Genitourinary Flashcards

1
Q

KIDNEY CANCER

What Type accounts for 90% of cases?

A

Renal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

KIDNEY CANCER

Where does renal cell carcinoma arise from?

A

Proximal renal tubular epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

KIDNEY CANCER

Aetiology?

A

Loss in 3p chromosome tumour suppressor gene which causes increased expression of epidermal growth factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

KIDNEY CANCER

Risk factors

A

Smoking
Drinking
Long term dialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

KIDNEY CANCER

Symptoms?

A

1) Haematuria
2) Loin pain
3) Abdo pain
4) weight loss
5) anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

KIDNEY CANCER

Diagnostic tests?

A
  • incidental ultrasound- 25% will have mets

-10% have classic symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

KIDNEY CANCER

How can it spread?

A

It can spread directly through the renal vein or haematogenously via the blood

Direct- Varicocele

Blood- bone, liver, lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

KIDNEY CANCER

Investigations?

A
  • ultrasound
  • CT of chest and abdomen to find mets
  • IV contrast CT to check individual renal function
  • high blood pressure
  • FBC- polycythaemia due to EPO secretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

KIDNEY CANCER

Treatment?

A
  • radical or partial nephrectomy
  • Angiogenesis- targeting agents for unresectable tumours/ mets

(Tyrosine kinase inhibitors- Sunitinib and sorafenib if mets)

chemo or radio resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

KIDNEY CANCER

Prognosis score?

A
  • stage
  • size
  • grade
  • necrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

BLADDER CANCER

What type accounts for 90% of cases?

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

There is also squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

BLADDER CANCER

What is the cause?

A

Schistosomiasis (snail fever- parasitic flatworms called schistosomes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

BLADDER CANCER

Risk factors?

A
  • smoking
  • alcohol
  • schistosomiasis
  • aromatic amines from the rubber industry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

BLADDER CANCER

How is it graded?

A

Grade 1 = differentiated
Grade 2 = intermediate
Grade 3 = poorly differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

BLADDER CANCER

Common spreads?

A

Blood- lung, livers

Lymph- iliac & para-aortic nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

BLADDER CANCER

Symptoms?

A

Painless and haematuria

Recurrent UTIs

Irritable voiding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

BLADDER CANCER

Diagnostic Tests?

A

Urine analysis- ‘MC&S and cytology

Cystoscopy with biopsy

CT urogram for staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

BLADDER CANCER

Risk groups\?

A

1) >45 with unexplained visible haematuria
2) >60 with unexplained non visible haematuria
3) Visible haematuria that persists after a UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

BLADDER CANCER

Staging?

A

Tis- carcinoma in situ
Ta- just epithelium
T1- lamina propria
T2- superficial muscle involved
T3- deep muscle involved
T4- invasion beyond bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

BLADDER CANCER

Treatment of Tis/ Ta/ T1 tumours?

A

1) Transurethral resection of bladder tumour (TURBT)

2) Diathermy

3) Chemo for multiple small tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

BLADDER CANCER

Treatment for T2/ T3 tumours?

A

1) Radical cystectomy or radiotherapy as this preserves the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

BLADDER CANCER

treatment for T4 tumour?

A

palliative chemo/ radio + chronic catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY

Diagnostic criteria/ what is it?

A

1) Rise in creatinine >26 umol/ L in 48 hrs

2) rise in creatinine >1.5x baseline

3) Urine outpyut <0.5ml/kg/hr for 6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY

If there is reduced excretion, what rises?

A

urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY Risk Factors?
- Age >75 - CKD - HF - Peripheral Vascular Disease - Sepsis - Dehydration
26
ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY Tests?
- Urgent ABG (K+) - Urine dipstick - Bloods- U&E, creatinine, CRP - ECG - CXR
27
ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY Aetiology of Pre-Renal? (70%)
- Hypotension of any cause - SEPSIS/ hypovolaemia - ACE inhibitors
28
ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY Aetiology of Intrinsic Renal? (20%)
- Acute tubular necrosis - result of pre-renal damage such as nephrotoxins
29
ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY Aetiology of Glomerular?
Primary golmeruolnephritis
30
ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY Aetiology of Post-Renal?
- Obstruction (stones, clots, tumours, BPH)
31
ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY What happens if it is left untreated?
Acute tubular necrosis
32
ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY How is pre-renal damage suggested and investigated?
Suggested by hypotension/ history Ix- fluid assessments and treated with IV fluids/ resus
33
ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY How is Intrinsic Renal suggested, investigated and treated?
suggested by: Causative drugs/ haematuria. proteinuria on dipstick Ix- dipstick / renal screen / biopsies Treat= Early referral
34
ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY Investigation and treatment of Post-Renal?
Ix= USS and CT of ureter kidney and bladder (CTKUB) catheterise and refer to urology to treat obstruction
35
ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY Complications?
1) Hyperkalaemia 2) Acute pulmonary oedema 3) ECG- tall T waves, wide QRS, absent P waves
36
ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY How is acute pulmonary oedema treated?
high flow O2 + furosemide + Diamorphine + GTN
37
ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY How is hyperkalaemia treated?
Calcium gluconate / insulin/glucose and salbutamol
38
ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY What is the treatment if the injury is very severe?
haemodialysis / haemofiltration
39
CHRONIC KIDNEY DISEASE Definition?
Impaired renal function for >3 months, based on abnormal structure or function of the kidney, OR GFR <60ml/min/1.73m2 with or without kidney damage
40
CHRONIC KIDNEY DISEASE What is evidence of other renal damage?
1) haematuria 2) proteinuria 3) evidence of systemic disease
41
CHRONIC KIDNEY DISEASE Cause?
1) DM 2) HTN 3) Glomerulonephritis 4) Pyelonephritis 5) 20% unknown
42
CHRONIC KIDNEY DISEASE Which groups are screened for CKD? (checking eGFR)
1) HTN 2) DM 3) Systemic diseases that affect kidney 4) CVS disease 5) Structural renal damage
43
CHRONIC KIDNEY DISEASE Signs and Symptoms?
Anaemia = reduced EPO CNS = fits and coma PNS = polyneuropathy CVS = HF, HTN , PVD, Pericarditis Renal = polyuria, nocturia, oedema
44
CHRONIC KIDNEY DISEASE Possible affects on bone?
1)renal phosphate retention 2) Impaired vit-D production 3) Bone pain/ osteodystrophy/ osteomalacia
45
CHRONIC KIDNEY DISEASE Tests?
Bloods- Hb, FBC, Glucose (DM), U+E, Calcium, PTH Urine- dipstick, albumin : creatine ratio, MC&S
46
CHRONIC KIDNEY DISEASE What are the 5 different stages?
GFR SCORES (ml/min/1.73m2) 1- >90 then go down in 15s e.g 2=60+ 3a=45+ 3b= 30+ 5- <15 = established renal failure (over 3 months)
47
CHRONIC KIDNEY DISEASE treatment? (lifestyle control) (oedema) (acidosis) (anaemia) (CVS) (osteodystrophy)
1) Smoking and glycaemic control, BP with ACE-I, CCB, ARB 6) Osteodystrophy and PTH levels - give vit D and calcium 5) CVS- statins and aspirin 4) Anaemia - Iron 2) Oedema - diuretics 3) Acidosis - bicarbonate
48
KIDNEY STONES/ RENAL COLIC/ CALCULI Epidemiology?
M:F 3:1, 15% so common, onset around 40-60 years
49
KIDNEY STONES/ RENAL COLIC/ CALCULI Where are they classically deposited?
1) Pelviuretic junction 2) Pelvic brim 3) Vesicouretic junction
50
KIDNEY STONES/ RENAL COLIC/ CALCULI Types?
1) Calcium oxalate (75%) 2) Magnesium ammonium sulphate (15%) 3) Urate (5%) 4) Hydroxyapatite (5%) 5) Cysteine (1%)
51
KIDNEY STONES/ RENAL COLIC/ CALCULI Aetiology of calcium oxalate stones?
-Hypercalcaemia - Hyperoxaluria (too much oxalate e.g. from rhubarb/spinach) - Excessive dietary calcium - excessive bone resorption
52
KIDNEY STONES/ RENAL COLIC/ CALCULI Aetiology of Urate stones?
- Hyperuricaemia (gout) - acidic urine
53
KIDNEY STONES/ RENAL COLIC/ CALCULI Aetiology of Cysteine stones?
Cysteinuria (genetic)
54
KIDNEY STONES/ RENAL COLIC/ CALCULI Possible causative organism?
1) Klebsiella 2) proteus 3) psuedomonas
55
KIDNEY STONES/ RENAL COLIC/ CALCULI How is acidic urine produced?
1) Urease breakdown produces NH3, this increase pH of urine and increases stone risk 2) loss of bicarbonates = acidic & decreased uric acid solubility
56
KIDNEY STONES/ RENAL COLIC/ CALCULI signs and symptoms/
- Asymptomatic - Awful 'loin to groin' pain
57
KIDNEY STONES/ RENAL COLIC/ CALCULI What are the symptoms? (3)
- Haematuria - Vomit/ nausea - Sweating
58
KIDNEY STONES/ RENAL COLIC/ CALCULI tests?
Urine- dipstick + mid-stream specimen for MC&S Imaging - Non-contrast CT of KUB or KUB X-Ray
59
KIDNEY STONES/ RENAL COLIC/ CALCULI treatment?
Pain = diclofenac infection= Abx If 1-2cm = Extra-corporeal shockwave lithotripsy (ESWL) - Surgery (uretoscopy) / keyhole (percutaneous stone surgery)
60
Prevention methods for recurrent kidney stones?
1) lots of water 2) Normal dietary calcium 3) Urate = allopurinol/ HCO3- 4) oxalate= pyridoxine 5) Thiazide diuretics reduce calcium excretion
61
URINARY TRACT OBSTRUCTION Aetiology?
Lumen - stone, cancer, blood clot Wall - congenital, nephropathic bladder, stricture Outside of the Wall, prostate disease, tumour, surgery
62
What is Hydronephrosis?
Dilation of renal pelvis
63
URINARY TRACT OBSTRUCTION upper tract Symptoms?
- loin to groin pain - worse with fluid - enlarged kidney
64
What is anuria?
no urine- complete bilateral obstruction
65
What is polyuria?
Partial block and loss of concentration mechanisms = excess urination
66
URINARY TRACT OBSTRUCTION lower tract symptoms?
- terminal dribbling - poor flow - incomplete emptying feeling - enlarged bladder/prostate - suprapubic pain
67
URINARY TRACT OBSTRUCTION tests?
Bloods urine ultrasound then CT second line if hydronephrosis
68
URINARY TRACT OBSTRUCTION treatment?
Upper= nephrostomy (opening between kidney and skin) or uretic stent Lower= Catheter
69
HAEMATURIA What are the types?
visible and non visible
70
HAEMATURIA If the red blood cells shape is normal where is the problem likely to be?
lower tract
71
HAEMATURIA If the red blood cell shape is abnormal where is the problem likely to be?
upper tract
72
HAEMATURIA investigation?
dipstick and MSU (mid stream urine)
73
HAEMATURIA False positive causes?
blood= menstruation/ exercise redness= rifampicin/ beetroot
74
HAEMATURIA Causes? pre, renal and post renal
Pre- renal = drugs (NSAIDs/ anti- coagulants) Renal= Renal stones/ cysts/ disease/ infection Post renal= kidney/ bladder cancer/ ureteric stones/ strictures `
75
AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT POLYCYSTIC KIDNEY DISEASE (ADPKD) Which two mutations are associated? AND What is the prevalence
PKD1 (85%) - on chromosome 16 PKD" (15%)- on chromosome 4 1 in 1000
76
AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT POLYCYSTIC KIDNEY DISEASE (ADPKD) Signs?
- loin pain - polyuria/haematuria - liver cysts (80%) - renal enlargement/ cysts
77
AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT POLYCYSTIC KIDNEY DISEASE (ADPKD) treatment?
