Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Rapid MFM Written Boards 2023 > 2011 > Flashcards

2011 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. maternal cardiac disease most likely to transmit to fetus:
    a. IHSS
    b. VSD
    c. coarctation of the aorta
    d. ASD
A

IHSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. MOST likely defect with ACE inhibitor:
    a. cardiac
    b. oral cleft/palate
    c. polydactyly
    d..omphalocele
A

Cardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. maternal PKU associated with what defects:
    a. cardiac
    b. arched eyebrow
    c. stippled epiphysis
    d. nail hypoplasia
A

Cardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. maternal PKU associated with what defects:
    a. cardiac
    b. arched eyebrow
    c. stippled epiphysis
    d. nail hypoplasia
A

Cardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. in pregnancy with maternal pku proper management includes all except:
    a. serial USG for growth and head measurement
    b. limit phenalanine intake in mother
    c. test father for PKU
    d. test amniotic fluid PAH gene
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. What is associated with aspartoacylase deficiency is associated with?
    a. Canavan Dz
    b. Neimann-pick
    c. Gaucher
    d. Fanconi Anemia
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. IHSS inheritance:
    a. multifactorial
    b. autosomal recessive
    c. autosomal dominant
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is protective in TTTS:
a. arteriovenous connections
b. venoarterial connections
c. arterio-arterio connections
d. venous-venous connections

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

cvs sample that you should test for uniparental disomy in:
1. turner mosaic
2. T21 mosaic
3. T13
4. T15 mosaic

A

T15 mosaic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Prader willi most common defect:
1. maternal deletion chrom 15
2. maternal uniparental disomy
3. paternal deletion chrom 15
4. duplication of maternal chromo

A

Paternal deletion of chromosome 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

medication most likely to cause iugr:
a. atenolol
b. metoprolol
c. labetalol
d. propranolol

A

Atenolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

in banked breastmilk, least likely to be transmitted?
a. HIV
b. Hep C
c. Hep B
d. Syphilis
e. CMV

A

Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

valproic acid use in early pregnancy most assoc with:
a. NTD
b. Cleft lip/palate
c. cardiac

A

NTD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Depo postpartum most likely effect:
a. elevated TG
b. decreased milk supply
c. increased risk of thromboembolism
d. decreased pp depression
e. increased calcium absorption

A

Elevated triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Depo postpartum most likely effect:
a. elevated TG
b. decreased milk supply
c. increased risk of thromboembolism
d. decreased pp depression
e. increased calcium absorption

A

Elevated triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

earliest and longest teratogenic vulnerability
a. cardiac
b. neuro
c. limb
d. external genitalia

A

Neuro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

HIV med not to give with active hepatitis:
a. epivir
b. kaletra
c. AZT
d. nevirapine

A

Nevirapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

HIV med not to give with active hepatitis:
a. epivir
b. kaletra
c. AZT
d. nevirapine

A

Nevirapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

HIV positive no treatment on L&D what to treat with? AZT not an option so answer was nevirapine

A

Nevirapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Previous neonatal death from CAH new pregnancy what did baby die of?

A

Saltwasting dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If patient has CAH when to start dexa

A

7-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Patient presents with hypovolemia, hyponatremia, normocytic anemia
a. hyperthyroidism
b. prolactinoma
c. addison’s
d. diabetes

A

Addison’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Patient presents with hypovolemia, hyponatremia, normocytic anemia
a. hyperthyroidism
b. prolactinoma
c. addison’s
d. diabetes

A

Addison’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

plasmapheresis most likely to help
a. HELLP
b. TTP
c. Guillan barre
d. ITP

A

TTP
ITP: steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Best initial treatment for pheochromocytoma
a. beta blocker
b. alpha blocker
c. calcium channel blocker

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Best initial treatment for pheochromocytoma
a. beta blocker
b. alpha blocker
c. calcium channel blocker

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

best initial treatment for life-threatening thyroid storm:
a. methimazole
b. lugol’s
c. propranolol
d. steroids

A

Propranolol

28
Q

. DM highest reason for perinatal mortality
a. RDS
b. Prematurity
c. Congenital anomalies
d. Growth disturbances

A

Prematurity?

29
Q

. DM highest reason for perinatal mortality
a. RDS
b. Prematurity
c. Congenital anomalies
d. Growth disturbances

A

Prematurity?

30
Q

Mechanism of action of therapeutic iodine?
a. blocks release of thyroxine
b. blocks iodine uptake
c. blocks peripheral conversion T4T3

A

Blocks release of thyroxine

31
Q

If dad is >50, least likely abnormality
a. neurofibromatosis
b. marfan’s
c. achondroplasia
d. Klinefelters

A

Klinefelters

32
Q

Given triple screen with very low estradiol and slightly high HCG others normal

A

Answer was X linked icthiosis

33
Q

Most likely to cause low estradiol:
a. IUFD
b. Placental sulfatase deficiency

34
Q

On FTS, most likely to be assoc with placental insufficiency later in preg?
a. PAPPA <0.05 MoM
b. Free BHCG < 0.05 Mom

A

Low PAPP A

35
Q

If NT 4mm, most likely outcome
a. normal
b. cardiac defect

36
Q

most oxygenated fetal compartment
a. right atrium
b. left atrium
c. descending aorta
d. preductal aorta

A

LEFT atrium

37
Q

Most predictive of death in iugr fetus:
a. no AC growth in 2 weeks
b. AEDF
c. BPP of 2
d. AFI <5

38
Q

PEC decreased
a. fibronectin
b. thromboxane
c. urinary calcium

A

urinary calcium

39
Q

bacteria causes PTL through which enzyme

A

phospholipase A2

40
Q

When outcome is rare best type of study:

A

A. case control

41
Q

When to use the odd ratio:
a. case-control
b. cohort

A

Case control

42
Q

Fragile X not assoc with:
a. gonadal cancer
b. ataxia later in life
c. autism
d. PFO

A

Gonadal cancer

43
Q

Man has PKU, incidence in pop is 1/10000, what is chance wife is a carrier?

44
Q

incidence of disease 1/6400, chance of being a carrier

45
Q

wife has SS disease and husband gene frequency of sickle trait in AA population is 1/12, what is chance fetus affected?

46
Q

wife has +CF testing and husband negative for tested mutations, their fetus has:
a. increased risk of CF versus population
b. decreased risk versus population
c. about same risk as population

A

Increased risk

47
Q

Array CGH is better than conventional karyotype for:
a. microdeletions
b. unbalanced translocations
c. balanced translocations
d. trisomies

A

Microdeletions

48
Q

Which is not a part of adaptive immunity?
a. B cells
b. T cells
c. Cytokines
d. Monocytes

A

Monocytpes

49
Q

What bacteria is most associated with periodontal disease

A

Porphyromonas gingivalis

50
Q

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy genetic transmission
a. x-linked recessive
b. unstable trinucleotide repeat
c. autosomal recessive
d. autosomal dominant

A

X linked recessive

51
Q

Which of the following changes is responsible for tolerance of paternal antigens?
a. synctiotrophoblasts
b. spiral arteries
c. cytotrophoblasts
d. fetal red blood cells

52
Q

Maternal intervillous blood comes into contact with?
a. synctiotrophoblasts
b. cytotrophoblasts
c. fetal endothelium

53
Q

Polyhydramnios is most associated with?
a. CF
b. Myotonic dystrophy
c. Polycystic kidneys

54
Q

Meckel-gruber most associated with:
a. renal agenesis
b. polycystic kidneys

55
Q

LCHAD associated with
a. AFLP
b. Cholestasis
c. Preeclampsia

56
Q

Hypocalvarianism associated with:
what medication

57
Q

Mechanism of LMWH
binds to?

A

a. binds to ATIII

58
Q

Least useful test for for LAC:
a. dilute Russell venom viper test
b. apt
c. kaolin clot test
d. platelet cofactor test
e. Anti-nuclear antibody

59
Q

Best ay to diagnose Addison’s:
a. ACTH stimulation test
b. Serum cortisol
c. Low serum sodium

A

ACTH stimulation test

60
Q

Best ay to diagnose Addison’s:
a. ACTH stimulation test
b. Serum cortisol
c. Low serum sodium

A

ACTH stimulation test

61
Q

What to test in acute adrenal failure
a. ACTH
b. Cortisol
c. DHEA

62
Q

Hyperpigmentation in pregnancy most associated with:
a. estrogen
b. progesterone

63
Q

DI treatment in pregnancy:
a. desmopressin

A

Desmopressin

64
Q

intravascular injection of lidocaine most likely presenting symptom:

65
Q

sign that high spinal has affected cervical branches:
a. chest wall paresthesias
b. dyspnea
c. tinnitus

A

Chest wall

Rapid MFM Written Boards 2023 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions