Geriatric Flashcards

1
Q

What are some functional assessment tools discussed in the lecture? How do you use them?

A
  1. Physical Self-Maintenance ADLs –
    scored on a 1 to 5 scale based on their independence in performing each activity: toileting, feeding, dressing, grooming, physical ambulation, and bathing
  2. Instrumental ADLs-
    scored on a 1 to 10 scale giving credit for ability to perform the specific items within each category: use of a telephone, shopping, preparing food, performing housekeeping chores, doing laundry, assuming responsibility for their own medications, handling their own finances, and relying on their mode of transportationAdministered at different points over time, these tests provide an overall picture of the older adult’s ability to live independently and indicate when assistance is needed or living independently is no longer safe.
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2
Q

How do you assess hearing in the older adult?

A
  1. Whisper test along with tuning fork tests laterality of hearing loss
  2. Rinne test- measures air and bone conduction of sound. Normally, air conduction time is twice the time as bone conduction and should be similar for both ears (measured on each side)
  3. Weber test - measures how well the individual hears sound bilaterally (measures in the middle)
  4. Audiometry- where frequency (high or low tones), intensity (measured in decibels), and threshold (lowest intensity heard) are measured. Pure-tone audiometry assesses tones, while a speech audiometry measures speech discrimination (the ability to hear words clearly).
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3
Q

What causes hearing loss in the older adult?

A
  1. The loss of auditory neurons in the organ of Corti leads to loss of the ability to hear high-frequency sounds (sensorineural loss or presbycusis), the primary cause of hearing loss in older adults. Common causes of sensorineural hearing loss include damage to cranial nerve VIII or prolonged exposure to loud music or noise.
  2. Conditions that impair sound conduction (conductive hearing loss) from the external and middle ear to the inner ear include tumors (benign or malignant), impacted cerumen, foreign bodies, eustachian tube dysfunction, and viruses.
  3. The third type of hearing loss is mixed and functional hearing loss, which results from a combination of sensorineural and conductive changes
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4
Q

Left-sided Heart Failure

A

Left-sided or left ventricular (LV) heart failure, the left ventricle must compensate and work harder to pump the same amount of blood. The heart’s pumping action moves blood that returns to the heart through pulmonary veins through the right atrium into the right ventricle. Because the right ventricle pumps blood back into the lungs to be oxygenated, it does not normally have a thickened myocardial wall. The pumping capability of both ventricles is necessary for normal heart function and supplying oxygenated blood to all organs

o Rales or crackles on auscultation of lungs
o Cyanosis (nailbeds)
o PMI laterally displaced from 5th ICS, MCL (cardiomegaly)
o Gallop (S3)
o Confusion

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5
Q

Right-Sided Heart Failure

A

Right-side heart failure: As a result of left-sided failure, there is a backup of blood into the right side of the heart, which stresses the right ventricle and causes difficulty propelling blood into the lungs. Once the blood gets to the lungs, there is already increased pressure in the pulmonary vasculature, and the right-side of the heart has to work harder. Eventually, the right-side of the heart is not able to compensate and right-sided heart failure ensues. While dyspnea and edema are the most prominent symptoms of heart failure, in **right-sided failure there may be additional symptoms from the peripheral circulation congestions, such as jugular venous distension, ascites, and hepatic enlargement. **

o Elevated JVP
o Parasternal heave
o Ascites
o Hepatomegaly
o Impaired liver function
o jaundice

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6
Q

What arrhythmia is associated with high alcohol intake?

A

Atrial Fibrillation

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7
Q

What patient education is needed for HF patients? What should patients and families be assessing at home?

A

Sodium restriction

Fluid Restriction

Daily Weight

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8
Q

What medication is used to treat HF?

A

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitors
Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers
Angiotensin-Receptor Neprilysin Inhibitors
Alpha-beta Blockers
Aldosterone receptors antagonist
Cardiac glycosides
Loop diuretics

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9
Q

What lifestyle factors increase risk for HF?

A

Smoking
Alcohol
Diet
Inactivity
Obesity
Age

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10
Q

Left-sided heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF), is also known as systolic heart failure

A

Left ventricle cannot contract normally and does not pump with enough force to push adequate amounts of blood into circulation.

The body activates neurohormonal pathways that result in increased circulating blood volume.

Sympathetic nervous system stimulation causes increased heart rate and myocardial contractility, arteriolar vasoconstriction in nonessential vascular beds, and renin secretion in the kidney.

Catecholamines may have negative effects, such as ischemia, arrhythmias, cardiac remodeling, and myocyte toxicity.

The renin-angiotensin system activation results in further arteriolar vasoconstriction, sodium and water retention, and release of aldosterone. Increased aldosterone level also results in sodium and water retention, along with endothelial dysfunction and organ fibrosis.

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11
Q

Left-sided heart failure, there is preserved (above 40%) ejection fraction (HFpEF). Also known as diastolic heart failure

A

Left ventricle may still have pumping ability but loses its ability to relax because the muscle has become stiff.

Heart does not fill properly with blood during the resting period between each beat. Therefore, the primary symptoms of left-sided heart failure are dyspnea and peripheral edema.

Dyspnea in heart failure is multifactorial; pulmonary congestion may be a primary cause, along with impaired renal function that occurs with fluid retention.

Kidney failure may be both causative and a result of heart failure .

Also, the dyspnea that occurs with heart failure is often more pronounced with physical exertion but may occur primarily when lying down (orthopnea), or it may occur suddenly during sleep (paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea [PND]). In recent years, doctors have recognized a “new” symptom of CHF called bendopnea, or dyspnea when bending over due to an increase in already elevated ventricular filling pressures.

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12
Q

Cardinal sign of Right-sided HF

A

**Jugular venous distension (JVD) **

Normally, the JVP is visible at 3 cm along the jugular vein; if either is visible above this point, JVD is present.

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13
Q

Describe the Pathophysiology of the inflammatory process associated with pneumonia.

A

Occurs when infectious organism or inhaled irritant enters alveoli.

Alveolar macrophages release Interleukin-1, TNF alpha, B cells, T Cells initiating the inflammatory response

Neutrophils are drawn to inflamed area and trigger capillary leakage of RBCs, edema, and accumulation of exudate

Goblet cells become overstimulated and produce excess mucous. Combine with exudate makes it difficult for aveoli to open and close (crackles)

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14
Q

What is the pneumonia vaccine? When is it recommended?

A

Prevention with pneumococcal vaccine is encouraged for all older adults (≥65 years).

The pneumococcal conjugate (Prevnar 13® or PVC13) or vaccine and the pneumococcal polysaccharide (Pneumovax 23® or PPSV23) vaccines are both currently available.

Timing of vaccine administration should be determined by the patient and provider through shared decision making, with one dose of PCV13 recommended for those 19 and older who are at higher risk due to medical conditions and for those over 65 who have not already had the vaccine. All persons over age 65 should receive the PPSV23 vaccine even if they have already received the PCV13 vaccine.

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15
Q

What diagnostics studies are ordered in patients with pneumonia?

A

CXR: The chest x-ray is a key component of early pneumonia diagnosis. Chest x-rays show a dense, white area of consolidation, but this density may not appear on x-ray until about 12 to 48 hours after the first symptoms of pneumonia, and typically clears on x-ray earlier in viral than in bacterial pneumonias

Computer tomography (CT) is another standard radiological test used to diagnose pneumonia and is useful in visualizing any abnormalities too small to see on regular x-ray

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16
Q

What is the cause of OA?

A

commonly referred to as degenerative joint disease (DJD) or “wear-¬and-tear” arthritis, and the etiology is based on the cause of joint deterioration. Primary OA is attributed to aging and mechanical stress, while secondary OA is attributed to joint injury, metabolic disease, or obesity.

17
Q

What is the cause of RA?

A

While genetics, hormones, infection, and environmental triggers are thought to influence the abnormal immune response, the underlying mechanisms that lead to the joint and systemic inflammation of RA are not clearly understood

18
Q

What are the expected findings of the MSK associated with aging?

A

Osteopenia

Stiff connective tissue

Decreased ROM

19
Q

What are the stages of RA?

A

Stage 1-
o Synovitis
o Joint effusion
o Antibodies are produced
o Immune response (macrophages, lmyphocytes, and TNF)
o Xrays show edema of soft tissue with no joint destruction

Stage 2-
o Hpertrophy
o Scar tissue
o Inflammatory mediators

Stage 3-
Cartilage erodes
Bone Spurs
o Tendons and ligaments are damaged
o Laxity and contractures

Stage 4
Non-functional joint, rheumatoid nodules present

20
Q

What are the risk factors for OA?

A

age, genetics, ethnicity, a history of participating in a sport or other athletic activities, prior joint or bone injury, occupational risk for musculoskeletal injury (i.e., heavy lifting), medication use (including over-¬the-counter medications), and other medical conditions (estrogen deficiency, hypercalcemia, low bone density, obesity, and vitamin D deficiency).

21
Q

What are the risk factors for RA?

A

autoimmune disease; as such, its etiology is thought to be a combination of genetic and environmental abnormal immune responses that lead to joint inflammation and cartilage damage. Thus, the risk factors are less clearly identified

22
Q

Acetaminophen
Does it treat OA and/or RA?
How does it work?
Teaching?

A

Both

Mild to moderate pain

MOA: In CNS, inhibits prostaglandin synthesis; used for pain and fever

caution with hepatic or renal disease

23
Q

NSAIDS
Does it treat OA and/or RA?
How does it work?
Teaching?

A

Both

inhibits action of COX enzymes and prostaglandin synthesis

caution with coumadin and other thrombolytics. Decrease dose of ketorolac if age 65 or older

24
Q

Tramadol
Does it treat OA and/or RA?
How does it work?
Teaching?

A

Both

Mild to moderate pain

Norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibitor; analgesic (moderate/severe pain). Non-narcotic

Seizures are a major adverse reaction; caution for serotonin syndrome or physical dependence/tolerance; drug–drug interactions with other CNS depressants

25
Opiods Does it treat OA and/or RA? How does it work? Teaching?
Both Severe pain Alter pain perception and response: act as CNS agonists by binding to CNS opiate receptors use with caution with other CNS depressants; avoid with MAOIs; change sites for patches
26
Local Analgesics Does it treat OA and/or RA? How does it work? Teaching?
Both Minor pain topical pain medicine topical and transdermal patches, use up to 3 patches/24H, ok to cut to smaller size, avoid application to broken skin, avoid getting in eyes
27
Corticosteroids Does it treat OA and/or RA? How does it work? Teaching?
Both Reduces inflammation must taper to avoid adrenal insufficiency (life threatening), may mask infection, teach patient s/s of GI bleed
28
DMARDs Does it treat OA and/or RA? How does it work? Teaching?
RA and other autoimmune diseases immunosuppression caution in renal impairment; CI in hepatic disease
29
Monoclonal Antibodies Does it treat OA and/or RA? How does it work? Teaching?
RA immunosuppression; block T cell lymphocytes assess for history of TB before starting treatment
30
Hyaluronic Acid Does it treat OA and/or RA? How does it work? Teaching?
Both ? full benefits might take 5 weeks
31
Lab findings for OA and RA?
Elevated ESR and CRP RF elevated in RA Antinuclear factor elevated in RA 70% of RA have elevated anti-citrullinated protein antibodies
32
Radiological findings in OA and RA?
OA include the presence of osteophytes, cysts, and an asymmetrical narrowing of the joint space. In RA, while plain x-¬ray films show joint narrowing and subluxation of the joint bones, these changes are found earlier in the disease process using MRI
33
What is the RAAS?
In response to low blood pressure, decreased perfusion through the nephron, or an increase in activity of the sympathetic nervous system, renin is produced in the distal convoluted tubules. Renin stimulates angiotensinogen conversion to angiotensin I, causing an increased secretion of aldosterone, and resulting in an increased reabsorption of sodium and water, excretion of potassium, and vasoconstriction.
34
What labs evaluate kidney function?
GFR and Albumin in urine
35
What are the stages of CKD?
Stage 1- GFR > 90 ml/min Stage 2- GFR 60-89 ml/min Stage 3- GFR 30-59 ml/min Stage 4 GFR 15-29 ml/min Stage 5 GFR < 15 ml/min
36
What dietary restrictions should be taught to patients with CKD?
Limit protein to 0.8-1 g/kg/day and limit sodium to 1500 mg each day
37
Describe Cataracts
Diminished acuity (blurred, dimmed, and hazy vision) along with difficulty adjusting to bright lights, seeing a halo or glare, especially when driving at night. Diagnosis based on S & S and visualization of dilated eye
38
Describe AMD (Age-related Macular Degeneration)
Variations in visual acuity and having difficult reading and seeing faces, because central vision is impaired while peripheral vision remains intact. Diagnosis based on symptoms and presence of hemorrhage, exudates, altered retinal pigmentation
39
Which cranial nerves are tested together for eye movement?
III, IV, and VI Oculomotor, Tochlear, and Abducens