Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PA > Genitalia/EKG > Flashcards

Genitalia/EKG Flashcards

1
Q

The pelvic organs are supported by a sling of tissues composed of

A

muscle, ligaments and fascia, through which the urethra, vagina and rectum all pass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

in the United States the range of age of menarche is between

A

9 and 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Normal menses is

A

Every 24 to 32 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Menopause is defined as no menses for 12 months, and the average age of menopause is

A

no menses for 12 months; 45 to 52 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Although thought of as primarily a male problem, women can also have ___ in the groin

A

hernias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The SA node initiates the ___

A

normal rhythmic electrical impulse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

depolarization of the atria inscribes the ___ wave on the EKG

A

P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The SA node rhythmically depolarizes and this wave of depolarization spreads through the atria causing them to

A

contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Because the SA node is very small, you do not see

A

its electrical activity on the EKG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When the atrial depolarization stimulus reaches the AV node, depolarization slows, producing a brief pause, and allowing

A

the atrial blood to enter the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Once the depolarization reaches the ventricular conduction system, it conducts very rapidly through the ___ and the ___

A

Bundle of His (junctional bundle) and the left and right bundle branches and their subdivisions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The terminal filaments of the Purkinje fibers distribute the depolarization stimulus to the

A

ventricular myocardial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

P wave represents the

A

depolarization of the atria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The cells of the ventricles have the ___ firing rate, which is ___

A

slowest; 20-40 per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Depolarization of the ventricular myocardium produces the

A

QRS complex on the EKG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Following the QRS complex, there is a segment of the horizontal baseline knows as the ____ which represents the plateau phase of repolarization

A

ST segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The T wave represents

A

the final phase of ventricular depolarization (becomes negatively charged)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ventricular contraction (systole) begins with the ___ and lasts until the end of the ___

A

QRS; T wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A long QT interval often warns that the patient is vulnerable to

A

irregular rhythms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

PR interval normally lasts

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

QRS complex normally lasts

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

QT interval normally lasts

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The cardiac cycle is represented by

A

the P wave, the QRS complex, the T wave and the baseline that follows until another P wave appears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Physiologically, the cardiac cycle represents

A

atrial systole or atrial kick – ventricular systole – then the resting stage that follows until another cycle begins again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The limb leads record

A

activity in the coronal or frontal plane of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Electrical activity moving from right arm to left arm in lead I (negative to positive electrode) is recorded as a

A

positive deflection of the ECG tracing of lead I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The chest leads record activity in the

A

axial (horizontal) plane of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

VI and V2 chest leads are located at

A

the 4th ICS either side of sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

V4 chest lead is located at

A

5th ICS MCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

V3 chest lead is located

A

between V2 and V4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

V6 is located at the

A

5th ICS mitral area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

V5 is located at the

A

5th ICS between V4 and V6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Electrical activity moving towards the positive electrode from the negative electrode will be viewed as

A

upright complexes on the monitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When Lead II is used, both the flow of negative to positive impulses of the ECG machine and that of the heart are traveling in

A

the same direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Mons pubis

A

a hair-covered fat pad overlying the symphysis pubis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

labia majora

A

rounded folds of adipose tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

labia minora

A

thinner folds that extend anterior to form the prepuce and clitoris should be dark pink, moist, symmetric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

vestibule

A

boat shaped fossa between the labia minora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

introitus

A

Posterior portion of the vestibule that is the vaginal opening (introitus) which may be covered by the hymen in virgins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

perineum

A

the tissue between the introitus and anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Urethral meatus

A

opens in to the vestibule between the clitoris and the vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The openings of the Bartholin’s glands are located

A

posteriorly on either side of the vaginal opening, but are not usually visible.- secrete mucus to lubricate the vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Vagina is a hollow tube extending upward and posteriorly between the

A

urethra and rectum. It terminates in the cup-shaped fornix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The uterus is a

A

flattened fibromuscular structure shaped like an inverted pear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

2 parts of the uterus

A

the body and the cervix, which are joined together by the isthmus. The upper surface of the body is called the fundus. The cervix protrudes into the vagina.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Fallopian tubes extend from each side of the uterus toward the

A

ovary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The two ovaries are almond-shaped structures that vary in size but average

A

3.5 x 2 x 1.5 cm. The ovaries are palpable during reproductive years but fallopian tubes are normally not felt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The term adnexa refers to

A

the ovaries, tubes and supporting tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

vulvovaginal symptoms include

A

burning, itching, and the quantity and quality of discharge (including texture, amount, color, and smell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When asking about sexual history, be

A

professional and matter of fact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

If you suspect urethritis or inflammation of paraurethral glands, how should you inspect?