treat HTN with the target ,130/80 Dialysis for end stage renal failure (ESRF) increase H20 and reduce salt
78
AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT POLYCYSTIC KIDNEY DISEASE (ADPKD) How do you decrease cyst proliferation?
Tolvaptan = decrease cAMP which decreases cyst proliferation
79
AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE POLYCYSTIC KIDNEY DISEASE (ARPKD) What mutation is associated and what is the prevalence?
PKHD1 on chromosome 6 1 in 40,000
80
AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE POLYCYSTIC KIDNEY DISEASE (ARPKD) What is it?
Multiple renal cysts and congenital hepatic fibrosis
81
AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE POLYCYSTIC KIDNEY DISEASE (ARPKD) treatment?
genetic counselling
82
BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA What is it?
- Hyperplasia of central glandular and connective tissue - Inner zone enlarges in contrast to peripheral expansion in prostate carcinoma
83
Give some LUTS?
1) Storage = urgency, frequency, nocturia 2) Voiding = Dribbling, hesitancy, intermittent/ poor flow 3) Post micturition dribbling
84
BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA Signs?
- nocturia - frequency increases - dribbling - hesitancy - large smooth prostate
85
BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA Lifestyle changes?
1) Avoid caffeine/ alcohol 2) Relax when voiding 3) Void twice in a row 4) Bladder training - learning to hold on
86
BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA Treatment?
1st- alpha blockers - Tamsulosin 2nd - 5-alpha reductase - Finasteride 3rd - Surgery
87
BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA Side effects of Tamsulosin?
- drowsy - depression - dizzy - low BP - dry mouth - ejaculatory problems
88
BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA How does Finasteride work?
IT DECREASES TESTOSTERONE CONVERSION TO DIHYDROTESTOSTERONE
89
BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA What are two different types of surgery that can be done?
transurethral resection of prostate (TURP) transurethral incision of prostate (TUIP)
90
BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA Side effects of TURP and TUIP?
impotence (no erection) and increased libido
91
PROSTATE CANCER What is it?
Adenocarcinoma in peripheral prostate
92
PROSTATE CANCER What's the difference between BPH and cancer?
1) hard craggy prostate with cancer (peach stone rather than peach skin) 2) Metastases (weight loss and possible bone pain)
93
PROSTATE CANCER If the PSA is normal, what investigation must be done?
transrectal US and prostate biopsy
94
PROSTATE CANCER How is it staged?
with CT and TNM system.
95
PROSTATE CANCER How is it graded?
Gleason Score, Pathologist gets 2 samples and grades 1-5, tumour then graded out of 10.
96
PROSTATE CANCER Treatment?
gold standard= Radical Prostectomy if <70 years 2) radical radiotherapy 3) GnRH/LHRH agonists
97
PROSTATE CANCER Treatment of metastatic disease?
GnRH agonists
98
What can raise PSA? (prostate-specific antigen)
1) BPH 2) Prostate cancer 3) Perineal trauma 4) Biopsy 5) Surgery >4ng/ml is abnormal
99
NEPHROTIC SYNDROME Aetiology?
Primary - focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, minimal change disease, membranous nephropathy Secondary - Hep B/C, SLE, Diabetic nephropathy, amyloidosis
100
NEPHROTIC SYNDROME Three classic symptoms?
1) Proteinuria 2) Hypalbuminaemia 3) Oedema
101
NEPHROTIC SYNDROME pathology?
Injury to podocytes= proteinuria
102
NEPHROTIC SYNDROME Features?
- pitting oedema - protein on urine dipstick - low serum albumin
103
NEPHROTIC SYNDROME treatment?
1) Reduce oedema - loop diuretics - furosemide 2) Reduce proteinuria - ACE-I / ARB 3) Reduce risk of complications with statins / vaccines
104
Treatment of Minimal Change disease / Membranous Nephropathy?
- steroids (cyclophosphamide) - treat underlying cause (ACE-I/ARB)
105
What is Haemodialysis?`
Toxins are removed by blood passing over a semi-permeable membrane against dialysis fluid flowing in the opposite direction, and blood is always meeting a less concentrated solution
106
What is Ultrafiltration?
a negative transmembrane pressure created and is used to clear excess fluid
107
What is Peritoneal Dialysis?
when the peritoneum is used as a S-P membrane and a catheter is inserted into the cavity and water is removed by varying osmolarity of dialysate
108
Why is renal transplant the best treatment?
cost effective and high life expectancy
109
What medicine is given alongside renal transplant?
Immunosuppression = Basiliximab Maintenance = azathioprine / prednisolone
110
GLOMERULONEPHRITIS What is it and what are the features of leaky glomeruli?
inflammation of glomeruli and nephrons haematuria + proteinuria, high BP, deteriorating kidney function and 25% cause of all ESRF
111
NEPHRITIC SYNDROME What is it and what are the features?
Rapidly deteriorating kidney function - Oedema - HTN - Proteinuria - Haematuria - oliguria
112
NEPHRITIC SYNDROME causes?
ANCA positive vasculitis SLE post strep infection
113
NEPHRITIC SYNDROME tests?
- Dipstick - red cell casts seen on urine microscopy - MC&S - Renal Biopsy - Bloods - Autoantibodies, FBC, U+E, CRP, ESR
114
NEPHRITIC SYNDROME Treatment?
BP control 130/80 and ACE-I / ARB
115
What is the most common glomerulonephritis?
IgA nephropathy - associated with tonsillitis
116
INCONTINENCE What does a bladder diary show?
1) no of incontinent episodes 2) Volume of urine 3) no of times passed 4) functional bladder capacity 5) night/ 24 hr volume
117
INCONTINENCE Storage pathology?
1) high storage centres - pontine storage centre - PAG 2) Pudendal (somatic) and hypogastric (sympathetic, B3) 3) Nerves prevent detrusor contraction
118
INCONTINENCE Voiding pathology?
1) High centres - pontine micturition centre - PAG 2) Pelvic splanchnic nerve @ M3 receptors 3) Contract detrusor
119
INCONTINENCE What may cause urge incontinence in a man?
- enlarged prostate
120
INCONTINENCE Precipitants?
- cold, water, coffee, obesity
121
INCONTINENCE Causes?
- detrusor overactivity, stroke, DM, UTI
122
INCONTINENCE Diagnosis?
urodynamic studies show random increases in pressure
123
INCONTINENCE What is Stress Incontinence
leakage from incompetent sphincter (when intra-abdo pressure increases such as a sneeze)
124
INCONTINENCE What is Stress incontinence common in?
Pregnancy and the elderly (pelvic floor weakness)
125
INCONTINENCE treatment of stress?
1) Pelvic floor exercises 2) Surgery
126
INCONTINENCE treatment of urge?
1) Avoid caffeine and alcohol 2) bladder training and weight loss 3) Pads and condoms catheter 4) M3 antagonists / B3 agonists
127
TESTICULAR CANCER Types?
- Germ cell tumours - teratomas - seminomas
128
TESTICULAR CANCER Staging?
1- no evidence of mets 2- intradiaphragmatic involved 3- supradiaphragmatic involved 4- lung involvement
129
TESTICULAR CANCER Clinical features?
- painless lump - cough - dyspnoea (LUNG METS) - back pain (para-aortic mets)
130
TESTICULAR CANCER Investigations?
1) US to see tumour 2) alpha FP and beta hCG 3) EXCISION BIOPSY
131
TESTICULAR CANCER treat?
local - radical orchidectomy seminoma with mets - radiotherapy (below diaphragm) Chemo (above diaphragm) Teratoma = chemo
132
UTI's What is bacteriuria?
>10 cubed per ml
133
UTI's name 3 lower UTI's
- prostatitis - cystitis - urethritis
134
UTI's name an upper UTI
pyelonephritis (renal pelvis)
135
UTI's Causative organisms?
1) E.coli 2) Coagulase positive staph 3) Proteus mirabilia 4) Klebsiella pneumonia 2,3,4 can cause renal stones due to urease production
136
UTI's Lower symptoms?
- Dysuria - Frequency - Haematuria - Smelly urine - Suprapubic pain
137
UTI's Upper symptoms?
- fever - vomit - loin pain - oliguria
138
UTI's What is a reinfection?
>2 weeks after eradication
139
UTI's What is recurrence?
><7 days and implies kidney problem
140
UTI's Investigation
- Dipstick - if leucocyte and nitrate positive - treat empirically - send off for MSU for MC&S
141
UTI's Treat?
1) Drink lots of water 2) Lower = trimethoprim 3) Upper = IV co-amoxiclav
142
STI's Primary, secondary and tertiary prevention ideas?
P - Posters, school teaching, pre/post exposure prophylaxis of HIV S- Partner tracing, screening <25 for chlamydia T- HAART, prophylactic Abx
143
STI's Partner notification benefits?
- Prevents re-infection - Breaks chain of infection - Prevents complications
144
STI's Causative organisms?
- Chlamydia trochomatis - Neisseria gonorrheoae - Treponema Pallidum = syphilis
145
STI's symptoms of C+G?
- dysuria and discharge - women = menstruation irregularity
146
STI's Diagnosis of C+G?
men = first void urine women = vaginal swab the nucleic acid amplification test
147
STI's Treat?
C = PO doxycycline & partner notification G = IM ceftriaxone and PO azithromycin
148
STI's What is Syphilis until proven otherwise?
genital ulcer
149
STI's Treat?
IM penicillin
150
STI's Symptoms of secondary syphilis?
- MAcular rash - Mucous membrane lesions - Bone pain - Alopecia
151
STI's Cycle of Syphilis?
- first 2 years is 'early syphilis' then latent then 'late syphilis' follows
152
what are Epidydimal Cysts?
collection of fluid in epididymis that can be diagnosed by feeling a cyst in the scrotum separate to testes
153
What is Hydrocele?
Cystic fluid in the tunica vaginalis
154
Primary and secondary cause of Hydrocele?
P - Potent processus vaginalis S- infection, tumour or trauma
155
What is Varicocele
Dilated pampniform plexus that feels like a bag of worms. Solid and separate from testes that is a dull ache and resolved by surgery
156
TESTICULAR TORSION What is it?
Twisting of spermatic cord - no blood supply
157
TESTICULAR TORSION Chances of testes being saved after: 24 hours? 6 hours?
after 24 hours - 90% unsavable before 6 hours - 90% savable
158
TESTICULAR TORSION Symptoms?
sudden onset pain in one testes - nausea - vomit - abdo pain
159
TESTICULAR TORSION Signs?
inflammation one testes (red, tender, swollen)
160
TESTICULAR TORSION What is the difference between epididymo-orchitis
epididymo-orchitis is normally slower onset of pain + UTI symptoms
161
TESTICULAR TORSION Treat and Ix?
- Doppler US + Surgeyr (untwisting of SC and fixed to scrotum)
162
EPIDIDYMO-ORCHITIS Cause?
- <35 chlamydia - >35 normally UTI
163
EPIDIDYMO-ORCHITIS Features?
painful testes, discharge, dysuria
164
EPIDIDYMO-ORCHITIS Investigations?
urine sample
165
EPIDIDYMO-ORCHITIS Treatment?
STI - Doxycycline + azithromycin UTI - Ciprofloxacin / Ceftriazone
166
ERECTILE DYSFUNCTION Pathology of erection?
1) Sexual stimulation by PNS = NO release = NO build up = cGMP build up 2) cGMP closes Ca2+ channels and opens K+ 3) hyperpolarises cells and causes of relaxation of smooth muscle 4) This allows engorgement of blood vessels
167
ERECTILE DYSFUNCTION What is proof of psychological ED?
still get morning erection
168
ERECTILE DYSFUNCTION Cause?
General - smoke, diabetes, alcohol + CVS disease Endocrine - hyperthyroidism, hypogonadism, Neuro - cord lesions, MS Drugs - Digoxin, Beta blockers, Diuretics, finasteride
169
ERECTILE DYSFUNCTION Bloods?
- glucose, U+E, FBC, LH/FSH, prolactin, testosterone, thyroid function
170
ERECTILE DYSFUNCTION treatment?
1st - oral PDE5 inhibitor - increases cGMP - Sildenafil 2nd - Vacuum aids / intracavernosal injection 3rd- prosthetics
171
What drug should be avoided in the 1st trimester of pregnancy?
Trimethoprim, Nitrofurantion should be used instead
172
Complications of Nephrotic Syndrome?
Atherosclerosis due to high cholesterol high blood pressure AKI and CKD