Genetics CH 17, 18, 20

Question 1

Which of the following would be an example of a cis acting eukaryotic gene regulatory element?
Question 1 Answer

a.
RNA polymerase

b.
metallothionein

c.
general transcription factors

d.
TATA binding protein

e.
enhancer

Answer 1

enhancer

Question 2

Two modular elements that appear as consensus sequences upstream from RNA polymerase II transcription start sites are ________.
Question 2 Answer

a.
microsatellites and transposons

b.
rDNA and nucleolar organizers

c.
TATA and CAAT

d.
TTAA and CCTT

e.
enhancers and telomeres

Answer 2

TATA and CAAT

Question 3

The GAL gene system in yeast is used to metabolize galactose. In the presence of galactose, the GAL genes are expressed; however, in the absence of galactose, the GAL genes are repressed. A yeast mutant is discovered that continuously expresses the GAL genes in the presence or absence of galactose. Which GAL gene is likely mutated?
Question 3 Answer

a.
GAL4

b.
GAL180

c.
GAL3

d.
GAL1

e.
GAL 10

Answer 3

GAL180

Question 4

In a particular organism, there are two similar genes called YFG1 and YFG2. YFG1 is expressed in the liver and not in the pancreas, and YFG2 is expressed in the pancreas but not the liver. Neither YFG1 nor YFG2 is expressed in the heart. Based on these observations, which of the following is most true?
Question 4 Answer

a.
The YFG1 gene isolated from the pancreas and the YFG2 gene isolated from the liver would be DNase I sensitive.

b.
The YFG1 gene isolated from the liver and YFG2 gene isolated from the pancreas would be DNase I sensitive.

c.
Both YFG1 and YFG2 genes isolated from the heart would be DNase I sensitive.

d.
Both YFG1 and YFG2 genes isolated from any tissue (the liver, the pancreas, and the heart) would be DNase I sensitive.

e.
Neither YFG1 nor YFG2 isolated from any tissue (the liver, the pancreas, and the heart) would be DNase I sensitive.

Answer 4

Both YFG1 and YFG2 genes isolated from the heart would be DNase I sensitive.

Question 5

UASs (upstream activating sequences) are DNase hypersensitive. This means that ________.
Question 5 Answer

a.
a UAS is constitutively open

b.
more than one strand of DNA exists in each UAS

c.
each UAS is likely to be single stranded

d.
each UAS has more histone-binding sites than non-UAS sites

e.
any given UAS is composed of a double-stranded site with a bound repressor

Answer 5

a UAS is constitutively open

Question 6

Which of the following is true about histone acetyltransferase (HAT)?
Question 6 Answer

a.
HATs will remove acetyl groups from histone proteins.

b.
HATs will add acetyl groups to DNA.

c.
HATs will make the chromatin more compacted and less available to transcription regulatory proteins.

d.
HATs are usually linked to increasing gene expression.

e.
HATs have an overall effect of increasing the positive charges on DNA.

Answer 6

HATs are usually linked to increasing gene expression.

Question 7

The ENCODE Project’s goal was to identify all functional DNA sequences within the human genome. Which of the following is a finding from ENCODE?
Question 7 Answer

a.
ENCODE determined that approximately 15% of the human genome codes for a protein.

b.
ENCODE determined that approximately 25% of the human genome has some sort of biochemical function.

c.
ENCODE was able to classify that a large part of the human genome is “Junk DNA.”

d.
ENCODE was able to determine that each enhancer exerts its regulatory function on only a single gene.

e.
ENCODE was able to determine that 75% of the genome is transcribed in at least one cell type.

Answer 7

ENCODE was able to determine that 75% of the genome is transcribed in at least one cell type.

Question 8

The pre-initiation complex (PIC) contains several proteins. What would be the direct consequence be if PIC failed to form?
Question 8 Answer

a.
Replication would not be initiated.

b.
Translation would not be initiated.

c.
Transcription would not be initiated.

d.
mRNA splicing would not be initiated.

e.
Protein would not fold properly.

Answer 8

Transcription would not be initiated

Question 9

A regulatory sequence of DNA that is 10,000 base pairs away from the gene it regulates is mutated. The result is that the gene being regulated is now expressed at a higher rate compared to when this regulatory sequence was not mutated. What would this sequence of DNA best be called?
Question 9 Answer

a.
insulator

b.
activator protein

c.
enhancer

d.
silencer

e.
zinc finger motif

Answer 9

silencer

Question 10

The nuclear regions that contain RNA polymerase and transcription regulatory molecules that help compartmentalize eukaryotic regulation are called ________.
Question 10 Answer

a.
chromosome territories

b.
interchromatin compartments

c.
transcription factories

d.
nucleosomes

e.
histones

Answer 10

transcription factories

Question 11

If a promoter region is mutated in such a way that it can no longer be methylated, what would the most likely effect be?
Question 11 Answer

a.
The gene linked to that promoter would be over expressed.

b.
The gene linked to that promoter would not undergo replication.

c.
The gene linked to the promoter would be under expressed.

d.
The gene linked to the promoter would be expressed at regular levels.

e.
The gene linked to the promoter would still be expressed, but the protein should contain different amino acids.

Answer 11

The gene linked to that promoter would be over expressed.

Question 12

Which of the following clusters of terms apply when addressing enhancers or silencers as elements associated with eukaryotic genetic regulation?
Question 12 Answer

a.
cis-acting, variable orientation, variable position

b.
trans-acting, fixed position, fixed orientation

c.
cis-acting, fixed position, fixed orientation

d.
cis-acting, variable position, fixed orientation

e.
trans- and cis-acting, variable position

Answer 12

cis-acting, variable orientation, variable position

Question 13

Considering the location of genes in the interphase nucleus, certain chromosomal territories appear to exist. Specifically, ________.
Question 13 Answer

a.
each chromosome appears to occupy a discrete domain

b.
gene-poor regions of chromosomes are located outside the nucleus, whereas gene-rich regions are located inside the nucleus

c.
even-numbered chromosomes are located in the interior of the nucleus, whereas odd-numbered chromosomes are located peripherally

d.
large chromosomes are more likely to be located in the center of the nucleus

e.
small chromosomes are more likely to be located in the center of the nucleus

Answer 13

each chromosome appears to occupy a discrete domain

Question 14

What is the general position of the consensus sequence called the GC box? What is its sequence?
Question 14 Answer

a.
promoter; CAAT

b.
promoter; GGGCGG

c.
terminator; CAAT

d.
terminator; GGGCGG

e.
attenuator; GGGCGG

Answer 14

promoter; GGGCGG

Question 15

What type of DNA sequence is a repressor protein be expected to bind?
Question 15 Answer

a.
silencer

b.
enhancer

c.
insulator

d.
TATA Box

e.
GC Box

Answer 15

silencer

Question 16

DNA is methylated on which nucleotides?
Question 16 Answer

a.
guanine

b.
cytosine

c.
adenine

d.
thymine

e.
uracil

Answer 16

cytosine

Question 17

Gene regulation in eukaryotes is more complicated than bacterial gene regulation. Which of the following describes a gene regulation event that occurs in eukaryotes but not in bacteria?
Question 17 Answer

a.
In eukaryotes, transcription and translation occur in the same cellular compartment.

b.
In eukaryotes, mRNA does not need to be modified.

c.
In eukaryotes, histones must be added or removed to regulate gene expression.

d.
In eukaryotes, mRNA degrades quickly compared to bacterial mRNA that is more stable.

e.
In eukaryotes, proteins are post-translationally modified, whereas bacterial proteins are never post-translationally modified.

Answer 17

In eukaryotes, histones must be added or removed to regulate gene expression.

Question 18

Which of the following is a functional domain that is found in eukaryotic transcription factors and bacteria?
Question 18 Answer

a.
basic leucine zipper motif

b.
zinc finger motif

c.
helix-turn-helix motif

d.
basic leucine zipper and zinc finger motifs

e.
basic leucine zipper, zinc finger, and helix-turn-helix motifs

Answer 18

helix-turn-helix motif

Question 19

Which process seems to be the most similar between eukaryotic and prokaryotic genetic regulations?
Question 19 Answer

a.
transcriptional regulation

b.
RNA splicing regulation

c.
intron/exon shuffling

d.
5’-capping regulation

e.
poly(A) tail addition

Answer 19

transcriptional regulation

Question 20

In what way do upstream activator sequences (UASs), regulatory sequences in yeast, differ from enhancers and silencers?
Question 20 Answer

a.
UASs function only downstream.

b.
UASs function only upstream.

c.
Enhancers function only downstream.

d.
UASs function in the middle of transcription units.

e.
UASs can function only in the 5’→ 3’ direction.

Answer 20

UASs function only upstream.

Question 21

What is deadenylation?
Question 1 Answer

a.
Addition of methyl cap

b.
Poly-A tail elongation

c.
Shortening of poly-A tail

d.
Exon shuffling

Answer 21

Shortening of poly-A tail

Question 22

Which disorder is caused by splicing defects?
Question 2 Answer

a.
Diabetes

b.
Influenza

c.
Alzheimer’s

d.
Myotonic dystrophy

Answer 22

Myotonic dystrophy

Question 23

What determines steady-state mRNA level?
Question 3 Answer

a.
DNA methylation

b.
Translation efficiency

c.
Transcription and degradation rates

d.
Polyadenylation only

Answer 23

Transcription and degradation rates

Question 24

What happens if miRNA imperfectly pairs with mRNA?
Question 4 Answer

a.
mRNA is cleaved

b.
Translation is inhibited

c.
Transcription increases

d.
Ribosomes degrade

Answer 24

Translation is inhibited

Question 25

The RISC complex contains which key protein for RNAi activity? Question 5 Answer a. Dicer b. Drosha c. Argonaute (AGO) d. Mdm2

Answer 25

Argonaute (AGO)

Question 26

Which type of alternative splicing involves use of different polyadenylation sites? Question 6 Answer a. Cassette exons b. Intron retention c. Alternative polyadenylation d. Mutually exclusive exons

Answer 26

Alternative polyadenylation

Question 27

What happens during intron retention? Question 7 Answer a. Introns are skipped b. Introns are retained in mature mRNA c. Exons are silenced d. mRNA is stabilized

Answer 27

Introns are retained in mature mRNA

Question 28

What is the function of ZBP1? Question 8 Answer a. Decaps mRNA b. Blocks translation until mRNA reaches the destination c. Promotes degradation d. Splices exons

Answer 28

Blocks translation until mRNA reaches the destination

Question 29

What initiates the RNAi pathway? Question 9 Answer a. Single-stranded DNA b. Double-stranded RNA c. tRNA d. Exon skipping

Answer 29

Double-stranded RNA

Question 30

What do adenosine-uridine rich elements (AREs) regulate? Question 10 Answer a. DNA replication b. Protein degradation c. mRNA stability d. Ribosome formation

Answer 30

mRNA stability

Question 31

In female Drosophila, which gene activates Transformer (tr)? Question 11 Answer a. Mdm2 b. dsx c. Sxl d. RISC

Answer 31

Sxl

Question 32

Which of the following is NOT a function of long noncoding RNAs (lncRNAs)? Question 12 Answer a. Serving as competing endogenous RNAs b. Enhancing mRNA degradation via AREs c. Regulating cell differentiation d. Sequestering microRNAs

Answer 32

Enhancing mRNA degradation via AREs

Question 33

What is the function of RISC? Question 13 Answer a. Bind DNA b. Unwind siRNA and cleave mRNA c. Cap RNA d. Remove poly-A tails

Answer 33

Unwind siRNA and cleave mRNA

Question 34

Which is the most common posttranslational modification? Question 14 Answer a. Acetylation b. Phosphorylation c. Methylation d. Hydroxylation

Answer 34

Phosphorylation

Question 35

Which RBP promotes mRNA degradation via AREs? Question 15 Answer a. HuR b. TTP c. ZBP1 d. SR proteins

Answer 35

TTP

Question 36

Which element allows multiple transcription initiation sites? Question 16 Answer a. Polyadenylation b. Splice silencers c. Alternative promoters d. Exon skipping

Answer 36

Alternative promoters

Question 37

What is the final destination where ZBP1 releases mRNA for translation? Question 17 Answer a. Golgi apparatus b. Ribosome initiation site c. Cell periphery d. Nucleolus

Answer 37

Cell periphery

Question 38

Which type of sequence acts as a localization signal in mRNAs? Question 18 Answer a. ARE b. Zip code c. siRNA d. RBP motif

Answer 38

Zip code

Question 39

What is the role of ubiquitin? Question 19 Answer a. Stabilizes RNA b. Tags proteins for degradation c. Enhances translation d. Promotes splicing

Answer 39

Tags proteins for degradation

Question 40

What is the role of decapping enzymes? Question 20 Answer a. Add 5' cap b. Remove 5' cap c. Splice introns d. Stabilize RNA

Answer 40

Remove 5' cap

Question 41

What triggers ZBP1 to release mRNA? Question 21 Answer a. Dicer cleavage b. Poly-A addition c. Src phosphorylation d. ARE binding

Answer 41

Src phosphorylation

Question 42

What is the major role of Drosha? Question 22 Answer a. Polyadenylation b. Translation initiation c. Processing pri-miRNA to pre-miRNA d. Protein degradation

Answer 42

Processing pri-miRNA to pre-miRNA

Question 43

Which protein binds CPE? Question 23 Answer a. TTP b. CPEB c. AGO d. RISC

Answer 43

CPEB

Question 44

Which enzyme adds phosphate groups? Question 24 Answer a. Ligase b. Kinase c. Helicase d. Spliceosome

Answer 44

Kinase

Question 45

Which protein regulates the cell cycle in response to DNA damage? Question 25 Answer a. Mdm2 b. TRA c. DSX d. p53

Answer 45

p53

Question 46

What determines sex in Drosophila? Question 26 Answer a. Presence of Y chromosome b. X:A ratio c. Sxl gene on Y chromosome d. Poly-A tail length

Answer 46

X:A ratio

Question 47

Which element stabilizes mRNA by blocking degradation machinery? Question 27 Answer a. TTP b. HuR c. AGO d. Dicer

Answer 47

HuR

Question 48

Which protein binds to poly-A tail to stabilize mRNA? Question 29 Answer a. RISC b. Poly-A binding protein c. TTP d. Drosha

Answer 48

Poly-A binding protein

Question 49

What is the role of lncRNAs like linc-MD1? Question 30 Answer a. Splice DNA b. Degrade proteins c. Sequester miRNAs and regulate differentiation d. Cap mRNA

Answer 49

Sequester miRNAs and regulate differentiation

Question 50

What happens in nonsense-mediated decay (NM? Question 31 Answer a. Translation starts early b. Proteins are misfolded c. mRNA with premature stop codons is degraded d. Only poly-A tails are affected

Answer 50

mRNA with premature stop codons is degraded

Question 51

What does RNA interference (RNAi) do? Question 32 Answer a. Enhances gene transcription b. Cuts DNA c. Represses translation and degrades mRNA d. Activates ribosomes

Answer 51

Represses translation and degrades mRNA

Question 52

What is the role of hnRNPs in splicing regulation? Question 33 Answer a. Activate the spliceosome b. Promote polyadenylation c. Inhibit splicing d. Cap the mRNA

Answer 52

Inhibit splicing

Question 53

Which type of alternative splicing is most common in animals? Question 34 Answer a. Intron retention b. Cassette exons c. Mutually exclusive exons d. Alternative promoters

Answer 53

Cassette exons

Question 54

Which proteins bind to splicing enhancers? Question 35 Answer a. hnRNPs b. TTP c. SR proteins d. Argonaute

Answer 54

SR proteins

Question 55

Which RBP can both stabilize and degrade mRNAs depending on the target and context? Question 36 Answer a. Dicer b. HuR c. AGO d. ZBP1

Answer 55

HuR

Question 56

Which two miRNAs are sequestered by linc-MD1? Question 37 Answer a. miR-122 and miR-21 b. miR-133 and miR-135 c. miR-100 and miR-200 d. siR-7 and siR-9

Answer 56

miR-133 and miR-135

Question 57

Which enzyme removes phosphate groups? Question 38 Answer a. Kinase b. Polymerase c. Phosphatase d. Ligase

Answer 57

Phosphatase

Question 58

Which enzyme is responsible for cleaving mRNAs at internal sites during degradation? Question 39 Answer a. Exoribonuclease b. Polymerase c. Endonuclease d. Ligase

Answer 58

Endonuclease

Question 59

What is the main purpose of alternative splicing? Question 40 Answer a. Replicate DNA b. Increase protein diversity c. Destroy mRNA d. Inhibit translation

Answer 59

Increase protein diversity

Question 60

Alternative splicing can generate up to how many different polypeptides from one mRNA in the given example? Question 41 Answer a. 48 b. 4,096 c. 38,016 d. 128

Answer 60

38,016

Question 61

Mutually exclusive exons allow for: Question 43 Answer a. Redundancy in exon sequences b. Simultaneous inclusion of multiple exons c. One exon to be chosen from a group, excluding others d. Complete intron removal

Answer 61

One exon to be chosen from a group, excluding others

Question 62

Which of the following best describes cassette exons? Question 44 Answer a. Exons that are always retained b. Exons that may be skipped or included c. Introns used as exons d. Exons that lack poly-A tails

Answer 62

Exons that may be skipped or included

Question 63

What are isoforms? Question 45 Answer a. Noncoding RNAs b. Identical proteins from different genes c. Different proteins from the same gene d. Silent mutations

Answer 63

Different proteins from the same gene

Question 64

How is p53 regulated in healthy cells? Question 46 Answer a. Overexpressed b. Silenced by methylation c. Degraded by Mdm2 d. Promotes mRNA decay

Answer 64

Degraded by Mdm2

Question 65

What does Dicer do? Question 47 Answer a. Transcribes DNA b. Removes poly-A tails c. Processes double-stranded RNA into siRNA or miRNA d. Adds 5' caps

Answer 65

Processes double-stranded RNA into siRNA or miRNA

Question 66

What does the cytoplasmic polyadenylation element (CPE) do? Question 48 Answer a. Initiates DNA replication b. Represses splicing c. Regulates mRNA translation timing d. Tags proteins for degradation

Answer 66

Regulates mRNA translation timing

Question 67

What happens to Mdm2 during DNA damage? Question 49 Answer a. It binds more strongly to p53 b. It is silenced c. It is phosphorylated and releases p53 d. It splices p53 mRNA

Answer 67

It is phosphorylated and releases p53

Question 68

What does the proteasome do? Question 50 Answer a. Replicates DNA b. Synthesizes RNA c. Degrades proteins d. Splices mRNA

Answer 68

Degrades proteins

Question 69

PCR does not require: Question 1 Answer a. Primers b. dNTPs c. Host cells d. DNA polymerase

Answer 69

Host cells

Question 70

Transformation is the process of: Question 2 Answer a. Cutting DNA b. Sequencing DNA c. Introducing plasmids into bacteria d. Synthesizing proteins

Answer 70

Introducing plasmids into bacteria

Question 71

Guide RNA in CRISPR directs Cas9 to: Question 3 Answer a. Ribosomes b. tRNA c. Specific DNA sequence d. Mitochondria

Answer 71

Specific DNA sequence

Question 72

Dideoxynucleotides stop DNA synthesis because: Question 4 Answer a. They are unstable b. They lack a 3’ OH group c. They are toxic d. They bind RNA

Answer 72

They lack a 3’ OH group

Question 73

Expression vectors are designed to: Question 5 Answer a. Inhibit gene function b. Express cloned genes c. Cut DNA d. Inactivate host genes

Answer 73

Express cloned genes

Question 74

What kind of sequences do restriction enzymes recognize? Question 6 Answer a. Antisense sequences b. Palindromic sequences c. Exons only d. Promoter regions

Answer 74

Palindromic sequences

Question 75

λ phage vectors can carry up to: Question 7 Answer a. 5 kb b. 20 kb c. 45 kb d. 100 kb

Answer 75

45 kb

Question 76

Yeast is a good host because it can: Question 8 Answer a. Be grown in soil b. Post-translationally modify proteins c. Infect mammalian cells d. Carry phage vectors

Answer 76

Post-translationally modify proteins

Question 77

PCR amplifies DNA using: Question 9 Answer a. RNA probes b. Taq polymerase c. Ligase d. DNA helicase

Answer 77

Taq polymerase

Question 78

Western blot detects: Question 10 Answer a. DNA b. RNA c. Proteins d. Lipids

Answer 78

Proteins

Question 79

Electroporation uses: Question 11 Answer a. Chemicals b. Antibiotics c. High-voltage pulses d. UV radiation

Answer 79

High-voltage pulses

Question 80

Expression vectors differ from cloning vectors by: Question 12 Answer a. Carrying no insert b. Replicating in RNA c. Allowing protein expression d. Preventing transcription

Answer 80

Allowing protein expression

Question 81

Targeting vectors are introduced into: Question 13 Answer a. Yeast cells b. Embryonic stem cells c. Plasmids d. Transcription factors

Answer 81

Embryonic stem cells

Question 82

CRISPR-Cas9 allows for: Question 14 Answer a. Random mutation b. Specific gene editing c. RNA amplification d. DNA ligation

Answer 82

Specific gene editing

Question 83

PCR stands for: Question 15 Answer a. Primary Cloning Reaction b. Polymerase Chain Reaction c. Protein Chain Repair d. Primer Cloning Reagent

Answer 83

Polymerase Chain Reaction

Question 84

The three steps in PCR are: Question 16 Answer a. Translation, transcription, replication b. Denaturation, annealing, extension c. Cloning, ligation, selection d. Digestion, hybridization, purification

Answer 84

Denaturation, annealing, extension

Question 85

Plasmids are: Question 17 Answer a. Chromosomal DNA b. Single-stranded DNA c. Extrachromosomal circular DNA d. RNA fragments

Answer 85

Extrachromosomal circular DNA

Question 86

BACs and YACs are used for cloning: Question 18 Answer a. Short sequences b. Whole plasmids c. Large DNA fragments d. RNA molecules

Answer 86

Large DNA fragments

Question 87

A restriction map shows: Question 19 Answer a. Protein expression b. Gene size and cut sites c. RNA locations d. Promoter activity

Answer 87

Gene size and cut sites

Question 88

A genomic library contains: Question 20 Answer a. Only coding sequences b. mRNA c. All DNA sequences in a genome d. Only mutated genes

Answer 88

All DNA sequences in a genome

Question 89

The Ti plasmid is used to: Question 21 Answer a. Clone human genes b. Sequence DNA c. Transform plant cells d. Synthesize proteins in yeast

Answer 89

Transform plant cells

Question 90

Blue-white screening distinguishes recombinant plasmids by: Question 22 Answer a. Color of colonies on X-gal b. Size of colonies c. Temperature growth preference d. UV fluorescence

Answer 90

Color of colonies on X-gal

Question 91

Sticky ends are: Question 23 Answer a. Double-stranded blunt ends b. Single-stranded overhangs c. Palindromes d. Ribosomal sequences

Answer 91

Single-stranded overhangs

Question 92

The Cas9 protein functions as a: Question 24 Answer a. Restriction enzyme b. DNA polymerase c. Nuclease d. Transcription factor

Answer 92

Nuclease

Question 93

RT-PCR is used to study: Question 25 Answer a. Protein folding b. mRNA expression c. DNA mutations d. Restriction enzymes

Answer 93

mRNA expression

Question 94

Library screening helps to: Question 26 Answer a. Clone entire genomes b. Find specific genes c. Transfect animals d. Sequence chromosomes

Answer 94

Find specific genes

Question 95

Southern blot detects: Question 27 Answer a. RNA b. Proteins c. DNA sequences d. Carbohydrates

Answer 95

DNA sequences

Question 96

A DNA molecule used to carry foreign DNA into a host is called a: Question 28 Answer a. Ligase b. Primer c. Vector d. Promoter

Answer 96

Vector

Question 97

qPCR measures DNA in: Question 29 Answer a. RNA copies b. Endpoint detection c. Real-time d. Colony-forming units

Answer 97

Real-time

Question 98

What is the function of restriction enzymes? Question 30 Answer a. Repair DNA b. Ligate DNA fragments c. Cut DNA at specific sites d. Denature proteins

Answer 98

Cut DNA at specific sites

Question 99

Chimeric mice result from: Question 31 Answer a. Southern blot b. DNA sequencing c. Injecting recombinant stem cells into embryos d. Plasmid transformation

Answer 99

Injecting recombinant stem cells into embryos

Question 100

A null mouse (-/-) lacks functional: Question 32 Answer a. Protein entirely b. mRNA c. Enzyme inhibitors d. Genome

Answer 100

Protein entirely

Question 101

Sanger sequencing uses: Question 33 Answer a. RNA templates b. dideoxynucleotides c. Reverse transcriptase d. Restriction enzymes

Answer 101

dideoxynucleotides

Question 102

Computer-automated sequencing is based on: Question 34 Answer a. Northern blot b. PCR c. Sanger method d. DNA ligase activity

Answer 102

Sanger method

Question 103

CRISPR creates: Question 35 Answer a. Protein degradation b. RNA silencing c. Double-strand breaks d. DNA ligase complexes

Answer 103

Double-strand breaks

Question 104

cDNA libraries are made from: Question 36 Answer a. Genomic DNA b. mRNA c. Plasmids d. Restriction enzymes

Answer 104

mRNA

Question 105

Gene targeting manipulates: Question 37 Answer a. Entire genomes b. Non-specific DNA c. Specific genes d. RNA

Answer 105

Specific genes

Question 106

Which enzyme joins DNA fragments together? Question 38 Answer a. DNA polymerase b. RNA polymerase c. Reverse transcriptase d. DNA ligase

Answer 106

DNA ligase

Question 107

Which technique allows exponential amplification of DNA? Question 39 Answer a. Southern blot b. cDNA synthesis c. PCR d. Cloning vector

Answer 107

PCR

Question 108

What is recombinant DNA? Question 40 Answer a. DNA that occurs naturally b. DNA joined from different sources c. RNA joined with DNA d. DNA copied using PCR

Answer 108

DNA joined from different sources

Question 109

Cre-Lox system allows for: Question 41 Answer a. Gene overexpression b. Protein tagging c. Conditional knockouts d. Genomic sequencing

Answer 109

Conditional knockouts

Question 110

Selectable marker genes help identify: Question 42 Answer a. Protein sequences b. Cells with recombinant DNA c. RNA transcripts d. Transcription start sites

Answer 110

Cells with recombinant DNA

Question 111

Oligo(dT) primers are used in: Question 43 Answer a. Western blot b. Reverse transcription c. Restriction mapping d. Southern blot

Answer 111

Reverse transcription

Question 112

Knockout mice are used to: Question 44 Answer a. Sequence genomes b. Study gene function c. Clone RNA d. Replace mitochondria

Answer 112

Study gene function

Question 113

Transgenic animals carry: Question 45 Answer a. Viral genomes b. No genetic modifications c. Foreign transgenes d. Only maternal DNA

Answer 113

Foreign transgenes

Question 114

The enzyme used to synthesize cDNA is: Question 46 Answer a. DNA polymerase b. RNA polymerase c. Ligase d. Reverse transcriptase

Answer 114

Reverse transcriptase

Question 115

FISH uses: Question 47 Answer a. Microarrays b. Probes hybridized directly to chromosomes c. PCR d. Protein dyes

Answer 115

Probes hybridized directly to chromosomes

Question 116

Limitation of PCR includes: Question 48 Answer a. Use of ligase b. Requires host cell c. Sensitivity to contamination d. High cost

Answer 116

Sensitivity to contamination

Question 117

In blue-white screening, white colonies indicate: Question 49 Answer a. Non-recombinant plasmids b. Functional lacZ c. Recombinant DNA present d. No plasmid uptake

Answer 117

Recombinant DNA present

Question 118

Northern blot is used for: Question 50 Answer a. RNA detection b. DNA quantification c. Protein visualization d. Cell division

Answer 118

RNA detection