A

insert your index finger into the vagina and milk the urethra gently from inside outward; culture any discharge that has been “milked out”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Delayed puberty is often

A

familial or related to chronic illness Can also be due to abnormalities in the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary gland or ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Cystocele

A

bulge of the anterior vaginal wall, together with the bladder above it, that results from weakened supporting tissues. The upper two thirds of the vaginal wall are involved.

54
Q

Rectocele is the

A

bulging of the posterior wall of the vagina, together with the rectal wall behind it. Weakened supporting structure are the cause.

55
Q

Palpating the perineum should normally feel

A

thick, smooth and muscular in the nulliparous woman, and thin and more rigid in the multiparous woman

56
Q

prolapsed urethral mucosa is a

A

swollen red ring around the urethral meatus. Usually occurs before menarche or after menopause.

57
Q

The shaft of the penis is formed by three columns of

A

vascular erectile tissue

58
Q

three columns of vascular erectile tissue that compose the shaft of the penis are:

A

The corpus spongiosum, containing the urethra The two corpora cavernosa

59
Q

The corpus spongiosum forms the

A

bulb of the penis, ending in the cone-shaped glans with its expanded base, or corona

60
Q

In uncircumcised men, the glans is covered by a loose, hood-like fold of skin called the

A

prepuce, or foreskin, where smegma, or secretions of the glans, may collect

61
Q

The urethra opens into the vertical, slit-like

A

urethral meatus

62
Q

The scrotum is a

A

loose, wrinkled pouch divided into two compartments, each containing a testis

63
Q

On the posterolateral surface of each testis is the softer comma-shaped

A

epididymis

64
Q

The testes are ovoid, somewhat rubbery structures approximately ___ cm long

A

4.5

65
Q

The left testis usually lies somewhat ___ than the right

A

lower

66
Q

The vas deferens begins at the

A

tail of the epididymis

67
Q

The basic landmarks of the groin are the

A

anterior superior iliac spine, the pubic tubercle, and the inguinal ligament

68
Q

The inguinal canal, which lies ___, forms a tunnel for the vas deferens

A

above and parallel to the inguinal ligament

69
Q

When loops of bowel force their way through weak areas of the inguinal canal, they produce

A

inguinal hernias

70
Q

21-year-old male presents complaining of a “nodule” on the back of his left testicle found during testicular self-examination. On examination, you find both testicles to be of normal size, shape, and consistency. On the back of the left testicle in the area of the “nodule,” you find a soft, nodular, tubelike structure with no areas of abnormal tenderness. Your most likely diagnosis is: A. Acute epididymitis B. Cyst of the epididymis C. Normal epididymis D. Carcinoma of the epididymis

A

C

71
Q

Which of the following statements about hernias is true? A. Indirect inguinal hernias are the most common form of hernia B. Femoral hernias are the least common form and are more common in women C. Direct inguinal hernias are more common in men over age 40 D. Indirect inguinal hernias originate above the inguinal ligament near its midpoint E. All of the above

A

E

72
Q

An indirect inguinal hernia produces a bulge over the

A

midpoint of the inguinal ligament

73
Q

60 % of all hernias are

A

indirect inguinal hernia More common in infants and males 16-20 years

74
Q

Direct inguinal hernia herniates directly behind and through the

A

external inguinal ring above the inguinal ligament; rarely enters scrotum

75
Q

Direct inguinal hernias are usually

A

painless; round swelling close to the pubis in area of internal inguinal ring; easily reduced when supine

76
Q

Direct inguinal hernias are less common, usually found in men ages ___ and a result of ___

A

over 40 Acquired weakness; heavy lifting, obesity, ascites.

77
Q

Testicular CA is the most common cancer of

A

young men age 15-34 Males with undescended testicles are at greatest risk, and whites are 4 times more likely to get testicular CS than non-whites

78
Q

Testicular Self Examination (TSE)

A

T= timing; once a month S= shower; warm water relaxes scrotal sac E= examine; check for changes, report changes immediately

79
Q

Hernias are

A

protrusions of a part of the abdominal cavity within the peritoneal sac that goes through a weakened part in the abdominal wall.

80
Q

If the content of a hernia sac can be easily replaced the hernia is said to be

A

reducible. If not, the hernia is irreducible or incarcerated.

81
Q

When the blood supply of the incarcerated contents is interrupted the hernia is strangulated and __ may occur

A

gangrene

82
Q

Female Hernias

A

Much less common. To feel an indirect inguinal hernia palpate in the labia majora and upward to just lateral to the pubic tubercles. Most common is indirect inguinal hernia then femoral

83
Q

Femoral hernias

A

herniated through femoral ring and canal, below inguinal ligament more often on right side pain may be severe, may become strangulated least common ; more common in women Acquired weakness; heavy lifting, obesity, ascites.

84
Q

Prostate gland lies

A

in front of the anterior wall of the rectum and 2cm behind the symphysis pubis It is bi-lobed structure with a round or heart shape. It measures 2.5 cm long and 4 cm in diameter. The two lateral lobes are separated by a shallow groove called the median sulcus. The two seminal vesicles project like rabbit ears above the prostate.

85
Q

prostate gland has ___ ducts that open into the urethra and secretes ____

A

15-30 a thin, milky alkaline fluid that helps sperm viability

86
Q

Anal canal is about ___ long in adults

A

3.8cm

87
Q

two types of anal canal muscle sphincters

A

Internal- involuntary control by autonomic nervous system. External-surround the internal, under voluntary control

88
Q

There are anal columns, which are folds of mucosa that extend vertically down from rectum and end in anorectal junction. Each column has artery and vein. Sometimes veins enlarge and form a ____

A

hemorrhoid

89
Q

Flabby skin sac in the perianal area is a sign of

A

hemorrhoid

90
Q

Shiny blue skin sac in the perianal area is a sign of

A

thrombosed hemorrhoid

91
Q

Small round opening in anal area is indicative of a

A

fistula

92
Q

Inflammation or tenderness, swelling, tuft of hair or dimple at tip coccyx may indicate

A

pilonidal cysts.

93
Q

Circular red doughnut of tissue in the perianal area is a sign of

A

rectal prolapse

94
Q

Note that a false positive stool culture may occur if patient has

A

eaten significant amounts of red meat or beets within 3 days of the test

95
Q

mass in the anus: Carcinoma

A

asymptomatic An early lesion may be a single firm nodule with rolled edges. As lesion grow, it has an irregular cauliflower shape and is fixed and stonehard.

96
Q

Fecal impaction

A

hard feces often resulting from decreased bowel motility or retained barium after gi x-ray exam. The person may complain of constipation or of diarrhea as a fecal stream passes around impaction.

97
Q

Polyp in the anus:

A

A soft slightly movable mass – protruding growth from rectal mucosa. It ma be pedunculated (on a stalk) or sessile (a mound on the surface). Must have biopsy after proctoscopy.

98
Q

Main characteristics of the EKG graph paper

A
  • rolls out at 25 mm or 1 in/sec - each small box represents 0.04 seconds - each large box represents 0.2 seconds
99
Q

method of rate calculation:

A

count the RR interval and large boxes 300-150-100-75-60-50

100
Q

regular vs. regularly irregular vs. irregularly irregular heart patterns

A

regular: all RR of equal length regularly irregular: RR intervals of different lengths but overall pattern is present irregularly irregular: no overall pattern

101
Q

When do the coronary arteries fill?

A

diastole

102
Q

Normal Sinus Rhythm is when the SA nodes generate ___. On the EKG it looks like:

A

a regular sinus rhythm that paces the heart (60-100) on the EKG: consistent distance between the QRS complexes with a normal regular cardiac rhythm Regular rate and rhythm

103
Q

Atrial flutter originates in

A

an atrial automaticity focus

104
Q

In an atrial flutter, a single, strong ectopic focus in an atria start to beat fast at ____ BPM

A

250-350

105
Q

The AV node acts as the gatekeeper, blocking some of the impulses to the

A

ventricles

106
Q

Atrial fibrillation is caused by

A

many irritable atrial foci firing at rapid rates producing an rapid, erratic atrial rhythm

107
Q

Atrial fibrillation on the EKG is

A

a wavy baseline without P waves. The QRS response is not regular and may be fast or slow.

108
Q

Paroxysmal Supraventricular tachycardia is a term that encompasses both

A

paroxysmal atrial tachycardia and paroxysmal junctional tachycardia because they both originate above the ventricles

109
Q

In supraventricular tachycardia, the heart rate is ___ BPM

A

150-250

110
Q

supraventricular tachycardia occurs when there is a fast, strong stimulus above the ventricles but below the SA node, and the heart conducts

A

every beat

111
Q

A ventricular focus can be made irritable by what two things?

A

low O2 (airway obstruction, absence of air, low O2 content, reduced cardiac output, poor to absent coronary blood supply due to infarction or insufficiency) and low K (hypokalemia)

112
Q

A premature ventricular beat is called a ___. How does it originate?

A

premature ventricular contraction (PVC). It originates suddenly in an irritable automaticity focus in a ventricle and produces a giant ventricular complex on the EKG.

113
Q

There is usually a pause after the PVC called a compensatory pause while

A

the ventricles finish repolarizing to make the receptive again to the next SA node generated cycle

114
Q

Six or more PVC’s per minute is considered

A

pathological

115
Q

A run of three or more PVC’s in rapid succession is called a run of

A

Ventricular tachycardia (Vtach)

116
Q

Ventricular flutter or V-Tach is produced by

A

a single ventricular automaticity focus firing at an exceptionally rapid rate of 250-350 per minute. It has a smooth wave. It almost always deteriorates into ventricular fibrillation

117
Q

Also try to measure QRS width: less than ___ second with SVT; greater than ___ second in V-Tac

A

.14

118
Q

Ventricular fibrillation is a type of cardiac arrest caused by

A

rapid-rate discharges from many irritable ventricular foci, producing an erratic, rapid twitching of the ventricles.

119
Q

If patient is having ventricular fibrillation, they need

A

CPR and defibrillation

120
Q

What does ventricular fibrillation look like on the EKG?

A

There is a totally erratic appearance and lack of identifiable waves on the EKG.

121
Q

4 conduction abnormalities

A
  1. first-degree AV block 2. second-degree AV block type I 3. Second-degree AV block type II 4. Third-degree AV block
122
Q

Heart blocks can occur in what three places?

A
  • the SA node - the AV node - the larger division of the ventricular conduction system
123
Q

1 degree AV block occurs when the the impulse within the AV node is delayed, causing

A

a longer-than-normal pause before ventricular stimulation

124
Q

the delay of first degree block prolongs the PR interval more than ___ on the EKG

A

one large square (.2 second) measured from the beginning of the P wave to beginning of QRS complex

125
Q

Wenckebach phenomenon

A

2nd degree block in which the PR intervals become progressively longer from cycle to cycle until the AV node will no longer conduct a stimulus from above originates in AV node

126
Q

Mobitz II

A

2nd degree block where you have consistently normal PR interval but then a normal, punctual P wave with no QRS response originates below AV node in His bundles or bundle branches

127
Q

3rd degree Av block is also known as

A

complete Heart Block

128
Q

In 3rd degree AV block, there is ___ between the P waves and QRS complexes

A

no relationship

129
Q

In the sympathetic component of the autonomic nervous system, norepinephrine is secreted to B1 adrenergic receptors in the heart to elicit an excitatory response. This response has what 3 components?

A
  1. increases SA node pacing 2. increases force of myocardial contraction 3. Constricts arteries which increases blood pressure
130
Q

In the parasympathetic component of the autonomic nervous system, acetylcholine activate cholingeric receptors to product an inhibitory effect. This effect has what 3 components?

A
  1. Decreases SA node pacing 2. Decreases force of contraction 3. Dilates arteries which decreases blood pressure
131
Q
A

PA (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions