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Rapid MFM Written Boards 2023 > 2011 > Flashcards

2011 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. maternal cardiac disease most likely to transmit to fetus:
    a. IHSS
    b. VSD
    c. coarctation of the aorta
    d. ASD
A

IHSS

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2
Q
  1. MOST likely defect with ACE inhibitor:
    a. cardiac
    b. oral cleft/palate
    c. polydactyly
    d..omphalocele
A

Cardiac

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3
Q
  1. maternal PKU associated with what defects:
    a. cardiac
    b. arched eyebrow
    c. stippled epiphysis
    d. nail hypoplasia
A

Cardiac

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4
Q
  1. maternal PKU associated with what defects:
    a. cardiac
    b. arched eyebrow
    c. stippled epiphysis
    d. nail hypoplasia
A

Cardiac

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5
Q
  1. in pregnancy with maternal pku proper management includes all except:
    a. serial USG for growth and head measurement
    b. limit phenalanine intake in mother
    c. test father for PKU
    d. test amniotic fluid PAH gene
A

D

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6
Q
  1. What is associated with aspartoacylase deficiency is associated with?
    a. Canavan Dz
    b. Neimann-pick
    c. Gaucher
    d. Fanconi Anemia
A

A

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7
Q
  1. IHSS inheritance:
    a. multifactorial
    b. autosomal recessive
    c. autosomal dominant
A

A

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8
Q

what is protective in TTTS:
a. arteriovenous connections
b. venoarterial connections
c. arterio-arterio connections
d. venous-venous connections

A

C

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9
Q

cvs sample that you should test for uniparental disomy in:
1. turner mosaic
2. T21 mosaic
3. T13
4. T15 mosaic

A

T15 mosaic

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10
Q

Prader willi most common defect:
1. maternal deletion chrom 15
2. maternal uniparental disomy
3. paternal deletion chrom 15
4. duplication of maternal chromo

A

Paternal deletion of chromosome 15

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11
Q

medication most likely to cause iugr:
a. atenolol
b. metoprolol
c. labetalol
d. propranolol

A

Atenolol

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12
Q

in banked breastmilk, least likely to be transmitted?
a. HIV
b. Hep C
c. Hep B
d. Syphilis
e. CMV

A

Syphilis

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13
Q

valproic acid use in early pregnancy most assoc with:
a. NTD
b. Cleft lip/palate
c. cardiac

A

NTD

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14
Q

Depo postpartum most likely effect:
a. elevated TG
b. decreased milk supply
c. increased risk of thromboembolism
d. decreased pp depression
e. increased calcium absorption

A

Elevated triglycerides

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15
Q

Depo postpartum most likely effect:
a. elevated TG
b. decreased milk supply
c. increased risk of thromboembolism
d. decreased pp depression
e. increased calcium absorption

A

Elevated triglycerides

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16
Q

earliest and longest teratogenic vulnerability
a. cardiac
b. neuro
c. limb
d. external genitalia

A

Neuro

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17
Q

HIV med not to give with active hepatitis:
a. epivir
b. kaletra
c. AZT
d. nevirapine

A

Nevirapine

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18
Q

HIV med not to give with active hepatitis:
a. epivir
b. kaletra
c. AZT
d. nevirapine

A

Nevirapine

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19
Q

HIV positive no treatment on L&D what to treat with? AZT not an option so answer was nevirapine

A

Nevirapine

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20
Q

Previous neonatal death from CAH new pregnancy what did baby die of?

A

Saltwasting dehydration

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21
Q

If patient has CAH when to start dexa

A

7-8 weeks

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22
Q

Patient presents with hypovolemia, hyponatremia, normocytic anemia
a. hyperthyroidism
b. prolactinoma
c. addison’s
d. diabetes

A

Addison’s

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23
Q

Patient presents with hypovolemia, hyponatremia, normocytic anemia
a. hyperthyroidism
b. prolactinoma
c. addison’s
d. diabetes

A

Addison’s

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24
Q

plasmapheresis most likely to help
a. HELLP
b. TTP
c. Guillan barre
d. ITP

A

TTP
ITP: steroids

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25
Best initial treatment for pheochromocytoma a. beta blocker b. alpha blocker c. calcium channel blocker
A
26
Best initial treatment for pheochromocytoma a. beta blocker b. alpha blocker c. calcium channel blocker
A
27
best initial treatment for life-threatening thyroid storm: a. methimazole b. lugol’s c. propranolol d. steroids
Propranolol
28
. DM highest reason for perinatal mortality a. RDS b. Prematurity c. Congenital anomalies d. Growth disturbances
Prematurity?
29
. DM highest reason for perinatal mortality a. RDS b. Prematurity c. Congenital anomalies d. Growth disturbances
Prematurity?
30
Mechanism of action of therapeutic iodine? a. blocks release of thyroxine b. blocks iodine uptake c. blocks peripheral conversion T4T3
Blocks release of thyroxine
31
If dad is >50, least likely abnormality a. neurofibromatosis b. marfan’s c. achondroplasia d. Klinefelters
Klinefelters
32
Given triple screen with very low estradiol and slightly high HCG others normal
Answer was X linked icthiosis
33
Most likely to cause low estradiol: a. IUFD b. Placental sulfatase deficiency
B
34
On FTS, most likely to be assoc with placental insufficiency later in preg? a. PAPPA <0.05 MoM b. Free BHCG < 0.05 Mom
Low PAPP A
35
If NT 4mm, most likely outcome a. normal b. cardiac defect
Normal
36
most oxygenated fetal compartment a. right atrium b. left atrium c. descending aorta d. preductal aorta
LEFT atrium
37
Most predictive of death in iugr fetus: a. no AC growth in 2 weeks b. AEDF c. BPP of 2 d. AFI <5
BPP
38
PEC decreased a. fibronectin b. thromboxane c. urinary calcium
urinary calcium
39
bacteria causes PTL through which enzyme
phospholipase A2
40
When outcome is rare best type of study:
A. case control
41
When to use the odd ratio: a. case-control b. cohort
Case control
42
Fragile X not assoc with: a. gonadal cancer b. ataxia later in life c. autism d. PFO
Gonadal cancer
43
Man has PKU, incidence in pop is 1/10000, what is chance wife is a carrier?
1/50
44
incidence of disease 1/6400, chance of being a carrier
1/40
45
wife has SS disease and husband gene frequency of sickle trait in AA population is 1/12, what is chance fetus affected?
1/24
46
wife has +CF testing and husband negative for tested mutations, their fetus has: a. increased risk of CF versus population b. decreased risk versus population c. about same risk as population
Increased risk
47
Array CGH is better than conventional karyotype for: a. microdeletions b. unbalanced translocations c. balanced translocations d. trisomies
Microdeletions
48
Which is not a part of adaptive immunity? a. B cells b. T cells c. Cytokines d. Monocytes
Monocytpes
49
What bacteria is most associated with periodontal disease
Porphyromonas gingivalis
50
Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy genetic transmission a. x-linked recessive b. unstable trinucleotide repeat c. autosomal recessive d. autosomal dominant
X linked recessive
51
Which of the following changes is responsible for tolerance of paternal antigens? a. synctiotrophoblasts b. spiral arteries c. cytotrophoblasts d. fetal red blood cells
A
52
Maternal intervillous blood comes into contact with? a. synctiotrophoblasts b. cytotrophoblasts c. fetal endothelium
A
53
Polyhydramnios is most associated with? a. CF b. Myotonic dystrophy c. Polycystic kidneys
B
54
Meckel-gruber most associated with: a. renal agenesis b. polycystic kidneys
PCKD
55
LCHAD associated with a. AFLP b. Cholestasis c. Preeclampsia
AFLP
56
Hypocalvarianism associated with: what medication
ACEI
57
Mechanism of LMWH binds to?
a. binds to ATIII
58
Least useful test for for LAC: a. dilute Russell venom viper test b. apt c. kaolin clot test d. platelet cofactor test e. Anti-nuclear antibody
ANA
59
Best ay to diagnose Addison’s: a. ACTH stimulation test b. Serum cortisol c. Low serum sodium
ACTH stimulation test
60
Best ay to diagnose Addison’s: a. ACTH stimulation test b. Serum cortisol c. Low serum sodium
ACTH stimulation test
61
What to test in acute adrenal failure a. ACTH b. Cortisol c. DHEA
ACTH
62
Hyperpigmentation in pregnancy most associated with: a. estrogen b. progesterone
Estrogen
63
DI treatment in pregnancy: a. desmopressin
Desmopressin
64
intravascular injection of lidocaine most likely presenting symptom:
Tinnitus
65
sign that high spinal has affected cervical branches: a. chest wall paresthesias b. dyspnea c. tinnitus
Chest wall

Rapid MFM Written Boards 2023 (11 decks)

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