Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

pance-flashcards > Genitourinary > Flashcards

Genitourinary Flashcards

1
Q

What controls the bladder neck? What controls the bladder?

A

Bladder neck: Under adrenergic control

Bladder: Under cholinergic control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the treatment options for BPH?

A

Alpha blockers: Terazosin, tamsulosin

  • SE: Hypotension, dizziness, asthenia

5 alpha reductase inhibitors

Gold standard for relieving bladder outlet obstruction: Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What male genital problem causes an increased risk of testicular cancer?

A

Cryptorchidism (40 times as likely to develop testicular CA)

(Most common genital problem encountered in pediatrics)

Also increases risk of testicular torsion and infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Cryptorchidism? what side is it most common?

A

Incomplete descent of the testes into the scrotum during fetal development

More common on the Right side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do you test for functioning testicular tissue?

A

Hormonal challenge: HCG will confirm the presence of functioning testicular tissue (hcg is virtually identical to Pituitary LH)

If the FSH is 3X normall and no increase in testosterone in response to hCG, functional tests are not present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you treat Cryptorchidism?

A

Most will spontaneously descend by 3 months

Treat at 6 months

  • hcG-identical to pituitary LH
  • Agonist analogs of GnRH-Stimulate the release of LH and FSH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Prehn’s sign?

A

Elevation of the testicle–>

  • Relieves pain in epidydimitis (positive prehn)
  • No relief of pain in torsion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the symptoms and signs of Fournier’s Gangrene? Risk Factor?

A

RF: Indwelling catheter

Sxs: Fever, toxicity, sepsis

PE: scrotum reveals eschar, brawny, violaceous, bullous edema with a cellulitis extending into abdominal wall an perineum

Surgical Emergency!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the most common type of bladder cancer? How does it present? RF? Diagnostics?

A

Transitional Cell carcinoma

Presents with gross hematuria

  • If you see gross hematuria–>need a cystocopy and biopsy

RF: aniline dyes, smoking

Schistasomiasis–associated with Squamous cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most common renal malignancy? who does it most commonly affect? How is it diagnosed?

A

Renal cell carcinoma

Black men who smoke

Dx: CT scan

CXR (to exclude pulmonary metastasis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the classic triad of Renal cell carcinoma? How do you treat it?

A
  1. Hematuria
  2. mass
  3. flank pain

Tx: Nephrectomy (if early), Radiation (if late, bad prognosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What medications can cause urinary retention in men?

A

Anticholinergics, OTC cold meds, Opiates, benzos, and general anesthesia

“I had surgery yesterday and now I can’t pee”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do you treat acute urinary retention? What do you have to warn the patient about?

A

Alpha blockers : warn them that it may cause orthostatic hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What controls Erection? What controls ejaculation?

A
  • Erection requires intact parasympathetic
    • also somatic nerve supply, unobstructed arterial flow, adequate venous constriction, hormonal stimulation, pyschological)
  • ejaculation=sympathetic

“Point & Shoot”–>P=parasympathetic, S=sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Priapism?

A

Painful condition in which erect penis does not return to flaccid state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common drug related cause of Priapism? What is the most common etiology in most emergency departments (and in boys)? Tx?

A

Trazadone most common drug related cause (hippa)

also Sildenafil (viagra)

Sickle cell disease-common cause in most ER

Dont miss leukemia in kids!

Tx: Phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does testicular cancer present? How do you diagnose?

A

Most common neoplasm in men 20-35 y/o

S/S: Painless unilateral mass (that cannot be separated from the testicle); Lung mets may be first symptom

Dx: UTZ for diagnosis, CT for staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Testicular Torsion: S/S, Who?, Dx? Tx?

A

12-18 y/o; Testical is abnormally twisted on its spermatic cord–compromising arterial supply and venous drainage of testicles leading to testicular ischemia

PE: abnormal lie (high-lying painful testes), abnormal cremasteric reflex (neg. Prehn’s sign),

ass. with bell clapper deformity (Inadequate fixation of testes within the scrotum

Dx: If you think it’s torsion, immediately get US! US will show ischemia with abnormal flow

IF no access to urology attempt manual de-torsion with open book

Tx: SURGICAL EMERGENCY! Detorsion and ocrhiopexy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Balanitis/Balanoposthitis? What causes it?

A

Redness of the foreskin and penis with foul smelling discharge

Associated with lack of hygeine, usually found in uncircumscribed young boys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ORchitis: What is it? who does it most commonly affect? S/S?

A
  • Commonly caused by ascending bacterial infection from Urinary tract.
  • Occurs in 23% of postpubertal males who have mumps infection

(Typically follows Parotitis within 8 days)

  • Sx: unilateral testicular swelling and tenderness
  • Fever, tachycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Epididymitis: What is it? WHat organisms are involved?

A
  • Infection of the epididymis acquired by retrograde spread of organisms through the vas deferens
  • <35 y/o: Chlamydia and gonococci
  • >35 y/: E. coli
  • PE: warm tender erythematous enlarged scrotal mass
  • Positive Prehn’s sign

Tx: <35 y/o: Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM + doxycycline 100 mg BID 10 days

> 35 y/o: Ciprofloxacine 500 mg BID PO x 10-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Phimosis?

A

The inability to retract the foreskin over the glans penis

“Turtleneck tooo small to put over your head

circumcision may be a tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Paraphimosis

A

entrapment of the foreksin behind the glans penis

“So now turtleneck is not only too small to put over your head, but its not strangling your gland)

EMERGENCY! may end up in edema or gangrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a varicocele? What are the symptoms? Dx?

A

Formation of a venous varicosity within the spermatic vein (Paminiform plexus)

Left vein > Right vein

PE: Chronic, nontender mass that does not transilluminate

“Bag of worms”, increases in size with valsalva

Dx: Doppler Sonography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

PE findings of hydrocele? of Spermatocele?

A

hydrocele: Soft, transluminating nontender mass

Spermatocele: Painless cystc mass containing sperm; Palpable, round firm cystic mass free floating above the testicle, which transilluminates; may be tender

Dx: Clinically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Name prerenal etiologies of acute renal failure and Labs

A

Decreased renal perfusion secondary to

  • Hypovolemia
  • hypotension
  • CHF

Labs: Urine Na <20 mEq/L (The integrity of kidneys remain intact, So sodium is conserved as GFR declines in an attempt to reestablish volume and perfusion, resulting in a fractional excretion of sodium, FENa <1).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Name Post-renal etiologies of acute renal failure

A

Tubular obstruction, Obstructive uropathy, nephrolithiasis, BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Name intrinsic renal etiologies of acute renal failure; labs

A
  • ATN
  • Nephrotoxins
  • Interstitial disease
  • glomerulonephritis
  • vascular disease

Labs: Increased urine Na > 40 mEq/L (when glomeruli are injured, the kidneys lose the ability to reabsorb sodium as the GFR decreases; FENa >1

Decreased BUN: Cr ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the symptoms of glomerulonephritis? What is seen on labs?

A

Sxs: Hematuria, tea/coloa-colored urine, oliguria, edema of face/eyes (classic, worse in AM), HTN

UA: Mishaped RBCs due to passage through glomeruli, RBC cast

+ antistreptolysin O if recent strep infection

Tx: depens on etiology, Steroids, immunosuppressive drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Defn of Nephrotic syndrome

A

>3.5 g of protein in 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What labs are seen in nephrotic syndrome?

A

Hypoalbuminemia, Proteinuria, Foamy urine (beer), RBC casts, Granular casts

Key finding: Oval fat body

32
Q

What is Fibromuscular dysphagia? How do you dx? How do you tx?

A

Dz where renal artery has multipile areas of stenosis

On exam: 25 y/o female with HTN , abdominal bruits and renal failure

Dx: Renal US with doppler

tx: Angioplasty/stenting vs. Surgical repair

33
Q

Hydronephrosis: what is it? Common cause? Dx? Tx?

A

Distention and dilation of renal collecting system (Calyces)

Common cause: obstruction of urine flow (Nephrolithiasis, BPH, mass, etc.)

Dx: abdominal US

Tx: Decompress kidneys

Must relieve obstruction–> percutaneous nephrostomy tubes

34
Q

Respiratory Acidosis

A

Increased PCO2 (hypercapnia) caused by hypoventilation (seen in COPD,

Labs: Increased PCO2, Decrease PH, worsening MS

Kidneys slowly compensate over days leading to rise in serum HCO3

Complication: Hypercapneic Encephalopathy

35
Q

Respiratory Alkalosis

A

decreased PCO2, caused by HYPERventilation

causes: sepsis, PE, anxiety, salicyclate toxicity, hypoxia, primary CNS disorders, Pregnancy

Sxs: Tetany-like syndrome secondary hyperventilation.

Compensation: decreased CO2 leads to renal excretion of HCO3

Tx: If anxiety breath in paperbag, otherwise tx underlying disorder

36
Q

Metabolic Acidosis: Anion Gap vs NonAnion gap causes

A

Occurs when pt loses bicarb or adds H+ to the blood

Compensation: in acute metabolic acidosis, the resp response is immediate–>PCO goes down as you breath more to get rid of it.

Aniongap: Add acid to blood; Cause: MUDPILES

Non-Anion Gap: Loss of bicarb through GI tract; Common cause: Diarrhea and renal tubular acidosis

37
Q

Metabolic Alkalosis: common cause

A

Increased serum bicarb concentration

Common causes: vomiting

38
Q

What is the Diagnostic test used for Nephrolithiasis?

A

Helical CT

39
Q

Treatment of Nephrolithiasis

A

<5 mm: Most likely pass spontaneously

5-10 mm: Less likely to pass spontaneously

Elective Lithotripsy or ureteroscopy

>10 mm: tx on inpt basis if unable to maintain adequate oral intake

Gold standard: Ureteral stent or percutaneous nephrostomy

40
Q

The majority of Prostate cancers are what type?

A

Adenocarcinoma

41
Q

When should a biopsy be done?

A

PSA > 4 ng/ml

42
Q

How do you differentiate Seminoma Testicular cancer from Nonseminoma?

A

AFP elevated in Seminomas–Radiation sensitive

hCG elevated in nonseminomas–Radiation resistant (tx with chemo or surgery)

43
Q

What is the most common solid renal tumor of childhood? What is the most common symptom?

A

WIlms Tumor, AKA Nephroblastoma

Sx: Asymptomatic Abdominal mass

44
Q

What is the study of choice to diagnose WIlms Tumor? Tx?

A

Ultrasound

Tx: Surgery, chemo, radiation

45
Q

What Is commonly seen on UA with pyleonephritis?

A

White blood cell casts

46
Q

What UTI pathogen is most commonly seen in patients with recurrent UTI and in hospitalized patients?

A

Pseudomonas

47
Q

What is Reiter syndrome?

A

Reactive arthritis as a result of untreated chlamydia infection.

Triad: Urethritis, Arthritis, and conjunctivitis

48
Q

How do you treat acute bacterial prostatitis initially?

A

Bactrim + Fluoroquinolones x 4-6 weeks

49
Q

What is urge incontinence? Tx?

A

Result of uninhibited urge sensations that are so strong that the patient experiences an involuntary urine loss; often seen with aging, weakened pelvic muscles secondary to childbirth, and estrogen depletion causing weakening of the detrusor muscle.

strong desire to void followed by loss of urine

Detrusor overactivity, results from blader contractions that cannot be controlled by the brain; Seen in inflammatory conditions or neurogenic disorders

Tx: Anticholinergics, Tolterodine and oxybutynin

50
Q

What is stress incontinence?

A

Associated with increased intra-abdominal pressure (laughing, sneezing, coughing)

Dysfunction of the urethral sphincter

Females <70 y/o

51
Q

what is overflow incontinence?

A

Associated with leaking small amounts of urine from mechanical factors that affect an already distended bladder; Detrusor underactivity

Also seen with chronic urinary retention (BPH, Urethral strictures)

Sxs: Nocturnal wetting, frequent loss of small amount of urine;

Complications: Hydronephrosis, obstructive neuropathy

52
Q

What is Functional incontinence?

A

Associated with patients who exhibit cognitive impairment (Severe dementia)

Prevent pts from reaching toilet

53
Q

How do you treat Overflow incontinence?

A

Cholinergic agents (Bethanechol): Increases bladder contractions

Alpha-blockers (Terazosin, Doxazosin): Decreases sphincter resistance

Catheterization

54
Q

How do you treat stress incontinence?

A

Pessary, Topical estrogens

Surgery (Urethropexy)

55
Q

What is associated with Suppressed levels of PTH and Hypercalcemia?

A
  1. Malignancy–most common
  2. Vitamin D intoxication
  3. hyperthyroidism
56
Q

What do you see in the urine with acute tubular necrosis?

A

Epithelial cell casts

57
Q

What medication class affects PSA levels?

A

5 alpha reductase inhibitors can lower a patients PSA levels by 50%

58
Q

What is the most common primary source for metastatic bone disease in men?

What type of cancer commonly metastasizes to the lungs? lymph nodes along the renal hilum?

A

Prostate Cancer–metastatic bone dz

Renal cell CA, Bladder CA–lungs

Testicular CA–Lymph nodes along the renal hilum

59
Q

When should a woman with recurrent UTIs be referred to a urologist?

A

A recurrence rate of more than 3 infections per year

60
Q

What is the most common stone of Nephrolithiasis?

Which stone is associated with urease producing organisms?

A

Most common stone: Calcium oxalate

Struvite stones are associated with urease producing organisms (Proteus and Pseudomonas). Not usually associated with E. coli.

61
Q

What is an absolute indication to begin hemodialysis in pateints with CKD?

A

Development of seizures

62
Q

What is the most common cause of acute interstitial nephritis?

A

NSAIDS

63
Q

What renal disease is ACE inhibitors contraindicated?

A

Significant renal artery stenosis

64
Q

How do you diagnose renal artery stenosis?

A

Magnetic resonance angiography enhanced with gadolinium

65
Q

Abnormal urinary protein excretion is defined as

A

>300 mg/24 hours

66
Q

At what serum glucose level will glucsoe spill into the urine?

A

180 to 200 mg/dL

67
Q

What renal disease result in a unilateral atrophied kidney? bilateral? An enlarged kidney?

A
  • Unilateral atrophied kidney: Renal artery stenosis
    • The unaffected kidney will generally enlarge in an attempt o compensate for the declining GFR
  • Atrophy of both kidneys: Hypertensive nephrosclerosis and Diabetic nephropathy
  • Enlarged kidneys–>Polycystic kidney disease
68
Q

How does Insulin affect potassium levels?

A

Insulin helps drive potassium into the cell, but must be given with glucose to avoid signficant hypoglycemia.

Therefore, one way to tx hyperkalemia is

Insulin + D5W IV

69
Q

What are the subtypes of Renal tubular acidosis?

A

Type I: Inability of the distal renal tubule to excrete hydrogen ions

Type II: Overexcretion of Bicarb into the urine

Type III: no longer used

Type IV: aldosterone deficiency or an inability of the distal tubule to response to aldosterone

70
Q

The most serious consequence of rapid correction of hyponatremia is?

A

Central pontine myelinolysis

71
Q

What is the most common electrolyte abnormality seen in hospitalized patients?

A

hyponatremia

72
Q

What is the appropriate action prior to having a patient with CKD undergo a procedure involving IV contrast dye?

A

Administer 1,000 CC bolus of normal saline and Acetylcysteine pro

73
Q

What is a common electrolyte abnormality in a patient who abuses alcohol? What are the symptoms

A

Hypomagnesemia;

Neuromuscular and CNS hyperirritability, weakness/muscle cramps, tremors, nystagmus, positive Babinski response, confusion, and disorientation

74
Q

What is the treatment of choice for hypercalcemia associated with malignancy?

A

Bisphosphonates (IV zoledronic acid)

75
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Polycystic kidney disease?

A
  • Abdominal fullness (due to enlarged kidneys)
  • abdominal pain (due to bleeding into cysts)
  • hematuria
  • HTN
76
Q

How is polycystic kidney disease diagnosed? what is a common complication?

A
  • US
    • <30 y/o: 3 or more cysts
    • 30-59 y/o: 3 or more cysts in each kidney
    • >60 y/o: 5 or more cysts in eache kidney

Complication: Cerebral Aneurysms (10-15% of PKD patients have arterial aneurysms in the circle of willis)

77
Q

What are the stages of CKD?

A

Stage I: > 90 mL/min, persistent aluminuria

Stage II: GFR 60-89 mL/Min

Stage III: May start to see serum creatinine and BUN increase; Anemia, HTN, malnutrition, disorders of calcium and phosphorus metabolism, Reduced functioning and well-being neuropathy

Stage IV: GFR 15-29 ml/min; fluid, electrolyte, Acid-base abnormalities

Stage V: GFR <15 ml; initiateate dialysis or transplant when appropriate

pance-flashcards (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions