarceva)
4) Dasatinib (Sprycel)
5) Nilotinib

Note: 3,4,5 are cancer therapies, not all -tinibs are affected by gastric acid suppression therapy

65
Q

Comment on the prolonged gastrointestinal transit time in old age which might affect absorption in older adults
(ref: PK changes: absorption-oral route)

A

1) Unable to separate the effects of diseases and/or drugs on this parameter: prolonging of transit time not due to aging alone, but due to certain diseases e.g. gastroparesis & medications e.g. anti-spasmodics, opioids, anti-cholinergics

2) Same oral bioavailability: extent of absorption not affected

3) Theoretical risk that 1/2 hour wait may not be enough for risedronate/alendronate: may make it less effective, or increase risk of esophageal ulceration; need to give time for meds to go into small intestine for absorption to happen

66
Q

Recall what is first-pass metabolism
(ref: PK changes: absorption- oral route)

A

Metabolism in the intestines and liver before the drugs get absorbed from small intestines to systemic circulation

67
Q

Comment on what type of transport is p-glycoprotein and its relation with age on absorption
(ref: PK changes: absorption- oral route)

A

P-gp: efflux transporter: binds to drugs and push it back to the lumen, reducing absorption

Age: no change for most drugs on the account of age alone

68
Q

List 2 examples of DDIs that can occur as a result on the drugs effects on p-gp activity

A

1) Phenytoin is a p-gp inducer, and may affect dexamethasone’s bioavailability from 84% to 33%

2) Carbamazepine is a p-gp inhibitor, and can increase the Cmax of digoxin by 84% and levels of the drug by 64% -> increased risk of S.E and toxicity

69
Q

Comment on the effects of aging on absorption of drugs via the transdermal route (4)

A

1) Epidermis and dermis thins when ones ages
2) Cutaneous blood supply drops with aging
3) The former increases transdermal absorption, the latter reduces absorption
4) effect of age on transdermal absorption of drugs hard to characterize

70
Q

What is a key factor that can increase transdermal drug delivery and list 3 drug examples

A

Heat can increase drug delivery via transdermal route; rate of drug delivery depends on ambient heat e.g. heat could increase due to fever -> serious harm, even death may result as it can increase passive diffusion and blood supply
1) Fentanyl patch
2) Exelon patch (rivastigmine)
3) Nitroglycerin patch

71
Q

Comment on the effects of aging on distribution in older adults (4)

A

1) Total body water and lean muscle mass drops

2) Fat increases

3) Effects on distribution depends on physical properties of drugs

4) Serum albumin and alpha-1 acid glycoprotein:
- aging associated with 10-15% decrease in serum albumin, more if sick (due to increased inflammation)
- alpha-1 acid glycoprotein increases with age but mainly because of illness
- the above changes are not clinically important- in terms of pharmacological actions of the drug

72
Q

Comment on the interpretation of phenytoin level (5)
(ref: PK changes- distribution)

A

1) In adults, 90-95% phenytoin bound to serum albumin

2) Only free phenytoin is pharmacologically active

3) When serum albumin drops, free concentration increases transiently

4) All factors being constant, free concentration drops to the same level before serum albumin decreases -> same free concentration but total concentration drops

5) Conclusion: phenytoin levels need to be interpreted in conjunction with serum albumin -> phenytoin albumin correction

73
Q

Comment on the interpretation of sodium valproate

(ref: PK changes- distribution)

A

Hypoalbuminemia also associated with falsely suppressed total valproic acid concentration, but no established formula for correction

When it comes to interpreting sodium valproate levels, it is better to interpret the free serum concentration level than using formula or total concentration -> usually hospitals dont have the capacity to do so

74
Q

List the barriers to drug distribution into the CNS (2)

A

1) Blood-brain-barrier
2) P-glycoprotein: efflux protein

75
Q

Comment on the effects of aging on drug distribution into the CNS/brain (4)
(ref: PK changes: distribution)

A

1) More leaky BBB in old age (meta-analysis)
2) Dementia associated with more porous BBB than aging alone (meta analysis)
3) P-gp activity lower in elderly (small study)
4) Leaky BBB in old age increase the risk of adverse drug reactions
- elderly more sensitive to CNS side effects of anticholinergic drugs

76
Q

List 2 examples of CYP enzymes that is affected by fluconazole
(ref: PK changes: distribution)

A

1) CYP2C9 inhibition
2) CYP3A4 inhibition at higher doses

77
Q

Metabolism mainly occurs in which organ and what are its effects? (4)
(ref: pk changes- metabolism)

A

Organ: liver

1) Inactivate and facilitate elimination
2) Activate (for prodrugs -> active metabolite)
3) Toxic metabolite e.g. paracetamol (NAPQI due to CYP2E1, which is induced by alcohol)

78
Q

List the 2 types of metabolism and state the major enzyme for each type of metabolism
(ref: pk changes- metabolism)

A

1) Phase I: Cytochrome P450 enzymes
- 15 CYP enzymes, 3A4 most abundant

2) Phase II: conjugation such as glucuronidation, acetylation, sulfation
- major enzyme: uridine 5’diphospho glucoronyltransferase (UGT)

79
Q

Comment on the effects of aging on phase I metabolism (4)
(ref: pk changes- metabolism)

A

Phase 1 metabolism lower with age:
1) Mainly due to reduced liver mass, hepatic blood flow and thickening of sinusoidal endothelium

2) CYP enzyme may not be affected by aging alone

3) Frailty may reduce activity of CYP enzymes through increased inflammation

4) Drug-induced inhibition and induction important
- inhibitor: azoles, clarithromycin, cimetidine
- inducers: phenytoin, carbamazepine, rifampicin

80
Q

Comment on the effects of aging on phase II metabolism (3)
(ref: pk changes- metabolism)

A

Phase II metabolism largely unchanged with age
1) enzyme itself may not be affected by age alone
2) but quantity dropped with smaller liver
3) frailty caused more drop as it affects enzyme activity (reduces enzyme activity)

81
Q

Comment on the effects of aging on excretion (4)
(ref: pk changes: excretion)

A

1) Kidney is the most important organ in drug/metabolites elimination

2) Decline in kidney function occurs with age

3) Many diseases/drugs prevalent in old age contributes to the decline

4) Even robust elderly with good kidney functions less likely to recover after an insult (e.g. AKI), due to less physical reserve in kidneys in elderly:
- high prevalence of chronic dehydration among community dwelling patients who sough help at an Emergency Department:
- prostaglandin/ angiotensin II important to maintain GFR
- caution with NSAIDs/Coxib/ACEi/ Diuretics

82
Q

Comment on the altered pharmacodynamic in elderly patients (4)
(ref: PD changes)

A

1) Change in receptor sensitivity, post-receptor signaling system, and/or homeostatic mechanism
- e.g. reduced sensitivity of baroreflex -> less likely to respond to postural drop in BP

2) Elderly are more sensitive to CNS suppressant such as benzodiazepine

3) Dementia reduces cholinergic reserves and increases CNS side effects of anticholinergics

4) Neuroleptics (antipsychotic) Sensitivity Reaction in patients with DLB/PDD:
- sedation, confusion, increase in Parkinsonism, cognitive decline, higher death rate
- NO metoclopramide, promethazine, prochlorperazine, antipsychotics (except low-dose quetiapine)

83
Q

What is Geriatric Syndrome? (3)

A

In general, it includes conditions that are:
1) Prevalent in elderly population e.g. frailty
2) Impairments in multiple organ system
3) Negative impact on QOL, functional status and mortality

84
Q

List 5 examples of Geriatric Syndromes

A

1) Frailty
2) Falls
3) Dizziness
4) Delirium
5) Urinary incontinence

85
Q

What are the 5 physical characteristics of older adults with Frailty according to the Fried Frailty Tool?

A

1) Weak: poor hand grip strength, difficulty walking up 1 flight of stairs

2) Slow walking: >6-7s to walk 10 feet

3) Low physical activity

4) Weight loss: 5% or more weight loss in the last year

5) Exhaustion: positive answer to whether they feel fatigued when performing daily activities

86
Q

List the criteria of pre-fail and frail according to the Fried Frailty Tool

A

1-2 characteristics present: pre-fail
3 or more characteristics present: frail

Note: more suitable for research than clinical use, need patient participation and specialized equipment

87
Q

Explain the hypothesized model of frailty

A

1) Immunosenescence, dysfunctional immune system -> old cells stays in the body -> immune system reacts to it -> increased inflammation

2) Impaired physiologic systems:
- Increased inflammation leads to: increased CRP and IL-6

  • Neuroendocrine dysregulation leads to: reduced IGF-1. DHEA-S and increased cortisol levels (however, replacing these hormones does not help with frailty)
    => anorexia, sarcopenia, osteopenia, reduced immune function, cognition and glucose metabolism, increased clotting

3) Clinical Frailty:
- slowness
- weakness
- Weight loss
- low activity
- fatigue

88
Q

List down the components of the FRAIL scale to identify frailty and its criteria for pre-fail and frail

A

1) Fatigue: have you felt fatigue most of the time over the past month? yes=1, no=0

2) Resistance: do you have difficulty climbing 1 flight of stairs? yes=1, no=0

3) Ambulation: do you have difficulty walking one block (80m)? yes=1, no=0

4) Illness: HTN, DM, Cancer (other than minor skin CA), chronic lung disease, asthma, heart attack, CHF, angina, stroke, arthritis, and kidney disease; >5 = 1, otherwise =0

5) Loss of weight: have you lost more than 5% of your weight in the past year? yes=1, no=0

Pre-fail= 1-2; frail=3 or higher

89
Q

Under the clinical frailty scale (CFS), explain what does CFS 4 denotes

A

Pre-fail (mild frailty), functionally independent (can do iADLs), but symptoms of chronic illnesses are affecting activity tolerance

90
Q

Under the clinical frailty scale (CFS), explain what does CFS 5 denotes

A

Need assistance for all or some of the iADLs

91
Q

Under the clinical frailty scale (CFS), explain what does CFS 6 denotes

A

Need assistance for all outside activities and some of the basic ADLs (e.g. dressing, bathing)

92
Q

Under the clinical frailty scale (CFS), explain what does CFS 7 denotes

A

Clinically stable but FULLY dependent for personal care

93
Q

Under the clinical frailty scale (CFS), explain what does CFS 8 denotes

A

Nearing end of life and FULLY dependent for personal care

94
Q

Under the clinical frailty scale (CFS), explain what does CFS 9 denotes

A

Terminally ill (<6 months) but not severely frail

95
Q

List 3 main interventions for frailty

A

1) Physical exercise/ occupational therapy

2) Nutritional intake, with oral nutritional supplement (milk feeds) if necessary
- medication side effects (appetite, anticholinergics, sense of taste, sedation)
- depression
- access to food
- feeding assisted
- chewing/ swallowing
- unnecessary dietary restriction

3) Medication Review
- DRPs affecting ability to take part in physiotherapy/ occupational therapy and adequate nutritional intake
- vitamin D supplementation

96
Q

List 3 main questions to consider to assess fall risk

A

1) Fall in the past 12 months?
2) Gait & balance impaired? e.g. feel like falling or not?
3) any concerns on falling?

-> if yes to any of the 3 qns, risk of future falls

97
Q

List the mechanisms of harms for Fall Risk Increasing Drugs (FRIDs)

A

1) Sedation
2) Orthostatic hypotension
3) Anticholinergics
4) Hypoglycemia

98
Q

What is the explicit criteria for FRIDs?

A

STOPPFall

99
Q

Under STOPPFall, list 4 examples of classes of medications that can induce orthostatic hypotension

A

1) Alpha-blockers
2) Central antihypertensives
3) Vasodilators
4) Diuretics

100
Q

Under the explicit criteria for FRIDs, list 7 common classes of medications

A

1) Opioids
2) Antipsychotics
3) Antidepressants
4) Benzodiazepines/ Z-drugs
5) Anticonvulsants
6) First gen antihistamines (anticholinergic)
7) Muscle relaxants (anticholinergic)

101
Q

List the 4 types of dizziness

A

1) Vertigo: objects are spinning

2) Pre-syncopal dizziness: assoc/w change in posture e.g. postural hypotension

3) Dysequilibrium: lightheadedness/ unsteadiness when patients is walking about

4) Unspecified dizziness: older adults can have more than 1 type of dizziness; not enough to determine cause(s)

102
Q

Explain the TiTraTE approach to evaluating dizziness

A

1) Ti: Timing, i.e. continuous or episodic (onset, frequency, duration)

2) Tr: Triggers, i.e. head movement, posture change etc.

3) TE: targeted examination

103
Q

Under targeted examination of TiTraTE to evaluate dizziness, what is the assessment used to differentiate between episodic triggered dizziness, and what are the 2 dizziness that can be distinguished from this assessment?

A

Assessment: Dix-Hallpike maneuver

Positive results: benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

Negative results: orthostatic hypotension

104
Q

Under targeted examination of TiTraTE to evaluate dizziness, what is the assessment used to differentiate between episodic spontaneous dizziness, and what are the 3 dizziness that can be distinguished from this assessment?

A

Assessment: further history taking

  • Unilateral hearing loss/ sensation of ear fullness: Meniere’s disease
  • Migraine headache: vestibular migraine
  • Psychiatric symptoms: panic attack etc.
105
Q

Under targeted examination of TiTraTE to evaluate dizziness, what is a common cause of continuous vestibular dizziness?

A

Trauma/ toxin (drugs) e.g. dizziness intensity is assoc/w peak of drug

106
Q

Under targeted examination of TiTraTE to evaluate dizziness, what is the assessment used to differentiate between spontaneous dizziness, and what are the 2 dizziness that can be distinguished from this assessment?

A

HINTs exam (Head impulse/ Nystagmus/ Test of Skew)

  • Central: Stroke/TIA
  • Peripheral: vestibular neuronitis e.g. caused by viral infection
107
Q

Discuss if vestibular suppressants should be used for symptomatic relief of all dizziness

A

Symptomatic relief of dizziness by using vestibular suppressants should only be given if vestibular symptoms are prolong (>30 minutes); almost all vestibular suppressants are Beers List drugs, timely review is required

108
Q

List 7 classes of vestibular suppressants and give examples for each class

A

1) First- gen antihistamine: dimenhydrinate, diphenhydramine, meclizine

2) Anticholinergic: scopolamine (hysocine hydrobromide)

3) Phenothiazines: prochlorperazine / promethazine (note: additional antidopaminergic effects, avoid in pts with parkinson disease)

4) Benzodiazepines: clonazepam, diazepam, lorazepam; more sedating, fall risk, can cause cognitive impairment, depression when used long term

5) Antidpoaminergic: metoclopramide; contraindicated in PD, DLB, PD dementia; for n/v; alternative: ondansetron

6) Calcium channel antagonists: cinnarizine; increasing circulation in cochlear; sedating, weight gain due to antihistaminergic effect; caution in patients with Parkinsonism

7) Histamine analogues: betahistine; type 3 histamine receptor antagonist, partial agonist at H1 receptor, negligible agonism at H2 receptor; caution in Asthma (can cause bronchospasm); CI if active/ history of PUD

109
Q

Which geriatric syndrome is also a geriatric medical emergency?

A

Delirium

110
Q

What are the subtypes of delirium?

A

1) Hyperactive delirium
- agitation
- inattentiveness
- psychosis (delusions/ hallucinations)

2) Hypoactive delirium
- slow response
- increased sedation

111
Q

What are the risk factors for delirium? (4)

A

1) Age 65 years or older
2) Cognitive impairment (past/present) and/or dementia
3) Current hip fracture
4) Severe illness

112
Q

List down the components of 4AT for detection of delirium (4)

A

1) Level of Alertness
2) Abbreviated mental test 4 (AMT4): DOB, Age, Place, Current year
3) Attention: asking patients to subtract for non-eng speakers, recite months backwards for english speakers
4) Acuity

113
Q

List down the common etiologies of delirium (IWATCHDEATH)

A

I: Infectious

W: Withdrawal (alcohol, benzodiazepines, barbiturates)

A: Acute metabolic disorder (electrolyte imbalance, hepatic or renal failure)

T: Trauma (head injury, postoperative)

C: CNS pathology (stroke, hemorrhage, tumour, seizure disorders, Parkinson’s)

H: Hypoxia (anemia, cardiac failure, pulmonary embolus)

D: Deficiencies (vitamin B12, folic acid, thiamine)

E: Endocrinopathies (thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, glucose)

A: Acute vascular (shock, vasculitis, hypertensive encephalopathy)

T: Toxins, substance use, medication (alcohol, anesthetics, anticholinergics, narcotics)

H: Heavy metals (arsenic, mercury, lead)

114
Q

List 5 classes of drugs known to increase risk of delirium, and remark on its use

A

1) Anticholinergics (e.g. anarex, chlorpheniramine, diphenhydramine)
- remarks on use: if newly started, to stop; avoid use, unless when diphenhydramine is used for severe allergic reactions

2) Benzodiazepines (e.g. lorazepam, alprazolam):
- remarks on use: DO NOT cease chronic BZDs abruptly, especially if used for seizure, sleep disorders, and anxiety; not first line for insomnia

3) Z-drugs (e.g. zolpidem, zopiclone)
- remarks on use: not first line for insomnia

4) Opioids (especially pethidine)
- remarks on use: consider regular paracetamol; consider regular bowel regimen; avoid pethidine (v. neurotoxic metabolite tt will accumulate in elderly with poor kidney function); start low and go slow; consider dose reduction or opioid rotation

5) H2 receptor antagonist (e.g. famotidine, ranitidine):
- remarks on use: if delirious, use PPI if no contraindications; if PPI not possible, use famotidine at renally adjusted dose (has least degree of anticholinergic effect)

115
Q

What is the first line approach to managing delirium? List 5 examples

A

Prevention:
- sensory functions optimization
- hydration/nutrition
- bowel movement/ urination
- early mobility
- pain control
- medication review
- social interaction with loved ones
- reorientation with clock/ calendar/ proper lighting
- conducive environment
- promote goof sleep
- address infection/ hypoxia

116
Q

Comment on the use of pharmacotherapy for agitation in delirium and hypoactive delirium

A

Hyperactive delirium: Should be used as a last resort if behaviors are a danger; if agitation is not a problem in terms of safety of patients and caregiver, do not need to treat it

Hypoactive delirium: don’t treat, instead, withdraw as many CNS suppressants as possible, treat underlying cause if possible

117
Q

List 3 types of antipsychotics that is used for treatment of agitation in delirium, state its dose and maximum dose

A

1) Haloperidol (SC/IM/PO): 0.3mg-1mg BD; up to 5mg/day (non-ICU)
- CI: Prolonged QTC, parkinsonism (incl, DLB, PDD)

2) Quetiapine (PO): 6.25-12.5mg BD, up to 100mg/day (PD friendly)

3) Olanzapine (PO, orodispersible): 1.25mg-2.5mg, up to 10mg/day (safest QTC wise)

118
Q

Comment on the use of benzodiazepine for agitation in delirium, give 1 example with dose

A
  • 1st-line for alcohol/benzo withdrawal
  • Alternative if antipsychotic not safe. benzo may prolong delirium
  • Lorazepam (PO/IV/SC): 0.5-1mg
  • BZDs may cause paradoxical agitation -> pt may become more agitated/ alert
119
Q

What are the prerequisites for urinary continence? (2)

A

1) Normally functioning lower urinary tracts
2) adequate physical and cognitive functions to use toilets

120
Q

Explain what happens during the bladder filling phase in those with normal lower urinary tract (3)

A

1) Sympathetic nervous system activated/ parasympathetic nervous system blocked

2) beta-3 adrenergic receptors activated -> bladder relaxation

3) alpha-1 adrenergic receptor activated -> tightening of bladder outlet/ urethra

121
Q

Explain what happens during the bladder voiding phase in those with normal lower urinary tract (2)

A

1) Sympathetic nervous system blocked/ parasympathetic nervous system activated

2) M3 receptor in the bladder activated -> bladder contraction
(acetylcholine released from the system will act on M3 receptors)

122
Q

List the 4 types of Urinary incontinence and define it respectively

A

1) Stress: involuntary loss of urine (small amounts) with increased intraabdominal pressure e.g. coughing, laughing, exercise

2) Urge: leakage of urine (can be large volumes) because of inability to delay voiding after sensation of bladder fullness is perceived

3) Overflow: leakage of urine (small amounts) caused by either mechanical forces on an overdistended bladder (resulting in stress leakage) or other effects of urinary retention on bladder and sphincter function (contributing to urge leakage)

4) Functional: urinary accidents assoc/w the inability to toilet because of impairment of cognitive and or physical functioning, psychological unwillingness, or environmental barriers

123
Q

List the common causes of stress urinary incontinence (3)

A

1) weak pelvic floor muscles (childbirth, pregnancy, menopause)

2) bladder outlet or urethral sphincter weakness

3) post-urologic surgery

124
Q

List the common causes of urge urinary incontinence (3)

A

1) detrusor overactivity, either isolated or assoc/w 1 or more of the following:

2) local genitourinary conditions (e.g. tumours, stones, diverticula, outflow obstruction)

3) CNS disorder (e.g. stroke, parkinsonism, dementia, spinal cord injury)

125
Q

List common causes of overflow urinary incontinence (4)

A

1) Anatomic obstruction by prostate, stricture, cystocele

2) Acontractile bladder assoc/w diabetes or spinal cord injury

3) Neurogenic assoc/w multiple sclerosis or other spinal cord lesions

4) Medication effect

126
Q

List common causes of functional urinary incontinence (2)

A

1) Severe dementia or other neurologic disorder

2) psychological factors e.g. depression and hostility

127
Q

List the differential diagnosis of transient causes of urinary incontinence (DIAPPERS)

A

D: Delirium
I: Infection e.g. acute UTI
A: Atrophic vaginitis
P: Pharmaceuticals
P: Psychological disorder, esp. depression
E: Excessive urine output e.g. hyperglycemia
R: Reduced mobility (i.e. functional incontinence) or reversible (e.g. drug-induced) urinary retention
S: Stool impaction

128
Q

List 2 classes of allergy medications that could contribute to urinary incontinence and its respective effect on bladder function

A

1) Antihistamine: decreased contractility via anticholinergic effect

2) Decongestants (e.g. pseudoephedrine): increased urethral sphincter tone

129
Q

List 2 classes of analgesic and sedatives that could contribute to urinary incontinence and its respective effect on bladder function

A

1) Benzodiazepines: impaired micturition via muscle relaxant effect

2) Opioids: decreased sensation of fullness and increased urethral sphincter tone

130
Q

List 3 classes of anticholinergic medications that could contribute to urinary incontinence and its respective effect on bladder function

A

1) Antimuscarinics (e.g. solifenacin, oxybutynin)

2) Spasmolytic (e.g. scopolamine, hyoscyamine)

3) Anticholinergics (antiparkinson medications) e.g. benztropine, trihexylphenidyl

Effects: ALL 3 classes decrease contractility via anticholinergic effect

131
Q

List 5 classes of cardiology medications that could contribute to urinary incontinence and its respective effect on bladder function

A

1) ACE-inhibitors: decrease contractility, chronic coughing

2) Alpha-agonists (e.g. midodrine, phenylephrine, vasopressors): increased urethral sphincter tone

3) Alpha1-blockers (e.g. alfuzosin, tamsulosin): decrease urethral sphincter tone; can worsen stress incontinence

4) Antiarrhythmic (e.g. flecainide, disopyramide): decreased contractility via local anesthetic effect on bladder mucosa or anticholinergic effect

5) Diuretics: increased urine production, contractility, or rate of emptying

132
Q

List 2 classes of antidepressants that could contribute to urinary incontinence and its respective effect on bladder function

A

1) SNRIs (e.g. duloxetine): increased urethral sphincter tone; used for stress incontinence

2) TCAs (e.g. amitriptyline, clomipramine): decreased contractility via anticholinergic effect

133
Q

List 2 class of antipsychotics that could contribute to urinary incontinence and its respective effect on bladder function

A

1) First-generation (e.g. chlorpromazine)

2) second-gen antipsychotics (e.g. risperidone, olanzapine)

Effects (for both): mixed effects described; decreased contractility via anticholinergic effect, increased micturition and stress incontinence via stimulation of alpha1 receptors and/or central dopaminergic receptors

Note: other antipsychotics have lower effect

134
Q

List 3 class of other medications that could contribute to urinary incontinence and its respective effect on bladder function

A

1) Skeletal muscle relaxants (e.g. orphenadrine): decreased contractility via anticholinergic effect

2) Estrogens (oral): increased urinary incontinence [NOTE: topical estrogen can help in UI]

3) Beta3-agonist (e.g. mirabegron): decreased contractility via beta3-adrenergic effect; cause relaxation of bladder

135
Q

List 2 types of food that could contribute to urinary incontinence and its respective effect on bladder function

A

1) Alcohol: decreased contractility

2) Caffeine: increased contractility or rate of emptying; also an irritant, diuretic; stimulates bladder detrusor muscle, bladder contracts more easily -> not gd for pts with overactive bladder

136
Q

List the management strategies for stress urinary incontinence (4)

A

1) Kegel’s exercise

2) Topical estrogen (may take up to 3 months for action onset, need counselling)

3) Duloxetine: especially if depression present, but not for patients with crcl < 30ml/min

4) Surgery/devices (not advisable for frail elderly)

137
Q

List the management strategies for urge urinary incontinence (7)

A

1) Kegel’s exercise

2) Treat BPH (men)

3) Topical estrogen (delayed onset)

4) Beta-3 adrenergic receptor agonist: mirabegron, vibegron

5) Antimuscarinic agents: anticholinergic side effects (ensure pt post void residual urine is not too high as these meds ca cause acute urinary retention); M3-selective agents e.g. solifenacin (has M2-blocking activity, might affect cognitive fxn), darifenacin (NA in SG) preferred

6) Botulinum toxin injection

7) Sacral nerve stimulation etc.

138
Q

List the management strategies for overflow urinary incontinence

A

Bladder outlet obstruction:
1) men: normally BPH (treat accordingly), rare causes include stricture, malignancy, stone etc. -> specialist
2) women: normally structural e.g. uterine prolapse -> specialist
3) Bowel habit optimization

Bladder underactivity:
1) Men: bethanechol (cholinergic agent) may help in patients with spinal cord injury, clean intermittent catheterization (usually only for women due to pain)

2) Women: clean intermittent catheterization +/- bethanecol

139
Q

List the different types of elder abuse (5)

A

1) Physical e.g. chemical/ physical restraint
2) Sexual
3) Psychological
4) Neglect
5) Financial

140
Q

What are some risk factors from patient’s perspective that puts them at risk of abuse? (3)

A

1) Dementia, esp. BPSD (caregiver stress)

2) Physical disability

3) Poor relationship with caregiver pre-morbidly

141
Q

What are some risk factors from caregiver’s perspective that puts them at risk of elder abuse? (4)

A

1) Caregiver dependent on victims for material gains e.g. food/shelter/money

2) Caregiver with mental health issues e.g. depression, substance use dsorders

3) Overwhelmed caregivers e.g. overworked professional caregiver

4) Caregiver who is victim of domestic violence