Genetics exam 1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
0
Q

define the principle of random segregation

A

different alleles for a particular gene occupy the same locus on homologous chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

a cross between two parents that differ in a single characteristic is called?

A

a monohybrid cross

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a gene?

A

a genetic factor that helps determine a trait. DNA that is transcribed into RNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an allele?

A

one of two or more alternate forms of a gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a locus?

A

specific place on a chromosome occupied by an Allele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This term defines a set of alleles possessed by an individual organism

A

Genotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Heterozygotes can be defined as?

A

an individual organism possessing two different alleles at a locus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

An individual organism possessing two of the same alleles at a locus

A

homozygote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The appearance of a given trait

A

phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Oculocutaneous albinism type 2 is due to a defect in the OCA gene on which chromosome?

A

Chromosome 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A genome is defined as a ?

A

complete set of genetic instructions for any organism either RNA or DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

This subdivision of genetics encompasses basic principles of heredity and how traits are passed from one generation to the next.

A

Transmission Genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This subdivision of genetics concerns the chemical nature of the gene itself and how genetic information is encoded, replicated, and expressed.

A

Molecular genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

This subdivision of genetics explores the genetic composition of groups of individual members of the same species and how that composition changes geographically and with the passage of time. It is fundamentally the study of evolution.

A

Population Genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Genetic information travels from different parts of the body to reproductive organs (gemmules)

A

Pangenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Inheritance of acquired characteristics proposes?…

A

acquired traits become incorporated into hereditary information.

ex: the blacksmith’s skills and upper body strength will be passed to his offspring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

miniature organisms that reside in sex cells, and all traits are inherited from one parent is the concept of?

A

Preformationism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When genes blend and mix

A

Blending inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The Germ-plasm theory explains that?

A

all cells contain a complete set of genetic information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

All life is composed of cells, and cells arise only from cells relates to which theory?

A

cell Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Traits are inherited in accord with defined principles describes this concept?

A

Mendelian Inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The nucleus is present in Prokaryotic cells. T/F

A

false, the nucleus as well membrane bound organelles are absent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

the short arm of a telocentric centromere is identified as? the long arm as?

A

short arm= p arm

long arm= q arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

a diploid organism has two sets of chromosomes organized as?

A

homologous pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

the stable ends of a chromosome

A

telomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

a constricted region of the chromosome where the kinetochores form and the spindle microtubules attach

A

centromere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

This cellular process results in an increase in cell numbers and resulting daughter cells that are genetically identical

A

Mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Interphase has two checkpoints before mitotic division occurs. where are they?

A

G1-S checkpoint, cell is committed to dividing after this checkpoint

G2-M checkpoint, the cell can begin division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

a non-dividing phase in interphase

A

G0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

DNA synthesis, chromosome replication, inactive cdc2 kinase, B(M) cyclin concentration begins to increase at the end of this phase

A

S phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

activated MPF in this phase leads to activities necessary for mitosis

A

G-2 phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Prior to S phase of the cell cycle, each chromosome consists of this many chromatids?

A

1 chromatid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

After S phase of the cell cycle, each chromosome consists of this many chromatids?

A

2- bound by a centromere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

in this phase, the nuclear membrane disintegrates and spindle microtubules attach to chromatids.

A

Pro-metaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

in this mitotic phase, the chromosome number has doubled and they have lined up along an equatorial plate

A

metaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

If cytokinesis does not occur there may be still be two nuclei, but they will be located in a single cell. resulting in an increase in ploidy. this is called?

A

Endomitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

in this phase, S cyclins bind to inactive cdc2 kinase and the cell is in growth and development

A

G-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

these cells spend more time in the G-1 stage and grow and become differentiated. examples: hematopoietic cells, epithelial cells in the gut lining and the epidermis

A

Labile cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

skeletal muscle cells, cardiac muscle cells, and neurons are classified as?

A

non-dividing cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

the fusion of hapoid gametes

A

fertilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

separation of sister chromatids occur in this stage of Meiosis. EQUATORIAL division.

A

Meiosis II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

separation of homologous chromosome pairs and REDUCTION of the chromosome number by half occurs in this stage of meiosis

A

Meiosis I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

pairing of homologous chromosomes is a major event in meiosis. this is celled?

A

Synapsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

IF Crossing over happens in this stage of mitosis, where segments of non sister chromatids are exchanged.

A

Prophase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Independent assortment produces variation without?

A

crossing-over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the five stages of Prophase?

A
  1. Leptotene
  2. Zygotene
  3. Pachytene
  4. Diplotene
  5. Diakinesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

when the synaptonemal complex forms because of the synapsis of homologous chromosomes (bivalents) the cell is in this stage of prophase?

A

Zygotene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

chromosomes are threadlike and begin to condense and become visible. The cell is in this stage of prophase?

A

Leptotene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

crossing-over begins and chromosomes become shorter and thicker

A

Pachytene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Crossing-over continues and the Chiasmata is well-defined.

A

Diplotene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

when Crossing-over is completed and the nuclear membrane is disrupted, the cell is in this stage of prophase?

A

Diakinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

whats a Tetrad?

A

closely associated four sister chromatids of two homologous chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

when the kinetochores face opposite poles, the cell is in?

A

Metaphase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

the end result for this stage is four genetically unique haploid daughter cells

A

Telophase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

This protein holds chromatids together during early parts of mitosis and Meiosis.

A

Cohesin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Cohesin at the centromere is protected by?

A

Shugoshin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

this enzyme breaks down Cohesin at the end of metaphase

A

Separase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

this protein keeps Separase inactive during interphase and early mitosis.

A

Securin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Monopolins are proteins that keep sister kinetochores oriented (away or towards) the same pole during metaphase I?

A

toward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Does random distribution of maternal and paternal chromosomes occur in Meiosis II?

A

no, only Meiosis I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

oogenesis results in __ female gamete and spermatogenesis results in ___ male gametes

A

1,4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Primary spermatocytes are haploid or diploid?

A

Diploid, they undergo meiosis I to produce haploid secondary spermatocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Spermatids differentiate into?

A

sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Primary oocytes become locked in this stage of Prophase I?

A

Diplotene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

in most mammals, the egg is ovulated at this stage?

A

metaphase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

up to three haploid small cells are each ootid (a haploid egg) can occur. these are known as?

A

Polar bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

the gametophyte stage in plants have a multicellular ___

A

haploid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

the Sporophyte stage in plants have a multicellular ___?

A

diploid

68
Q

two defective copies of the MC1R allele results in a person having this?

A

red hair.

69
Q

the Melanocortin-1 gene is located on this chromosome in humans

A

Chromosome 16

70
Q

increase in the production of Eumelanin gives offspring this hair color?

A

black or brown

71
Q

what is Pisum sativum?

A

the friggin Pea Plant!

72
Q

Mendel referred to the traits that appear unchanged in the heterozygous F1’s as?

A

Dominant

73
Q

traits that disappeared in the F1 heterozygotes were termed?

A

recessive

74
Q

when two different alleles are present in a genotype, only the trait encoded by one of them- the dominant allele-is observed in the phenotype

A

The concept of dominance

75
Q

Monohybrid crosses are explained by?

A

the principle of segregation

76
Q

what is Mendel’s first law?

A

principle of segregation

77
Q

Walter sutton contributed the?

A

chromosomal theory of heredity

78
Q

this man observed that each pair of homologous chromosomes consist of one maternal and one paternal chromosome and showed that homologous chromosomes segregate independently into gametes in meiosis

A

Walter Sutton

79
Q

Segregation results from?

A

the separation of homologous chromosomes in meiosis

80
Q

if no crossing-over takes place, the two chromatids of each chromosome segregate into anaphase II and are?

A

identical

81
Q

Independent assortment is which of Mendel’s law?

A

the second law

82
Q

the key indicator “and” is most likely this rule when you calculate independent probabilities

A

Multiplication rule

83
Q

The probability of any two or more mutually exclusive events is calculated by adding the probabilities of these events. Key indicators= “either” and “or”

A

Addition rule. yay you!

84
Q

a cross between an F1 genotype and either of two parental genotypes is a?

A

backcross

85
Q

a cross between an individual of unknown genotype and a homozygous recessive individual is a?

A

test cross.

86
Q

Dihybrid crosses illustrate this second mendelian law?

A

Principle of Independent assortment

87
Q

the Chi-square Goodness of Fit test indicates the probability that the difference between the observed and expected values is due to?

A

Chance

88
Q

Expected values are obtained by?

A

multiplying the expected proportion (%) by the total (#)

ex: 3/4 x 150= 112.5

89
Q

genotypic and phenotypic ratios are identical for?

A

incomplete dominance

90
Q

the production of both male and female gametes in the same individual.

A

monoecious

91
Q

the production of either male or female gametes in the same individual

A

Dioecious

92
Q

male and female sex determination is a characteristic of?

A

sexual phenotype

93
Q

both sexes in the organism describes this?

A

Hermaphroditism

94
Q

in the ZZ-ZW system, males express?

A

ZZ-homozygous

95
Q

birds, snakes, butterflies, fish, and some amphibians display this chromosomal sex determination system

A

ZZ-ZW

96
Q

Bees, wasps, and ants belong to this Chromosomal sex determining system

A

Haplodiploidy system

97
Q

in the Haplodiploidy system, males express this set while the females the other

A

Male-haploid set

Female- Diploid set

98
Q

Found in some plants, fungi, protozoans, and fish; this system only has the sex-determining genes but no sex chromosomes

A

Genic Sex-determining system

99
Q

Pseudoautosomal regions are regions where pairing occurs during meiosis, located?

A

at both tips of X and Y chromosomes- the short arm and the long arm

important in the MALE

100
Q

the secondary pseudoautosomal region is located where on the chromosome?

A

the tip of the LONG arm

101
Q

the primary pseudoautosomal region of the chromosome is located where?

A

the tip of the SHORT arm

102
Q

ZW sex determination occurs in this gender?

A

the female

103
Q

in Haplodiploidy, the males develop from?

A

UNFERTILIZED eggs and sperm are produced by MITOSIS. Somatic cells have a SINGLE set of chromosomes

104
Q

in haplodiploidy, the females develop?

A

FERTILIZED eggs and somatic cells have TWO sets of chromosomes

105
Q

Genes at one or more loci determine the sex of the individual is a concept of? found in?

A

Genetic Sex-determining systems

plants and protozoans

106
Q

Sequential hermaphroditism is an example of the “common slipper limpet” in this sex-determining system?

A

Environmental- where the males transform into females and mate with other males.

107
Q

heterogametic sex in the XX-XO system is characteristic of which sex?

A

the male

108
Q

Drosophila have how many chromosomes?

A

three pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes

total of 8

109
Q

does the presence of a Y chromosome determine maleness?

A

no. example, the Drosophila. each fly’s sex is determined by balance between genes on autosomes and genes on the X chromosome in a Genic Balance System.
* X-female
* Autosome-Male

110
Q

XXX is expressed as this sexual phenotype

A

Metafemale

111
Q

XXY is expressed as this phenotype

A

female

112
Q

XXXY is expressed as this sexual phenotype

A

metafemale

113
Q

three sets of haploid chromosomes with a sex chromosome complement of XX is expressed as this sexual phenotype

A

intersex

114
Q

three sets of haploid chromosomes with its sex chromosome complement XO is expressed as this sexual phenotype

A

Metamale

115
Q

three sets of haploid chromosomes with its sex chromosome complement XXXX is expressed as this sexual phenotype

A

metafemale

116
Q

what is the Sex determining region of the Y chromosome that causes neutral gonads to develop into testes?

A

sry gene

117
Q

sry gene encodes a protein that binds to this complex molecule to cause a sharp bend in the molecule

A

DNA

118
Q

the sry gene is located in this region of the chromosome?

A

the short arm

119
Q

the androgen receptor is encoded by a gene on which chromosome?

A

the X chromosome

120
Q

low hairline, broad chest, folds on neck, females with undeveloped sex characteristics, usually infertile, and a sex pair chromosome of XO in humans. this type of Androgen-sensitivity syndrome is known as?

A

Turner Syndrome

121
Q

This syndrome usually affects males that have aneuploidy in their sex chromosomes. XXY, XXXY, XXYY. They present with small testes, reduced facial and pubic hair, and often taller than normal.

A

Klinefelter Syndrome

122
Q

the concept that the Barr body is an inactive X chromosome

A

Dosage Compensation

123
Q

the number of Barr bodies correlate with the number of X chromosomes - 1. X-1=#of Barr bodies.

XXXY will have how many Barr bodies based on the above info?

A

2

124
Q

X inactivation is brought about by the action of this? an RNA molecule

A

Xist- X inactivation specific transcript

125
Q

Xist RNA modifies Histones how?

A

methylation, deacetylation, and alteration of histone composition.

126
Q

which region escapes X inactivation?

A

pseudoautosomal region

127
Q

X inactivation takes place in humans during the 3rd month of development. T/F?

A

false, occurs during the first few weeks

128
Q

mutated CFTR causes chloride channels to remain closed which results in thick, sticky mucous on the apical surface of respiratory epithelial cells. This genetic disorder is known as? and which chromosome defect does it occur on?

A

Cystic Fibrosis. the long arm of Chromsome 7

129
Q

at the Phenotypic level, heterozygotes produce both normal and mutated CFTR at the cellular level. These people would be Carriers of the gene. This is an example of?

A

Co-dominance

130
Q

if the phenotype of the heterozygote falls between (red, hot pink, pale pink, white) the phenotype range (red or white) of the two homozygotes, dominance is said to be?

A

Incomplete.

131
Q

Phenotypes of the Heterozygotes includes the phenotypes of both homozygotes

A

Codominance

132
Q

phenotype of the heterozygote is the same as the phenotype of ONE of the homozygotes.

A

Complete dominance

133
Q

the percentage of individuals having a specific genotype that express the expected phenotype

A

Penetrance

134
Q

the degree to which a character is expressed

A

Expressivity

135
Q

Human polydactyly exhibits?

A

incomplete penetrance and variable expressivity

136
Q

type O blood are the?

A

universal donors

137
Q

Type AB blood are the?

A

universal recipients

138
Q

B type blood produce which antigen and antibody type?

A

Antigen- B

Antibody-A

139
Q

if your body produces Anti A and Anti B, which blood type do you have?

A

Type O ii

140
Q

a person with type A blood received blood with A antibodies. will anything happen?

A

yes, the person received type B blood and the person is not compatible with the donation. the blood will clump together.

141
Q

the masking of one gene by another gene at a different locus is called?

A

Epistasis

142
Q

the gene that is masked is called the?

A

Hypostatic gene

143
Q

the gene that does the masking is called the?

A

Epistatic gene

144
Q

recessive epistasis refers to the presence of?

A

either two homozygous recessive genotypes that will mask the hypostatic gene.

145
Q

homozygous dominant or heterozygous genotypes that mask the effects of the hypostatic gene is called?

A

Dominant epistasis.

146
Q

how does the Bombay phenotype help explain epistasis?

A

people with the Bombay phenotype are homozygous for a recessive (h) mutation that fails to convert the intermediate into dominant (H). Type O blood can result from the masking of a terminal sugar on compound H or from the absence of compound H itself. Genotypes at both the H locus and the ABO locus determine the ABO blood type.

147
Q

a duplicate recessive epistasis with a 9:7 ratio results in snails expressing?

A

Albinism

148
Q

a ratio of 12:3:1 yields this type of interaction?

A

dominant epistasis.

149
Q

recessive epistasis gives this ratio

A

9:3:4

150
Q

a typical phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1 gives this type of interaction

A

no interaction takes place.

151
Q

when does Complementation occur?

A

if an individual organism possessing two recessive mutations has a wild-type phenotype

ex:eye color in Drosophila

152
Q

Sex-influence characters are determined by?

A

autosomal genes according to Mendelian principles. expressed differently in males and females

153
Q

Sex-limited characters are determined by?

A

autosomal genes, expressed in only one sex, and have zero penetrance in the opposite sex

ex: cock-feathered males vs hen-feathered males.

154
Q

Cock-feathering is an Autosomal dominant or recessive trait?

A

recessive

155
Q

characteristics of these traits present in males and females, usually inherited from the maternal parent, exhibit extensive phenotypic variation, and the reciprocal crosses yield different results

A

Cytoplasmically inherited traits.

ex: stem and leaf color in the four’o clock plant

156
Q

the genotype of the mother determines the phenotype of the offspring but not its own.

A

Genetic Maternal effect

157
Q

Prader-Willi and Angelman syndrome are examples of this differential expression

A

Genomic Imprinting

158
Q

this mutation deletion in the long arm of Chromosome 15 is inherited from the Father

A

Prader-Willi Syndrome

159
Q

this mutation deletion is in the long arm of Chromosome 15 inherited from the Mother

A

Angelman Syndrome

160
Q

in Mammals, methylation is erased in Germ cells of each generation and then reestablished in the course of?

A

gamete formation

161
Q

sperm and eggs undergo different levels of ____, resulting in the differential expression of male and female alleles in the offspring.

A

methylation

162
Q

human lgf2 locus is located on the?

A

short arm of Chromosome 11

163
Q

Characteristics with only a few easily distinguishable phenotypes defines this term. “Qualitative”

A

Discontinuous Characteristics.

ex: tall vs short, red vs white

164
Q

Characteristics by a continuous distribution of phenotypes. “Quantitative” often polygenic and or multifactorial

A

Continuous Characteristics

ex: human weight, human height, milk production in cattle, and Blood pressure in humans.

165
Q

define polygenic characteristics

A

characteristics encoded by gene at multiple loci

ex:kernel color in wheat

166
Q

characteristics that are polygenic and also influenced by environmental factors is? an example is Human intelligence

A

Multifactorial

167
Q

Pleiotrophy is?

A

when one gene affects multiple characteristics

ex: recessive allele for phenylketonuria

168
Q

Fragile X syndrome and Huntington disease are examples of?

A

Anticipation- related to expanding nucleotide sequences