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GP > Geriatrics > Flashcards

Geriatrics Flashcards

1
Q

In Geriatrics, what is the most common definition of multimorbidity?

A

2 or more chronic medical conditions

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2
Q

The prevalence of multimorbidity in the geriatric population increases with the presence of which 3 factors?

A

Increasing age, socioecenomic deprivation and female gender

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3
Q

What is the definition of hyper-polypharmacy?

A

15 or more medications

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4
Q

Most people die from chronic diseases that progress along one or three typical illness trajectories. Name these.

A

Cancer (short decline), non-malignant organ failure (intermediated decline with acute episodes), frailty and dementia (gradual dwindling)

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5
Q

True or false? In States with voluntary assisted dying, the process for requesting this by the patient is separate from, and cannot be included in advanced care planning or palliative care

A

.True

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6
Q

Name the 3 major transition points of care along any illness trajectory (with regards to palliative care)

A
  1. Early identification of palliaitve care needs and initiation of a palliative approach, 2. Reassessment of palliative care needs and initiation of end-of-life-care plan, 3. Identifying dying and initiation of terminal care plan, planning for after-death care and bereavement support
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7
Q

What is the doctrine of double effect?

A

Law that recognises that giving medicines to a patient to relieve pain is lawful, even it it could hasten death

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8
Q

What is the recommended timeframe suggested for deprescribing long term benzodiazapines?

A

Very slow weaning program 10-15% per week. Sudden withdrawal may results in confusion, hallucinations and seizures.

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9
Q

What is the risk of suddenly deprescribing beta-blockers?

A

Can exacerbate angina or precipitate rebound hypertension, MI or ventricular arrythmias

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10
Q

What specific risk is associated with sudden deprescribing of levodopa?

A

Neuroleptic yndrome

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11
Q

What is the risk of suddenly deprescribing a PPI?

A

Hypersecretion of acid and aggravation of symptoms

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12
Q

What is the definition of polypharmacy?

A

The use of 5 or more drugs - including prescription, OTC, complementary and alternative medicines

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13
Q

What does the ‘prescribing cascade’ refer to?

A

Contributes to polypharamcy, where one medicine is begun to treat the adverse effects of another

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14
Q

List at least 6 medicines which should be used in caution with older people

A

Amiodarone, anticholinergics, antihistamines, pntispychotics, aspirin for primary prevention in people ages > 80, benzos, diuretics, fluoxetine, methyldopa, nitrofurantoin, NSAIDs, TCAs

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15
Q

What does ‘undiagnosis’ refer to in geriatric prescribing?

A

A process which facilitates the withdrawal of corresponding medicines used to manage conditions which are no longer relevant

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16
Q

List the 4 main discrete types of dementia

A

AD, vascular, frontotemporal, dementia with Lewy bodies

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17
Q

State the diagnostic criteria for dementia, as per the DSM V.

A

Major neurocognitive disorder - evidence of significant cognitive decline in 1+ cognitive domains (complex attention, executive function, learning, memory, language, perceptual motor or social cognition), based on concern of the individual, a knowledegable informant or clinician. Interferes with independence in every day activities, not because of delirium and not better explained by another mental disorder

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18
Q

List the 6 steps that are required for a GP to diagnose dementia

A

Cognitive function test, pathology tests, imaging, assessment for depression, medication review, functional assessment

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19
Q

List at least 3 cognitive function tests for the diagnosis of dementia, as recommended in the RACGP red book

A

Standardised mini mental state (SMMSE), GP assessment of cognitition (GPCog), Clock drawing test, Rowland universal denetial assessment scale (RUDAS), Kimberley indigenous cognitive assessment (KICA), modified KICA

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20
Q

List the pathology tests required in the diagnosis of dementia (to exclude medical cause of cognitive decline)

A

CBE, biochemistry with electrolytes, calcium, glucose, UEC, LFT, TFT, B12, folate (syphillis and HIV can be considered in specific cases)

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21
Q

Which imaging investigation is required for the workup of dementia?

A

At least CT brain to exclude tumour/SDH etc., and CXR may be needed to rule out chest pathology causing a delirium

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22
Q

True or false? ANtidepressants do not work well for depression in the presence of dementia

A

True. A trial of antidepressants may be warranted if depression seems to be the cause of cognitive decline. However, in patients with dementia AND depresssion, these medications don’t work well for the depression but can be helpful for agitation

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23
Q

Which class of antidepressants are commonly recommended for patients with dementia? Which is the most effective?

A

SSRIs (ciralopram the most effective) - start with half the usual adult dose and increase as tolerated

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24
Q

When commencing an antidepressant for a patient with dementia, what should be assessed after a fortnight?

A

Serum sodium, as can cause hyponatraemia

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25
Q

True or false? Endep is one of the antidepressants recommended for patients with dementia

A

False - highly anti cholinergic antidepressants should be avoided because of their adverse effect on cognition

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26
Q

There is growing evidence for which secondary prevention strategies in dementia?

A

Mediterranean diet, regular exercise and social contact - may alleviate symptoms and slow progression

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27
Q

Name the 3 medications that are used to manage symptoms of dementia. What class of drug do these belong to?

A

Donepazil, rivastigmine, galantamine. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.

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28
Q

In which type of dementia should acetylcholinesterase inhibitors not be used and why?

A

FTD because of severe side effects and potential to exacerbate BPSD

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29
Q

What are the prescribing requirements for acetylcholinesterase inhibitors in Australia for dementia?

A

Initial prescription on PBS for AZ, must be prescribed in consultation with a geriatrician or psychiatrist. To continue, need evidence of clinical improvement during the first 6 months

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30
Q

Explain why an ECG should be done at baseline for any patient with dementia who is being prescribed an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

A

Because heart block is a rare but serious adverse event

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31
Q

List at least 5 adverse effects of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

A

NAusea, vomiting, diarrrhoea, dizziness, increased urinary incontinence and frequency, falls, muscle cramps, weight loss, anorexia, headache, insomnia

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32
Q

What type of medicine is mementine and when may it be used?

A

NMDA receptor antagonist, which may be used for moderate to severe alzheimers

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33
Q

Name the 3 models of BPSD in dementia

A
  1. Unmet need, 2. Loweres stress threshold, 3. Biological model
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34
Q

Antipsychotic medication can be effective in BPSD, particularly for behaviours that have been precipitated by ______

A

Hallucinations/delusions

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35
Q

List at least 4 specific indications for antipsychotic medications in the elderly

A

Depression, anxiety, psychotic symptoms, motor activity and aggression - or “those with BPSD who cause significant distress to themselves or others”

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36
Q

Name at least 2 important side effects to carefully monitor for when starting and older person on an antipsychotic medication

A

Sedation, postural hypotension and Parkinsonism

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37
Q

In what situation is it appropriate to prescribe an antipsychotic as a PRN order for older people?

A

Only when weaning - it is discouraged at other times

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38
Q

Which antipsychotic has been approved by the PBS for the management of BPSD? How often should this medication be reviewed?

A

Risperidone, review every 1-3 months

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39
Q

List the pros and cons of Risperidone compared to other antipsychotics for the management of BPSD

A

Fewer seriour adverse seide effects overall and is better tolerated, but can cause extrapyrimydal side effects, drowsiness, hypotension, hyperglycaemia and increased risk of CVA

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40
Q

Why are conventional antipsychotics (i.e., haloperidol) not recommended for the treatment of BPSD?

A

Because of lack of evidence and common occurrence of extrapyrimydal side effects and sedative anticholinergic side effects (cannot be used in patients with LBD or Parkinson’s)

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41
Q

List the pros and cons of using benzodiazepines in patients with BPSD

A

Can exacerbate cognitive impairment and increase the risk of falls and injury, but can sometimes be helpful in severe anxiety and agitation. Oxazepam is the benzo of choice.

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42
Q

What is the benzodiazepine of choice in BPSD and why?

A

Oxazepam, due to its short half-life and uncomplicated metabolism

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43
Q

Give at least 4 examples of behviours in BPSD which do not respond to antipsychotics

A

Undressing in public, calling out, restlessness, day-night reversal, inappropriate voiding or verbal aggression

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44
Q

True or false? Long term use of benzodiazapines can lead to long-term cognitive impairment and risk of dementia

A

.True

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45
Q

When initiating an antipsychotic for BPSD, what review schedule should be actioned?

A

Start at lowest dose, review within 1 week and set a reminder to review in 12 weeks with a plan to weane and cease if possible (good evidence that people won’t need long-term because the nature of BPSD is variable and symptoms can be intermittent and settle spontaneously)

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46
Q

Who can be called to for advice about BPSD?

A

Dementia Behaviour Management Advisory Service (DBMAS), or Severe Behaviour Response Team (SBRT)

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47
Q

To prescribe anti-resorption drugs for OP on the PBS, which criteria need to be met?

A

BMD with T score

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48
Q

Why are calcium and vitamin D important in the management of osteoporosis?

A

They are a preventative strategy in themselves, but there is also a risk of hypoclacemia during treatment if dietary calcium or Vit D stores are low

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49
Q

What stratergy can be used to avoid hypoclacemia when initiating denosumab for patients in RACF?

A

Replace Vit D and calcium prior to initiation, and monitor serum calcium 7-10 days after starting

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50
Q

When assessing chronic pain, what is the difference between baseline pain, flare up (intermittent) pain and incident pain?

A

Baseline pain is experienced constantly for longer than 12 hours/day. Flare-up pain is transient period of increased pain, and incident pain is that which occurs during an acitvity (i.e., turning in bed)

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51
Q

True or false? Chronic pain in the elderly is a condition in it’s own right and does not need to be secondary to a cause

A

.True

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52
Q

What is the origin of stimulus in nociceptive superficial pain? Give an example

A

Skin, subcutaneous tissue, mucosa of the nose/mouth/sinuses/urethra/anus. Examples includes pressure ulcers and stomatitis

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53
Q

What are the classical characteristic descriptions of nociceptive superficial pain (descrption, localisation, movement, referral, location, autonomic effects)

A

Hot, burning, stinging, does not refer. Local tenderness is present and is not affected by movement. No autonomic features are present

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54
Q

What is the origin of stimulus in nociceptive deep somatic pain? Give an example

A

Bone joints, muscles, tendons, ligaments, superficial lymph nodes, organs and capsules, mesothelial membranes. Examples are arthritis, liver capsule distension or inflammation

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55
Q

What are the classical characteristic descriptions of nociceptive deep somatic pain (descrption, localisation, movement, referral, location, autonomic effects)

A

Dull and aching, well defined to location of stimulus with local tenderness, worsening pain with movement, refers to other areas, no autonomic effects

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56
Q

What is the origin of stimulus in nociceptive visceral pain? Give an example

A

Solid or hollow organs, deep tumour masses, deep lymph nodes. Examples deep abdominal or chest masses, intestinal, biliary ureteric colic

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57
Q

What are the classical characteristic descriptions of nociceptive visceral pain (descrption, localisation, movement, referral, location, autonomic effects)

A

Dull and deep, poorly defined to the location of the stimuli, may have local tenderness. May improve with movement. Often refers. Autonomic features include nausea, vomiting, blood pressure and HR changes

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58
Q

What is the origin of stimulus in neuropathic pain? Give an example

A

Damage to nociceptive pathways. Examples: tumour related like brachial plexus tumours, chest wall invasion, spinal cord compression. Non-tumour related examples are postherpetic neuralgia, phantom pain etc.

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59
Q

What are the classical characteristic descriptions of neuropathic pain (descrption, localisation, movement, referral, location, autonomic effects)

A

Dysaesthesia with pins and needles, tingling, burning, lacinating, shooting. Can present with allodynia, phantom pain, numbness. Presents along the nerve or dermatome distribution. Nerve traction provokes pain. Tends to refer. Can be local tenderness. Autonomic instability including warmth, sweating, pallor, cold, cyanosis (all localised to the nerve pathway)

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60
Q

List the 3 types of pain assessment tools which can be used in RACFs

A

Self-report tools, observational behavioural tools and sensory testing tools

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61
Q

Which type of pain assessment tool is the gold-standard?

A

Self-report tools

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62
Q

Give at least 2 examples of physical therapies that a physiotherapist may recommend for pain in an older person

A

TENS, walking programs, strengthening exercsies and massage

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63
Q

Simple explain why foot orthotics can be helpful in the treatment of pain in older persons

A

Can change gait pattern and muscle activation and reduce joint loading

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64
Q

Explain why about 10% of people will not get analgesic benefit from codeine

A

Because these people lack the enzyme to covert codeine to active opioid form

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65
Q

What is the mechanism of action of tramadol?

A

Centrally acting analgesic, acts weekly on opioid receptors, inhibits noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake

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66
Q

What is the long-acting form of oxycodone?

A

Oxycontin

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67
Q

What is the preferred transdermal medication for older people with chronic pain?

A

Buprenorphine patches, slow release and safe in renal ailure and older people. Fentanyl patches should be reserved for ongoing severe pain, because it is very potent and long acting and thus the risk of relirium and respiratory depression is high

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68
Q

List some of the side effects of tricyclic antidepressants

A

Anticholinergic side effects including postural hypotension, sedation, constipation, urinary retention

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69
Q

In what setting may anticonvulsants such as carbemazapine be considered for pain management in older people?

A

For those with trigeminal neuralgia (with careful titration over time)

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70
Q

What side effects may occur with sudden withdrawal of pregabalin?

A

Anxiety, insomnia, headache, nausea and diarrhoea

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71
Q

For support of skin barrier function and connective tissue health and cell repair, what dietary factors should be encouraged in the elderly?

A

Zinc, Cit D, Vit C, adequate protein

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72
Q

Explain the changes in skin physiology that results in older people being more prone to heatstroke

A

The skin has reduced ability to sweat, and there is less surface area of blood vessels

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73
Q

Explain the changes in skin physiology that results in older people being more susceptible to cold

A

Thinning of subcutaneous fat

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74
Q

Explain why bruising is more common in older adults

A

Physiological loss of connective tissue and increasing blood vessel fragility, leading to less resistance to shearing forces and less resilience of the skin to knocks and scrapes (often worsened by NSAIDs, aspirin and blood thinners). These shearing forces in skin with loss of elasticity is also the cause of skin tears

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75
Q

What are the mainstays of treatment for senile pruritis?

A

Symptom relief with cold compresses supplemented by non-sedating antihistamines (and treating underlying causes)

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76
Q

Simpley describe the management of a skin tear in an older person

A

Where possible, the patient’s own skin flap should be used as a graft - after cleaning the area, the flap should be laid back in place and held in contact with the wound bed by using a firm dressing for several days

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77
Q

What should be considered in wounds or ulcers in the elderly that are clinically infected and non-healing?

A

Biopsy of the wound edge or a swab - cutaneous cancers can present in this way

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78
Q

List 2 types of medications that can result in SJS

A

Allopurinol, sulphur-based medications

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79
Q

What drugs are first-line in the treatment of anxiety in older people?

A

SSRIs and SNRIs

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80
Q

What is the diagnostic difference between mania and hypo mania?

A

Hypomania symptoms need to be present for at least 4 days, and 7 days for mania

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81
Q

The DSM V states that a diagnosis of schizophrenia can only be made with 2+ of the following has occurred for at least a month (name them) + one of the minor criteria (name them)

A

Major criteria: delusions, hallucinations, disorganised speech, grossly disorganised or catatonic behaviour, negative symptoms. Minor: impairment in work/relationships/self care, lasting for continuous 6 months, other causes ruled out

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82
Q

True or false? The presence of dementia itself is associated with a 50% higher risk of sepsis

A

.True

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83
Q

True or false? Fever may not be present in older people with sepsis

A

True - therefore a change in baseline should warrant attention

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84
Q

Give 2 examples of causes of fever in older people, aside from sepsis/infection

A

Gout, polymyalgia rheumatica

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85
Q

In which situation should an older person be treated for a UTI if they have an in-dwelling catheter?

A

Only if they have systemic symptoms/signs (as bacteruria is common in these patients)

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86
Q

Which 2 viruses are the most common causes of gastroenteritis in RACFs?

A

Rotavirus and norovirus

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87
Q

List at least 3 physiological parameters that are signifiantly impaired in those older people who experience recurrent falls

A

Reaction time, body sway, quadricept strength, virbration sense, visual contrast sensitivity

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88
Q

Comment on the quote mortality rates from hip fracture in older people

A

10% die within 1 month, 20% within 6 months and 33% within a year. Only 20% regain full mobility after a fall

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89
Q

List some of the consequences for older people who have a long lie following a fall

A

Hypothermia, bronchopneumonia, dehydration, pressure injuries, rhabdomyolysis and death

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90
Q

Explain what a positive Rhomberg’s test means

A

Test of proprioception, and a positive test is caused by proprioceptive dysfunction or vestibular dysfunction. If a person is unable to keep their balance when their eyes are closed, this means they have been using vision to compensate for the lack of sensory feedback received from the lower extremities (most people with cerebellar lesions won’t be able to maintain posture with visual cues)

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91
Q

Describe the timed up and go test for falls risk

A

Patient is instructed to stand, walk 3m, turn around and walk back and sit down. Most people will be able to do this in 10 seconds

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92
Q

What is frailty?

A

A sryndrome of physiological decline that occurs later in life and is associated with vulnerability to adverse health outcomes

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93
Q

List at least 5 risk factors associated with increased frailty

A

Older age, current smoker, lower educational level, use of HRT, depression, intellectual disability, ATSI, under nutrition, sedentary lifestyle, chronic disease, obesity

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94
Q

Decline in skeletal muscle function and mass in older people is a consequence of what changes?

A

Age-related hormonal changes and changes in inflammatory pathways (including inflammatory cytokines)

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95
Q

The following hormones all decrease with age, except for which one? Growth hormone, IGF-1, DHEA-S, cortisol, sex stroids, 25 (OH) Vitamin D

A

Cortisol

96
Q

How does decreasing DHEA-S (dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate) contribute to frailty in older age?

A

Plays direct role in maintaining muscle mass and prevents activation of inflammatory pathways that contribute to muscle decline

97
Q

There is evidence of strong correlation between frailty and bio markers of the innate immune system. Give some examples

A

Levels of pro-inflammatory IL-6 and CRP are elevated in older adults, and ILD-6 adversely affects skeletal muscle, appetite, adaptive immune system function and contributes to anaemia

98
Q

True or false? There is an association between frailty and clotting markers

A

True - Factor VII, fibrinogen and D-dimer

99
Q

List the 2 models of frailty

A

Frailty phenotype model (underlying biological basis) and Frailty Index (cumulative deficit model)

100
Q

List at least 3 interventions for frailty that have some efficacy

A

Exercise (resistance + aerobic), caloric and protein support, Vit D supplementation if deficient, reduction in polypharmacy

101
Q

List at least 4 age-related changes in the urinary tract system that leave older people more susceptible to urinary incontinence

A

Reduced bladder capacity, reduced sensation of filling, increased detrusor activity, decreased bladder contractile function, increased incidence of benign prostatic obstruction in males, decreased urethral closure pressure and circulating oestrogen in women

102
Q

What is mixed urinary incontinence, and in which patients may this occur?

A

Combination of urge and stress incontinence. E.g., women with pelvic floor weakness that leads to idiopathic detrusor overactivity, or men who develop these symptoms following radical prostatectomy

103
Q

List the 5 categories of urinary incontinence

A

Stress, urge, mixed, overflow (chronic retention) and functional

104
Q

Which medications can be cause or aggravate urge incontinence?

A

Diuretics, SSRIs, cholinergics and anticholinesterase agents

105
Q

Which medications can be cause or aggravate stress incontinence?

A

Alpha-adrenergic blockers

106
Q

Which medications can be cause or aggravate overflow incontinence?

A

Anticholinergics, verapamil, pseudoephedrine, opioids, many psychotropics

107
Q

List 3 basic investigations for urinary incontinence

A

Urine MCS, bladder chart over 3 days, portable bladder scan for post-void residual urine (or formal US KUB if not available)

108
Q

If possible, which lifestyle advice should be given to older patients with urinary incontinence?

A

Limit fluids to 1.5L/day and limit alcohol and caffeine; minimise evening fluid intake and ensure adequate night lighting for nocturia; avoid/treat constipation; regular toileting with good posture; bladder retraining for urge incontinence; pelvic floor training for stress incontinence; incontinence products; mobility aids

109
Q

What is the only PBS funded medication for overactive symptoms?

A

Oxybutynin (anticholinergic)

110
Q

List at least 1 non-PBS medication which can be used for urinary incontinence

A

Solifenacin, darifenacin, mirabegron

111
Q

Explain why solifenacin or darifenacin may be better tolerated to oxybutynin

A

Fewer anticholinergic side effects because of the targeted actions on the M3 muscarinic receptors in bladder smooth muscle

112
Q

State the side effects of oxybutynin

A

Anticholinergic - xerostomia, constipation, worsening urinary retention, cognitive impairment

113
Q

What kind of medication is mirabegron, what are the risks and benefits of using this for urinary incontinence?

A

Beta-3 adrenergic receptor agonist that does not have anticholinergic side effects (good in cognitive impairment). Side effects include increase in BP - contraindicated in severe uncontrolled HTN

114
Q

List the medications which may be considered to treat bladder outlet obstruction related to prostatic enlargement due to BPH

A

Prazosin (lowers BP and can increase falls risk), dutasteride with tamsulosin (preferred in geriatrics), tamsulosin alone (DVA but not PBS)

115
Q

What is the definition of overactive bladder syndrome?

A

Storage symptoms of urgency with or without urgency incontinence, usually with frequency and nocturia

116
Q

What is the definition of detrusor overactivity?

A

Diagnosis made on urodynamics testing confirming involuntary detrusor contractions during the filling phase, which may be spontaneous or provoked

117
Q

What is the definition of nocturia?

A

Interruption of sleep one or more times at night to void

118
Q

What is the definition of nocturnal polyuria?

A

> 33% of the total daily urine production occurring at night

119
Q

What are the ‘storage’ LUTS?

A

Frequency, urgency, nocturia

120
Q

What are the ‘voiding’ LUTS?

A

Hesitancy, poor stream, incomplete emptying, post-void dribbling

121
Q

What is the difference between faecal incontinence and anal incontinence?

A

Faecal incontinence is the involuntary loss of faeces at an inappropriate time/place. Anal incontinence includes faecal incontinence as well as involuntary loss of flatus

122
Q

List at least 4 risk factors for faecal incontinence in the elderly

A

Female gender, coexisting urinary incontinence, high BMI, loose stool consistency, prior colorectal surgery, age-related reduction in sphincter tone at rest

123
Q

What is meant by the biology of aging?

A

Progressive accumulation of random molecular defects that accumulate in tissues and cells, which eventually results in age-related functional impairment of tissues and organs

124
Q

List 3 results of oxidative damage to cells

A
  1. Damage to nuclear chromosomal DNA, 2. Shortening of telomeres, 3. Mitochrondrial DNA and lipid peroxidation (resulting in reduced cellular energy production and eventually cell death)
125
Q

Explain simply why chronic inflammation causes cellular damage

A

Drives the production of reactive oxygen species produced during metabolism of oxygen to produce cellular energy

126
Q

What is the result of age-related vessel stiffening?

A

Increases systemic vascular resistance and cardiac afterload, which leads to increased workload. In the venous system, this results in reduced compliance and the system having less capacity to buffer changes in intravascular volume

127
Q

What age-related physiological change is responsible for lengthened contraction time of myocardium in older age?

A

Hypertrophy of myocytes

128
Q

With aging, how much does the intrinsic heart rate fall?

A

About 5-6 beats per minute per decade

129
Q

Which intracerebral deposits occur in normal aging?

A

Neurofibrillary tangles and senile plaques (amyloid)

130
Q

In age-related changes of the autonomic nervous system, parasympathetic outflow ____, whilst sympathetic tone ______

A

Decreases, increases

131
Q

WIth aging, what is the expected decrease in creatinine clearance?

A

10mL/min every decade

132
Q

Creatinine clearance is influenced by what factors?

A

Nutritional status, protein intake, muscle mass and body weight

133
Q

Name the 4 geriatric syndromes that allow doctors to define ‘illness’ presentation of geriatric patients, which acknowledges that the traditional model of care does not often apply to the geriatric population

A

Frailty, sarcopaenia, anorexia of aging, cognitive impairment

134
Q

Name the tool that can be used to develop a management plan for the geriatric patient who presents with a syndrome of aging

A

The 5M tool (mind, mobility, medications, multi complexity, matters most)

135
Q

What is the most common definition of multimorbidity?

A

The presence of 2 or more chronic diseases in an individual

136
Q

List at least 3 concepts of ‘health aging’

A

Need for independence, autonomy, purposeful and meaningful existence, and the opportunity to participate and contribute in the community

137
Q

Name the 5 principles of effective teamwork and collaboration in healthcare

A

Shared goals, clear roles, mutual trust, effective communication, measurable processes and outcomes

138
Q

List at least 4 underlying factors that lead to increased vulnerability for medication adverse/side effects in older people

A

Reduced body water, increased body fat, reduced protein binding, renal and hepatic impairment, increased receptor sensitivity, decline in compensatory mechanisms

139
Q

List the 3 broad areas/domains of capacity

A

Personal, financial and health

140
Q

What is the definition of intersex?

A

An unbrella term for people born with congenital, atypical sex traits

141
Q

List at least 3 common intersex varaitions

A

Klinefelter syndrome (47XXY), Turner Syndrome (45X), congenital adrenal hyperplasia, androgen nsensitivity syndrome

142
Q

Which cognitive screening tool has been validated in migrant populations?

A

RUDAS

143
Q

List the groups of people who qualify for private standards when assessing fitness to drive

A

Class C licence holders (car), R (motorcycle), LR (light ridgid), UNLESS also applying for an authority to use the vehicle for carrying public passangers for hire, or for the carriage of bulk dangerous goods

144
Q

What is the advice in regards to driving asfter a DVT or PE?

A

Not to drive for at least 2 weeks following a DVT, and 6 weeks following PE

145
Q

What is the advice in regards to driving after AMI or CABG?

A

2 weeks for AMI, 4 weeks for CABG (PCI only 2 days)

146
Q

What is the advice in regards to driving after cardiac arrest?

A

6 months

147
Q

What is the advice in regards to driving after valvular surgery?

A

4 weeks

148
Q

A person is not fit to hold an unconditional driver’s licence if they have BP over what value consistently?

A

200/110 (treated or untreated)

149
Q

What is the definition of a ‘severe hypoglycaemic event’ as per the Aus Driving Standards?

A

Hypoglycaemia of sufficient severity such that the person is unable to treat themselves and requires an outside party to administer treatment

150
Q

For a patient who has had a severe hypoglycaemic event, for how long following this even should they be advised not to drive?

A

At least 6 weeks

151
Q

For patients with diabetes who are not on insulin, what are the medical standards for private vehicle licensing?

A

Generally can drive without restrictions but should have at least 5 yearly reviews

152
Q

Which patients with diabetes need a Specialist to help assess fitness to drive?

A

Any patient on insulin, patients with hypoglycaemia unawareness, and most often for commercial licensing

153
Q

True or false? Only divers of commercial vehicles are required to meet a hearing standard?

A

.True

154
Q

True or false? Any patient with a diagnosis of dementia is considered unfit to hold an unconditional license

A

True - this is because of the progressive nature of the disease. Many will still be able to drive early on, but the majority will eventually pose unacceptable risk and will need to have their licence revoked. Therefore, regular review with a conditional licence is needed

155
Q

Give an example of a situation in which a patient with a history of seizures may be fit to resume an unconditional licence

A

If seizure free for 5 years and not on anti-epileptics for 12 months

156
Q

What is the ‘default’ standard for driving after a seizure?

A

May be fit to hold a conditional licence if there have been no seizures for 1 year

157
Q

Most people with unruptured intracranial aneurysms will be able to hold unrestricted licences - with which notable exception?

A

Those with high risk of sudden symptomatic haemorrhage (giant aneurysms 15mm or greater in size)

158
Q

What is the advice regarding driving after a stroke?

A

4 weeks for private drivers and 3 months for commercial drivers

159
Q

There is specific evidence of increased driving risk in patients with which 2 psychiatric conditions?

A

Schizophrenia and personality conditions

160
Q

List some characterstics that make sleep apnoea more likely

A

Neck circumference (>42cm in men and 41cm in women), witnessed apnoea, daytime sleepiness, BMI > 35, crowded oropharynx, difficult to control T2DM and HTN

161
Q

When testing visual acuity, how many errors are regarded as a ‘failure’ to read a line?

A

More than 2

162
Q

State the visual acuities that quality for an unconditional licence - both private and commercial

A

Incorrect visual acuity. Private - with one or both eyes at least 6/12. Commercial - better eye at least 6/9 and worse eye at least 6/18

163
Q

Patients should be referred for an eye examination if their visual acuity is less than ______ - for the purposes of being assessed to hold a conditional licence

A

If vision less than 6/12 with one or both eyes (or commercial licence holders with less than 6/9 in the better eye or 6/18 in the worse eye

164
Q

Quote the normal visual fields, as set out by the Aus Driving Guidelines

A

60 degrees nasally, 100 degrees temporally, 75 inferiority and 60 superiorly (and binocular field extends these significantly)

165
Q

Which crude test is acceptable when screening for visual field defect in a patient with no clinical indication of a visual field impairment or progressive eye condition?

A

Confrontation

166
Q

True or false? Monocular vision is a contraindication to holding a private vehicle licence

A

False - a conditional licence may be considered if the horizontal visual field is 110 degrees and the acuity is satisfactory in the better eye

167
Q

What is the minimum time a person should be advised not to drive if they develop sudden onset loss of vision?

A

Usually 3 months

168
Q

What is the most common type of dementia?

A

Alzheimer disease (60%)

169
Q

List some of the common features of Alzheimer disease

A

Slowly progressive onset of memory and language impairment, reduced executive functioning (ability for complex thought and decision making) with possible dyspraxia and agnosia

170
Q

Lewy body dementia presents with at least 2 of which 3 features?

A

Fluctuating impaired cognition, visual hallucinations and parkinsonism

171
Q

A MMSE score of less than __ is suggestive of cognitive impairment and often dementia

A

24

172
Q

The MMSE is best utilised in what setting?

A

To monitor the effects of response to dementia treatment

173
Q

Which validated tool may be used to help to differentiate between dementia and depression?

A

The Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS)

174
Q

What are the 2 main reasons for ordering non-contrast CT brain in a patient as part of the workup of dementia

A

To exclude inter cerebral lesion (i.e., neoplasm or subdural), and for diagnosis - can aid in the differentiation of dementia type

175
Q

True or false? There are currently no drugs proven to modify the neuropathology of dementia once established

A

.True - cholinesterase inhibitors can improve cognitive function and/or delay the rate of cognitive decline in mild to moderat AD

176
Q

Name the 3 cholinesterase inhibitors on the PBS for patients who meet the criteria for subsidised treatment for dementia

A

Donepazil, Galantamine and Rivastigmine (Memantine is also on the PBS for people who don’t tolerate cholinesterase inhibitors)

177
Q

What is the general advice for prescribing antipsychotics for patients with BPSD?

A

Avoid whenever possible, as the evidence is limited. If prescribing, review regularly. If symptoms resolve, reduce the dose after 2-3 months and stop all together if symptoms do not return. If there is no efficacy, stop treatment after 1-2 weeks

178
Q

Give some examples of BPSD that will not respond to pharmacotherapy

A

Wandering, undressing, urinating inappropriately, shadowing staff or calling out - these are behaviours which a specific history must be taken in order to elicit contributing factors (often expressions of unmet needs)

179
Q

Name the only drug that is subsidised for the treatment of psychotic symptoms and agression in Alzheimer Disease

A

Risperidone (and restricted duration of 12 weeks)

180
Q

List some of the increased risks associated with prescription of antipsychotic drugs to patients with dementia

A

Increased risk of hospitalisation, falls, CVA and death

181
Q

What is the evidence-based recommendation for treatment of depression in people with dementia?

A

The role of antidepressants is uncertain. However, people with dementia who have a history of MDD prior to dementia onset should be treated in the usual waa

182
Q

Compare which groups of patients with dementia show evidence of positive outcomes with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

A

Improve cognitive functioning and independence of ADLs in mild - moderate dementia (must be confirmed by a specialist to access PBS). Recent evidence of positive outcomes in LBD, Parkinson Dementia, VD and severe Alzheimer. Not helpful in MCI

183
Q

What is the evidence for acetylcholinesterase inhibitors + memantine in dementia?

A

The combination has been shown to improve cognition and reduce symptoms such as distress and agitation - however, not on PBS. If benefit demonstrated, can access PBS after 6 months

184
Q

What is the ‘ABC’ approach for assessing symptoms of challenging behaviours in dementia?

A

Antecedents; behaviour description; consequences. This is a way of assessing the symptoms and whether there is an unmet need that can be addressed

185
Q

Which dementia subtype should NOT be prescribed antipsychotics?

A

Demential with Lewy Bodies - due to the high risk of extrapyrimydal side effects

186
Q

State the diagnostic criteria that make up the ‘frailty phenotype’

A

3+ of unintentional weight loss, exhaustion, weakness, slow walking, low physical activity

187
Q

Give some examples of drugs which need to be graduallu weaned if deprescibing is being undertaken in a frail geriatric patient

A

Those which cause adverse drug withdrawal events such as CNS active medicines, beta blockers and corticosteroids

188
Q

Give an example of when a statin may be appropriate to deprescribe

A

May be considered when potential benefits (secondary prevention of CV events and death in patients with coronary heart disease) are no longer clinical relevant. E.g., patients with severe physical or cognitive impairments or those in their last year of life.

189
Q

What is the current evidence for deprescribing antihypertensives in the elderly?

A

No good evidence that patients over the age of 80 experience reduction in overall mortality. Studies have shown cessation can be done safely without withdrawal effects - in addition many patients remain normotensive 6 months - 5 years after cessation with no increase in mortality

190
Q

What considerations should be made when reviewing to cease sulfonylurea mediations in the elderly?

A

The benefit is of recuding microvascular complications over decades, so this may not be important in older frail adults. In addition, the risks of hypoglycaemia increase with age, and national guidelines recommend a higher target blood sugar for older patients

191
Q

List the 2 broad levels of home support available in Australia

A

Commonwealth Home Support Programme (CHSP) for people with less complex needs, i.e., MOW/cleaning/short term physio. Home Care Packages (HCP) for those with more complex needs, require ACAT assessment to access

192
Q

What option is available in Australia for an elderly patient who does not have a CHSP or HCP, who has not had an ACAT assessment but who requires urgent support?

A

Can refer directly to local care provider - the services provided are time limited and will need an ACAT if the care needs to be extended

193
Q

List some of the key intrinsic risk factors for falls in the elderly

A

Age, sensory decline, reduced lower limb strength, cognitive impairment, comobidity

194
Q

What are the strongest predictors of falls risk?

A

Previous falls, with injurious falls and walking or balance difficulty increasing the risk even further

195
Q

List 2 tests that can be used to screen older people for balance deficits when assessing falls risk

A

Single leg stance test, timed up and go test

196
Q

What is the single leg stance test?

A

Observe patient standing on one leg with eyes open for 10 seconds for 3 trials. 1 = completed 3 trials; 2 = completed 1 or 2 trials; 3 = completed no trials. A score of 2 or 3 indicates significant sensory and strength impairment

197
Q

What is the times up and go test?

A

Patient stands from sitting, walks for 3 metres and then turns and returns to sit in the chair. Time of 15+ seconds identified those with a high risk of falling

198
Q

What sort of exercise reduces falls risk is older adults living in the community?

A

Challenging balance exercise for 2 + hours per week on an ongoing basis (Tai Chi or Otago Exercise Program)

199
Q

True or false? Daily Vit D supplementation prevents falls and fractures in those with Vit D < 60 regardless of the setting in which they live

A

.True

200
Q

List some of the effective single interventions that have been proven to reduce falls risk

A

Benzo withdrawal, OT home mods, expedited cataract surgery, restricted multi focal outdoor use for active adults

201
Q

List at least 3 characteristics of an effective exercise program to reduce falls risk

A

Moderate or high challenge balance, 2 hours per week on ongoing basis, home or group setting, optional strength training has cognitive and functional benefits. Brisk walking is NOT recommended for high risk individuals

202
Q

Which strategies have good evidence for treating insomnia in older adults?

A

CBT and sleep restriction, melatonin is also supportive and does not results in next-day impairment or rebound insomnia

203
Q

Describe the approach to weaning/ceasing long-term benzodiazepines in older adults (i.e., as a falls reduction strategy)

A

Transfer to equivalent diazepam dose, following by dose reduction of 25% per week over 5 consultations. Melatonin can also be used to support sedative withdrawal.

204
Q

What is the only known contraindication to Vit D supplementation in RACF patients?

A

Hypercalcaemia

205
Q

When should Vit D monitoring be undertaken for RACF patients?

A

Never, not needed

206
Q

What is the alternate step test?

A

Measures how quickly an older person can alternate steps onto a 18cm step, total 8 times. A time of greater than 10 secs indicates increased falls risk

207
Q

Which is the only single exercise intervention shown to reduce the risk of falling?

A

Tai Chi (although doesn’t reduce falls rate) - no other single category of exercise is effective on it’s own

208
Q

List at least 3 risk factors for asymptomatic bacteruria in the elderly

A

Institutionalised or hospitalised patients, diebtes, cognitive impairment, structural urinary tract abnormalities and in dwelling catheters, increases with increasing age, history of stroke

209
Q

What is the proposed reason for asymptomatic bacteruria increasing in prevalence in men 90-103 years of age?

A

Reduced bactericidal activity of prostatic fluid

210
Q

What is the proposed reason for asymptomatic bacteruria increasing in prevalence in women with increasing age?

A

Reduced oestrogenand increased vaginal pH from lack of lactobacilli colonisation post-menopause, thereby predisposing women to colonisation by uropathogens

211
Q

Give at least 2 examples of gram negative bacteria that can cause asymptomatic bacteriuria

A

e coli, klebsiella pneumonia, proteus mirabilis

212
Q

Give at least 2 examples of gram positive bacteria that can cause asymptomatic bacteriuria

A

Enterococcus faecalis, coagulate negative staphyloccus and group B streptococcus

213
Q

Give some examples of pathogens which are commonly found in long term catheter patients

A

Pseudomonas, morganella morganii and Providencia stuartii

214
Q

What is the most common pathogen associated with asymptomatic bacteriuria? For institutionalised patients, what is the most frequently isolated pathogen?

A

E coli; proteus mirabilis

215
Q

Describe the mechanism by which structural urinary tract abnormalities (such as renal calculi) are thought to predispose to asymptomatic bacteriuria

A

Stones cause irritation and inflammation of the urinary tract mucosa, restricting urinary flow which leads to stasis and obstruction

216
Q

Descibe the mechanism by which patients with Alzheimer dementia, Parkinson disease and CVD potentially predispose to asymptomatic bacteriuria

A

Due to their adverse effects on bladder motility and continence

217
Q

Descibe the mechanism by which diabetes predisposes to asymptomatic bacteriuria

A

Causes neurogenic bladder, diabetic microangiopathy and impaired immune system from hyperglycaemia

218
Q

List at least 5 pathological factors that are associated with the presence of asymptomatic bacteriuria

A

Diabetes, primary biliary cirrhosis, reduced mobility, catheter, constipation, urinary tract abnormality (calculi, BPH, high PVR), neurological disease inc. dementia and stroke

219
Q

Explain why constipation may contribute to asymptomatic bateriuria

A

Chronic consiptation can induce progressive neuropathy in the pelvic floor causing retention. In addition, overflow incontinence can then cause perineal soiling which further increases the risk

220
Q

Explain what urine dipstick is actually useful for

A

Useful as a ‘rule out’ test for urine infection if notices and leukoesterase are both negative (i..e, it has a high negative predictive value)

221
Q

True or false? Positive leukoesterase in a urine dipstick is a good predictor of urine infection

A

False - positive leukoesterase correlates with the presence of bacteruria in only 50% of patients

222
Q

Which groups of patients with asymptomatic bateruria should be treated?

A

Those with abnormal urinary tracts and those with persistent bacteruria 48 hours after catheter removal, genitourinary manipulation or instrumentation with a high probability of bleeding (TURP etc), pregnancy women

223
Q

Treatment is recommended for symptomatic bacteriuria as defined by what factors?

A

Presence of bacteriaemia with the same organism, acute pyelonephritis, acute lower urinary tract symptoms or catheter trauma/obstruction

224
Q

In Australia, the screening and treatment of bacteruria is not recommended, except in which 2 cases?

A

Pregnant women, and men about to undergo a urological procedure in which mucosal bleeding is expected

225
Q

Explain why topical oestrogen and cranberry juice may play a role in preventing asymptomatic bacteruria

A

Ostrogen increases vagina, colonisation with lactobacilli and hence can potentially reduce the presence of uropathogens. Cranberry juice has been proposed to be bacteriostatic

226
Q

What is the dagnostic criteria for asymptomatic bacteruria in men?

A

Single urine specimen with one isolated bacteria in count >100000

227
Q

What is the dagnostic criteria for asymptomatic bacteruria in women?

A

2 consecutive urine specimens with isolation of same bacterial strain in count > 100 000

228
Q

What is the dagnostic criteria for asymptomatic bacteruria in patients with catheters?

A

Singe catheterised urine specimen with one bacterial species isolated in count >100

229
Q

What is the most specific genitourinary symptom of symptomatic UTI in RACF patients?

A

Acute dysuria

230
Q

True or false? There is no indication to investigate or treat cloudy or malodorous urine in the absence of other signs/symptoms of UTI in RACF patients

A

True - these are not reliable signs of UTI and urinalysis and culture should be avoided

231
Q

True or false? A post-treatment urine culture should be performed after antibiotic therapy in RACF patients

A

.False

232
Q

For a RACF patient without acute dysuria, what are the diagnostic criteria for suspected UTI?

A

Must have at least 2 criteria, and at least 1 of these must be either fever or acute mental status change. The minor criteria include new/worsening urinary urgency, frequency, suprapubic pain/tenderness or incontinence, gross haematuria, renal angle tenderness

233
Q

For a RACF patient with a catheter, what are the diagnostic criteria for suspected UTI?

A

Must have at least one criteria of fever, renal angle tenderness/pain, rigours without identified cause or acute mental status change

234
Q

Before starting antibiotic therapy for UTI in a RACF patient, what should be done?

A

Ensure the patient is rehydrated. Delaying therapy to assess for symptomatic UTI does not lead to adverse outcomes

235
Q

What is the classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus in the elderly

A

Urinary incontinence, gait disturbance and dementia (commonly referred to as wet, wobbly and wacky)

236
Q

An 80 year old lady presents with memory loss, urinary incontinence and an ataxic gait. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

237
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for delirium?

A

Must have BOTH acute onset with fluctuating course, AND inattention. And then at least 1 of diagnoranised thinking +/- altered level of consciousness (may be hypo or hyperactive)

GP (4 decks)

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