Genetics and prenatal diagnosis Flashcards

1
Q

1) What is the most common trisomy in abortuses?
a) Tri 16
b) Tri 18
c) Tri 13
d) Tri 21

A

A. Trisomy 16 is the most common triploidy in abortuses. 45,XO is the most common aneuploidy in first trimester abortion. Trisomy 21 is the most common in liveborn fetuses.

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2
Q

2) Which is seen with holoprosencephaly and midline facial defects?
a) Tri 13
b) Tri 21
c) Tri 18

A

A. Trisomy 13 is characterized by holoprosencephaly and midline facial defects.

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3
Q

3) Triple screen test shows a normal AFP, normal hCG, and a low E3. What condition is this associated with?
a) Down syndrome
b) Ichthiosis
c) Triploidy

A

B. Ichthiosis. Very low or absent estriol levels suggest placental steroid sulfatase deficiency, Smtih-Lemli-Opitz, congenital adrenal hypoplasia, ACTH deficiency, hypothalamic corticotropin deficiency, and anencephaly. Placental steroid sulfatase deficiency is an X-linked recessive disorder – prevents removal of sulfate molecule from DHEAS, preventing conversion to estriol. Greater than 90% of cases present as X-linked congenital ichthyosis – treated with topical keratolytic agents. 5% of cases have deletion of contiguous genes causing mental retardation, Kallman syndrome, or chondrodysplasia punctata. Prenatal diagnosis with karyotype or FISH.
Smith-Lemli Opitz syndrome is autosomal recessive resulting from 3-beta-hydroxysteroid reductase deficiency, alters cholesterol levels. Characterized by low birth weight, failure to thrive, MR, microcephaly, ptosis, syndactyly, and typical facies.

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4
Q

4) What is the most common cause of CAH?

A

4) 21-hydroxylase deficiency accounts for 90-95% of congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

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5
Q

5) How do you treat fetus if the mother has CAH?

A

Dexamethasone to prevent virilization of female fetus. Mother requires cortisol replacement.

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6
Q

6) When do you start treatment if the mother has CAH?
a) Prepregnancy
b) 7-8 weeks
c) 18-20 weeks
d) 14-16 weeks
e) After the CVS

A

B. 7-8 weeks. Dexamethasone is administered in at risk pregnancy before the end of the 7th week of conception (9 weeks EGA) to prevent virilization and can be stopped after CVS confirms male fetus or unaffected.

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7
Q

7) What karyotype is suggestive of uniparental disomy?
a) Tri 13
b) Triploidy

A

A. Trisomy 13. Uniparental disomy occurs when a disomic (euploid) cell line contains 2 chromosomes inherited only from one parent. Examples are Prader-Willi, Angelman, and Beckwith-Wiedemann (chromosome 11). It also occurs from a trisomic rescue – i.e. you’ll see a trisomy 13 in CVS, the fetus tries to save itself by losing a chromosome 13 but loses the wrong one and gets a uniparental disomy. Triploidy occurs when there is an entire extra chromosome set, usually from paternal origin.

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8
Q

8) Which maternal karyotype has the highest risk of Down syndrome?

A

Although 21 q21q (translocation composed of 2 chromosome 21 long arms) accounts for only a few percent of Down syndrome, when a parent carries this translocation all of their gametes must either convey trisomy 21 or monosomy 21.

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9
Q

9) The incidence of a disease is 1/6400, what is the carrier rate?
a) 1/20
b) 1/40
c) 1/80
d) 1/160
e) 1/320

A

B. 1/40. If incidence of disease=1/6400, this represents q2. q=1/80. p+q=1, so p=79/80, which is approximately equal to 1. So 2pq, which represents carrier frequency, is 21/80 * 79/80 ~ 1/801=2/80=1/40.

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10
Q

10) What is the risk of cystic fibrosis if a first-degree relative has the disease and if the carrier rate is 1/25?
a) 1/150
b) 1/25
c) 1/100
d) 1/300

A

10) A. 1/150. Let’s assume the first degree relative is a sibling. Then the parent has a 2/3 chance of being a carrier (¼ will be normal, ½ will be a carrier, ¼ will be affected, but we know that this person is not affected, so that leaves only 3 options: 1/3 will be normal, 2/3 will be a carrier). The parent has ½ chance of passing on their CF gene. The other parent has a 1/25 chance of being a carrier (per the question) & ½ chance of passing that gene on: 2/3 * ½ * 1/25 * ½ = 1/150.

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11
Q

13) What is the most common finding on a term infant with Down syndrome?
a) Simian crease
b) Hypotonia
c) LBW<2500gms

A

B. Hypotonia. Hypotonia is almost always present in trisomy 21 infants. Simian crease is present in only 30% of infants. The mean birth weight is 2900g.

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12
Q

14) What syndrome has coarctation of the aorta?
a) Turners
b) Marfans
c) Tetrology of Fallot

A

Turner’s

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13
Q

15) What condition with cystic fibrosis carries a poor prognosis?
a) Cor pulmonale
b) Recurrent pneumonia
c) Pancreatitis

A

Cor pulmonale

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14
Q

16) Which fetal syndrome has absent radius, polyhydramnios, and hydronephrosis?

A

Thrombocytopenia absent radius (TAR) syndrome is characterized by bilateral absence of the radii with the presence of both thumbs and thrombocytopenia (<50 platelets/nL) that is generally transient. Thrombocytopenia may be congenital or may develop within the first few weeks to months of life; in general, thrombocytopenic episodes decrease with age. Cow’s milk allergy is common and can be associated with exacerbation of thrombocytopenia. Other anomalies of the skeleton (upper and lower limbs, ribs, and vertebrae), heart, and genitourinary system (renal anomalies and agenesis of uterus, cervix, and upper part of the vagina) can occur. The diagnosis of TAR syndrome is primarily clinical: the combination of thrombocytopenia and absent radius with presence of thumbs suggests the diagnosis. In addition, individuals with TAR syndrome have a minimally deleted 200-kb region at chromosome band 1q21.1 which is necessary but not sufficient to cause the phenotype. Thus, identification of the 200-kb minimally deleted region confirms the diagnosis of TAR syndrome in individuals with bilateral absence of the radius and presence of thumbs.

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15
Q

17) Which is not related to non-disjunction in the mother?
a) Turners
b) Klinefelters
c) XXX

A

A. Turner’s. The single X is maternal in origin in about 70% of cases, i.e. the sex chromosome lost is paternal in origin. Klinefelters (XXY) results from errors in paternal meiosis I about ½ the time and from maternal meisosi about ½ the time. Almost all cases of XXX result from errors in maternal meiosis.

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16
Q

18) What other anomaly is most commonly seen with a diaphragmatic hernia?
a) Cardiac
b) Renal
c) Neuro

A

) A. Cardiac

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17
Q

20) What is increased with paternal age?
a) Achondroplasia
b) Cystic Fibrosis
c) Down Syndrome

A

A. Achondroplasia. Advanced paternal age results in increased risk of autosomal dominant, single gene disorders with spontaneous mutations.

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18
Q

21) What is the risk of Down syndrome with a prior effected child?
a) 1%
b) 5%
c) 16%
d) 20%

A

A. 1% or the age related risk, whichever is higher.

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19
Q

22) What is seen with Meckles syndrome?
a) Renal agenesis
b) Polycystic Dysplastic kidneys
c) Normal kidneys

A

B. Polycystic dysplastic kidneys. Meckel Gruber syndrome is characterized by polycystic dysplastic kidneys, encephalocele, polydactyly, pulmonary hypoplasia. It is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized as a celiopathy.

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20
Q

24) Which maternal cardiac lesion is associated with the greatest fetal risk?
a) AS
b) VSD
c) TOF
d) MS

A

A. Aortic stenosis with a 15-18% risk of transmission to the fetus.

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21
Q

25) 45,XX,der(13,21)(q10q10) associated with?
a) Normal
b) Lab error
c) Down syndrome
d) From father

A

) A. Normal. This is a balanced robertsonian translocation of 13q21q.

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22
Q

26) Which is associated with uniparental disomy?

A

Uniparental disomy occurs when a disomic (euploid) cell line contains 2 chromosomes inherited only from one parent. Examples are Prader-Willi, Angelman, and Beckwith-Wiedemann (chromosome 11). It also occurs from a trisomic rescue – i.e. you’ll see a trisomy 13 in CVS, the fetus tries to save itself by losing a chromosome 13 but loses the wrong one and gets a uniparental disomy.

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23
Q

27) Imprinting is?

A

Imprinting is the phenomenon of differnet expression of alleles depending on the parent of origin. May be due to methylation.

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24
Q

28) Most likely to transmit to fetus?
a) ASD
b) VSD
c) Coarctation

A

Coarctation

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25
Q

Most likely associated with aneuploidy?
a) Cardiac defect
b) Omphalocele

A

The risk of aneuploidy in omphalocele is 30-40%; the risk of chromosomal defects in live births with congenital heart disease is 5-15%.

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26
Q

31) CDH in term infant?
a) Cardiac
b) Stillbirth
c) CNS

A

Congenital heart diseease constitutes the majority of associated anomalies seen in CDH (Callen does not give a percentage). The incidence of abnormal karyotype is 10%, but may rise to 20% if multiple anomalies are present. Polyhydramnios occurs in 75%.

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27
Q

32) AF acetylcholinesterase least helpful in?
a) Omphalocele
b) Gastroschisis
c) Congenital nephrosis
d) Anencephaly

A

C. Congenital nephrosis. Amniotic fluid acetylcholinesterase is not elevated in congenital nephrosis but is elevated in open neural tube defects, gastroschisis, and omphalocele.

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28
Q

Timing of midgut herniation

A

Physiologic midgut herniation occurs during the 6th week of development & the intestin returns to the abdominal cavity by the 10th week. Normal herniation is observed in 64% of fetuses at 8 weeks, 100% at 9-10 wks, & 25% at 11 weeks, & 0% at 12 weeks.

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29
Q

36) Triple screen with really high AFP , no NTD:all except
a) chorioangioma
b) umbilical cord cyst
c) subchorionic hemorrhage
d) velamentous cord insertion

A

D. Velamentous cord insertion – found an article that stated velamentous cord insertion associated with slightly decreased MSAFP & increased hCG. Umbilical cord cysts can be associated with trisomies or abdominal wall defects, which would be associated with elevated AFP. (Disclosure – other people have answered umbilical cord cyst with some consistency in the study materials, but I can’t find any support for that answer)

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30
Q

38) Which situation is most likely to result in fetus having T21
a) mom is 45XX rob(14,21)
b) dad is 45XY rob (14,21)
c) other chromosome combos

A

A. Maternal robertsonian translocation. Unbalanced chromosome complements (i.e. Down syndrome) occur in 10-15% of progeny of women with robertsonian translocations in only a few percent of men.

31
Q

39) Which of the following is not associated with AMA?
a) T21
b) T18
c) 45XO
d) T13

A

C. 45,X. Turner syndrome is not a maternal non-disjunction event.

32
Q

44) As a class, what is the most common etiology for fetal malformations?
a) genetic
b) drugs
c) environmental exposures

A

Genetic

33
Q

44) As a class, what is the most common etiology for fetal malformations?
a) genetic
b) drugs
c) environmental exposures

A

Genetic

34
Q

which one is the result of uniparental disomy.

A

The answer might be a trisomy, which results in uniparental disomy from a trisomy rescue.

35
Q

51) Fetus has cleft lip and palate, VSD and holoprosencephaly. What is most likely karyotype?
a) T21
b) t18
c) T13

A

T13 midline defects

36
Q

52) Most reliable ultrasound criteria for dating
a) abd
b) head circ
c) cerebellum

A

Cerebellum & foot length are very reliable for ultrasound dating and are unaffected by IUGR.

37
Q

54) What disease is AD and is associated with telangiectasia, ataxia, thrombocytopenia
a) Osler-Weber-Rendu,
b) Ehler Danlos,
c) Wiskott Aldrich

A

A. Osler-Weber-Rendu (hereditary hemorrhagic telangectasia)

38
Q

56) U/S image with CPC – which aneuploidy is this associated with:
a) T21
b) T13
c) T18

A

) C. Trisomy 18

39
Q

57) Multiple intraabdominal echogenicities – least associated with:
a) cystic fibrosis
b) aneuploidy
c) toxo
d) Parvo
e) meconium peritonitis

A

D. Parvovirus

40
Q

61) What is the sensitivity of quad screen in detecting T21 in a patient < 35 yrs
a) 75%
b) 90%

A

75%

41
Q

67) Fragile X inheritance is based upon what number of CGG repeats?
a) 50
b) 100
c) >200
d) 75

A

C. >200. Premutation is 55-200.

42
Q

68) What would be the most appropriate pattern on a triple screen of a fetus with Down’s syndrome?
a) Elevated estriol, elevated AFP, elevated Hcg
b) Elevated estriol, low AFP, elevated Hcg
c) Low estriol, low AFP, elevated Hcg
d) Low estriol, elevated AFP, elevated Hcg
e) Low estriol, low AFP, low Hcg

A

C. Down syndrome can be thought of as immature placenta: it continues to make b-hCG after is should have switched over to progesterone & estrogen. So the b-hCG is high and the estriol is low. AFP is also low. Inhibin A is high.

43
Q

69) Which anomaly is associated with the highest risk of aneuploidy?
a) Omphalocele
b) Cardiac defect
c) Gastroschisis

A

Omphalocele

44
Q

71) What is the most common genetic cause of learning disability

A

Fragile X is the most common inherited form of mental retardation. Alcohol is the most common cause of non-inherited mental retardation.

45
Q

72) You have received a karyotype on a patient s/p amniocentesis for AMA, 45,XX-14,21t(14,21). What is the phenotype?
a) Turner’s syndrome
b) Down’s syndrome
c) Normal

A

) C. Normal. This is a balanced Robertsonian translocation.

46
Q

75) What is the most common non-infectious, non-genetic cause of mental retardation?

A

Alcohol

47
Q

76) All of the following ultrasonographic findings would be present in a fetus with a neural tube defect EXCEPT:
a) Small cisterna
b) Scalloped cerebellum
c) Incavatated cranium
d) Ventriculomegaly
e) Increased BPD

A

E. Increased BPD. A small cisterna=arnold chiari, scalloped cerebellum=banana sign. Incavitated cranium=lemon sign.

47
Q

76) All of the following ultrasonographic findings would be present in a fetus with a neural tube defect EXCEPT:
a) Small cisterna
b) Scalloped cerebellum
c) Incavatated cranium
d) Ventriculomegaly
e) Increased BPD

A

E. Increased BPD. A small cisterna=arnold chiari, scalloped cerebellum=banana sign. Incavitated cranium=lemon sign.

48
Q

83) What is the treatment of 21-hydroxylase deficiency in the female fetus?
a) Cortisone acetate
b) Diestryl acetate
c) Dexamethasone
d) Aldosterone

A

DEX

49
Q

83) What is the treatment of 21-hydroxylase deficiency in the female fetus?
a) Cortisone acetate
b) Diestryl acetate
c) Dexamethasone
d) Aldosterone

A

DEX

50
Q

84) What causes virilization of a female fetus?
a) Luteoma of pregnancy
b) Cystadenoma
c) Prolactinoma
d) OCPs

A

A. Luteoma of pregnancy. Lesions associated with maternal virilization are luteomas and theca lutein cysts (hyperreactio lutienalis). 80% of female infants born to women with virilizing luteomas are virilized. There are no reported cases of female infant virilization with hyperreactio luteinalis. Maternal & female fetal virilization can occur with Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors and Krukenberg tumors. Rare genetic causes of maternal & infant virilization are placental aromatase deficiency & cytochrome P450 reductase deficiency.

51
Q

85) Which is associated with fetal abdominal calcifications?
a) Ebstein barr virus
b) CMV
c) Parvovirus
d) Turner’s syndrome

A

CMV

52
Q

86) Which syndrome is associated with fetal thrombocytopenia?
a) Absent radius
b) Gestational thrombocytopenia
c) Erythroblastosis fetalis
d) Bernard soulier syndrome

A

A. Absent radius (TAR) syndrome. Bernard-Soulier is an autosomal recessive condition that causes a defect in platelet glycoproteins that prevent platelets from binding to subendothelial surface. Fanconi’s anemia is also associated with pancytopenia & absent radius.

53
Q

87) Gaucher’s disease is a disorder of:
a) Aspartoacylase
b) Hexosaminidase A
c) Glucocerebrosidase

A

C. Glucocerebrocidase. Tay-Sachs is a disorder of hexosaminidase. Aspartoacylase deficiency is Canavan’s disease.

54
Q

89) What type of inheritance is associated with Leber’s optic atrophy?
a) Autosomal recessive
b) Autosomal dominant
c) X-linked recessive
d) Mitochondrial

A

D. Mitochondrial. Leber optic atrophy is a hereditary disorder that occurs in early adulthood. X-linked recessive mode of inheritance. Abrupt visual loss leading to bilateral central sctoma with optic atrophy. NO abnormalities found in neonate. (Note: Creasy states that this is an X-linked recessive disorder, but Thompson & Thompson states mitochondrial & Dr. Google agrees)

55
Q

91) All of the following diseases are associated with DNA repeats except:
a) Fragile X
b) Huntington’s disease
c) Cystic fibrosis
d) Myotonic dystrophy

A

C. Cystic fibrosis. Fragile X is due to CGG repeats (>200) in the FMR1 gene (55-200 repeats is the premutation). Huntington disease is a >36-repeat CAG in huntingtin gene, premutation 27-35 repeats. Myotonic dystrophy is a CTG triplet repeat in DMPK, mutation >54 copies, premutation 38-54. Myotonic dystrophy severity is directly related to number of repeats.

56
Q

92) A normal woman has a homozygous 21/21 translocation. What percent of her offspring will have Down syndrome?
a) 0%
b) 100%
c) 50%
d) 20%

A

???100%. Although 21q21q (translocation composed of 2 chromosome 21 long arms) accounts for only a few percent of Down syndrome, when a parent carries this translocation all of their gametes must either convey trisomy 21 or monosomy 21. So ½ of gametes have trisomy 21, but because monosomy 21 results in SAB, 100% of her offspring will have trisomy 21.

57
Q

92) A normal woman has a homozygous 21/21 translocation. What percent of her offspring will have Down syndrome?
a) 0%
b) 100%
c) 50%
d) 20%

A

???100%. Although 21q21q (translocation composed of 2 chromosome 21 long arms) accounts for only a few percent of Down syndrome, when a parent carries this translocation all of their gametes must either convey trisomy 21 or monosomy 21. So ½ of gametes have trisomy 21, but because monosomy 21 results in SAB, 100% of her offspring will have trisomy 21.

58
Q

94) Turner’s & cystic hygroma

A

50% of cystic hygroma is Turner’s, cystic hygroma 50-60% aneuploidy, cystic hygroma & hydrops 80% aneuploidy

59
Q

T21 and cystic hygroma

A

) 6.6% of cystic hygroma is T21, 20% of cases of cystic hygroma

60
Q

96) What percent of omphaloceles will have a chromosomal aneuploidy? and other congenital anomalies

A

30-40% of omphaloceles have aneuploidy

Omphalocele is associated with other anomalies in 67-88% of fetuses. Cardiac defects in 50% of cases, GI in 40%. Aneuploidy in 30-40%. Karyotype abnormalities are more common in omphaloceles with no liver involvement. Beckwith-Wiedeman has been reported in 10-20% of infants with isolated omphalocele.

61
Q

96) What percent of omphaloceles will have a chromosomal aneuploidy?

A

Omphalocele is associated with other anomalies in 67-88% of fetuses. Cardiac defects in 50% of cases, GI in 40%. Aneuploidy in 30-40%. Karyotype abnormalities are more common in omphaloceles with no liver involvement. Beckwith-Wiedeman has been reported in 10-20% of infants with isolated omphalocele.

62
Q

98) Holoprosencephaly and what associated chromosomal anomaly

A

T13

63
Q

98) Holoprosencephaly and what associated chromosomal anomaly

A

Trisomy 13. 30-50% have chromosomal abnormality, T13 most common. If due to sporadic, non-chromosomal, nonsyndromic reason then 6% recurrence risk. If due to DM then 1% recurrence

64
Q

100) Which karyotype is associated with coarctation of aorta?

A

Turner’s syndrome

65
Q

101) Duodenal atresia is associated with what other findings?

A

Polyhydramnios, double bubble, anular pancreas, 30% T21, 30% CHD, 20% bowel rotation, 10% esophageal atresia, 6% anorectal atresia, 5% GU. 75% will have polyhydramnios, ½ born prematurely.

66
Q

102) What ultrasound findings are consistent with a diagnosis of Down syndrome?

A

Thickened nuchal fold (>6mm), increased NT, duodenal atresia, brachycephaly, nonimmune hydrops, polyhydramnios, clinodactyly, short femur

67
Q

104) Hydrops & causes

A

Most common reasons in descending order: idiopathic, cardiovascular (17-35%), chromosomal (14-16%), hematologic (4-12%), thoracic. Turner most common chromosomal. Hematologic includes anemia, hemoglobinopathy, hemorrhage, hemolysis, marrow destruction. Thoracic – CCAM most common

68
Q

109) What cardiac anomaly cannot be identified with a 4-chamber view

A

Transposition of the great vessels, aortic coarctation, VSD with or without valvular pulmonic stenosis

69
Q

110) What is the best megahertz to assess abdominal circumference at 20 weeks

A

3.5 lower resolution, better penetration. 5.0 higher resolution, less penetration

70
Q

112) Doppler reflects velocity, blood flow or viscosity?

A

Velocity. Can measure blood flow if measure diameter of vessel (mean velocity x cross sectional area)

71
Q

114) Hydrocephalus: etiology & management

A

Holoprosencephaly, aqueductal stenosis, NTD, cystic cerebellar degeneration (Dandy Walker cyst) compressing 3rd or 4th ventricle, infection (CMV, toxo, syphilis), intracranial hemorrhage, CNS tumor, agenesis of corpus callosum. Targeted sono (54-84% have associated anomaly), echo, karyotype (12-25% abnormality), infectious work up.

72
Q

116) What is most common associated anomaly in SUA?

A

Callen recommends that anybody with SUA get a fetal echo due to strong association with heart defects. Also associated with Trisomy 18.

73
Q

117) Mom presents with acute chest syndrome (HbSS). Dad not tested – carrier rate 1/12. Risk of affected fetus?
a) ½
b) ¼
c) 1/12
d) 1/24

A

D. 1/24. Baby has to get S from mom, 1/12*1/2 chance from dad = 1/24.