Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

A newborn is delivered at 38 weeks via spontaneous vaginal delivery. On physical examination, the baby has a cleft lip and cleft palate. The mother had no significant illness during pregnancy, and there was no history of teratogen exposure. Which of the following best describes this condition?

A. Malformation/Anomaly
B. Malformation Sequence
C. Malformation Syndrome
D. Disruption

A

A. Malformation/Anomaly

Rationale:

Malformation refers to a primary defect in organ development that occurs before 10 weeks of gestation.
Cleft lip and palate is a classic example of malformation because it results from a defect in embryologic development.
It is not a sequence (B) because it does not stem from a prior defect.
It is not a syndrome (C) because there are no additional systemic abnormalities.
It is not a disruption (D) because tissue was never normally formed before being destroyed.

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2
Q

Which of the following best describes a malformation sequence?

A. Anomalies that occur due to a single primary defect that triggers multiple defects
B. A pattern of anomalies with a common genetic or environmental cause
C. A group of anomalies that occur together without a known cause
D. A single isolated structural defect due to abnormal development

A

A. Anomalies that occur due to a single primary defect that triggers multiple defects

Rationale:

Malformation sequences occur when one primary defect leads to secondary anomalies (a chain reaction).
Example: Myelomeningocele (neural tube defect) β†’ Talipes Equinovarus (Clubfoot) due to abnormal fetal positioning.
Syndrome (B) describes conditions like Down Syndrome (genetic cause).
Association (C) describes VACTERL, where anomalies co-occur but have no known cause.
Malformation (D) is a primary defect but does not necessarily cause additional defects.

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3
Q

A newborn presents with a lumbar neural tube defect (Myelomeningocele), and further examination reveals clubfoot (Talipes Equinovarus). The findings suggest that the foot deformity developed secondary to the neural tube defect. What is the most appropriate classification of this condition?

A. Malformation/Anomaly
B. Malformation Sequence
C. Malformation Syndrome
D. Deformation

A

B. Malformation Sequence

Rationale:

A malformation sequence results when one primary defect leads to secondary defects.
The primary defect here is Myelomeningocele (lumbar neural tube defect).
The secondary defect is Talipes Equinovarus (clubfoot), which occurs due to abnormal fetal positioning caused by the primary defect.
It is not an isolated anomaly (A) since it involves multiple linked defects.
It is not a syndrome (C) because syndromes have multiple causes.
It is not deformation (D) since the structure was abnormal from the start.

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4
Q

Which of the following best describes malformation syndrome?

A. A group of anomalies with a single genetic or environmental cause
B. A pattern of defects caused by an initial malformation leading to a cascade of anomalies
C. An isolated structural defect due to abnormal embryonic development
D. A distortion of a normally formed structure due to mechanical forces

A

A. A group of anomalies with a single genetic or environmental cause

Rationale:

Malformation syndrome refers to a constellation of defects caused by a single genetic, chromosomal, or environmental factor.
Example: Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21) presents with intellectual disability, cardiac defects, and characteristic facial featuresβ€”all due to the same chromosomal defect.
Sequence (B) involves one primary defect leading to secondary anomalies.
Malformation (C) is a single defect rather than a pattern.
Deformation (D) occurs due to external forces like uterine compression (not an intrinsic defect).

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5
Q

A 2-month-old infant is brought in for evaluation due to developmental delay and distinct facial features, including upslanting palpebral fissures, a flat nasal bridge, and a single palmar crease. Echocardiography reveals an atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD). Karyotyping confirms the presence of an extra chromosome 21. What is the most appropriate classification of this condition?

A. Malformation/Anomaly
B. Malformation Sequence
C. Malformation Syndrome
D. Deformation

A

C. Malformation Syndrome

Rationale:

Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21) is a classic example of malformation syndrome, where multiple defects (craniofacial, cardiac, neurological) result from a single genetic cause (extra chromosome 21).
It is not an isolated malformation (A) because it involves multiple system abnormalities.
It is not a sequence (B) because defects arise independently rather than from a single primary defect.
It is not a deformation (D) since features are due to intrinsic genetic abnormalities, not mechanical forces.

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6
Q

Which of the following is an example of a malformation syndrome rather than a sequence or isolated anomaly?

A. Cleft palate due to a teratogen
B. Myelomeningocele leading to clubfoot
C. VACTERL Association
D. Apert Syndrome (FGFR2 mutation)

A

D. Apert Syndrome (FGFR2 mutation)

Rationale:

Apert Syndrome is a malformation syndrome caused by a single gene mutation (FGFR2) and leads to craniosynostosis, syndactyly, and facial abnormalities.
Cleft palate (A) is an isolated malformation (not a syndrome).
Myelomeningocele + clubfoot (B) is a sequence (not a syndrome).
VACTERL (C) is an association, not a syndrome since it lacks a single unifying cause.

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7
Q

A full-term newborn has craniosynostosis, midface hypoplasia, and symmetric syndactyly of the hands and feet. Genetic testing reveals a mutation in the FGFR2 gene. What is the most appropriate classification of this condition?

A. Malformation Syndrome
B. Malformation Sequence
C. Association
D. Disruption

A

A. Malformation Syndrome

Rationale:

Apert Syndrome is a malformation syndrome caused by a single gene mutation (FGFR2).
Syndactyly and craniosynostosis are features of the syndrome, not secondary defects from a primary anomaly (so it’s not a sequence).
It is not an association (C) because the anomalies are genetically linked.
It is not a disruption (D) because no external factors damaged normal tissue.

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8
Q

A newborn boy is found to have vertebral anomalies, anal atresia, tracheoesophageal fistula, and renal anomalies. The neonatologist suspects VACTERL association. What distinguishes an association from other types of dysmorphism?

A. A group of anomalies occurring together more often than by chance, but without a single cause
B. A primary defect causing a cascade of secondary anomalies
C. An isolated structural defect due to abnormal embryonic development
D. A genetic syndrome with a specific chromosomal abnormality

A

A. A group of anomalies occurring together more often than by chance, but without a single cause

Rationale:

An association is a cluster of anomalies that occur together more often than expected by chance, but without a known genetic or environmental cause.
VACTERL Association includes:
V: Vertebral anomalies
A: Anal anomalies
C: Cardiac defects
TE: Tracheoesophageal fistula
R: Renal anomalies
L: Limb anomalies
Syndromes (D) have a single genetic cause, whereas associations do not.
Sequences (B) involve one primary defect triggering secondary anomalies.
Malformations (C) refer to a single congenital defect rather than a combination of findings.

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the VACTERL Association?

A. Vertebral anomalies
B. Cleft lip and palate
C. Tracheoesophageal fistula
D. Renal anomalies

A

B. Cleft lip and palate

Rationale:

VACTERL Association includes vertebral, anal, cardiac, tracheoesophageal, renal, and limb anomalies.
Cleft lip and palate is associated with other syndromes, such as Pierre Robin Sequence or Trisomy 13/18 but not VACTERL.

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10
Q

A 35-year-old primigravida presents for prenatal consultation. Ultrasound reveals a fetus with contractures of the limbs and talipes equinovarus (clubfoot). Further history reveals the pregnancy is complicated by severe oligohydramnios. Which of the following best describes this condition?

A. Malformation
B. Deformation
C. Disruption
D. Dysplasia

A

B. Deformation

Rationale:

Deformation occurs when a normally developing structure is physically altered due to external forces.
Oligohydramnios (low amniotic fluid) can compress the fetus, leading to limb contractures, clubfoot, and craniofacial abnormalities.
It is not a malformation (A) because the organs/tissues developed normally but were altered later.
It is not a disruption (C) because no tissue destruction occurred.
It is not dysplasia (D) since the defect is not due to cellular disorganization.

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11
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of deformations in utero?

A. Genetic mutations
B. Uterine malformations, twins, oligohydramnios
C. Teratogenic exposure in the first trimester
D. Defective organogenesis

A

B. Uterine malformations, twins, oligohydramnios

Rationale:

Deformations result from mechanical forces acting on a normally developing fetus.
Common causes:
Oligohydramnios (low amniotic fluid) β†’ compression of the fetus
Twin pregnancy β†’ restricted space leading to limb contractures
Uterine malformations β†’ abnormal positioning of the fetus
Genetic mutations (A) and teratogens (C) cause malformations, not deformations.

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12
Q

A newborn presents with amniotic band syndrome, causing congenital limb constrictions and digital amputations. The fetal ultrasound was normal initially, but later scans showed these abnormalities. What best describes the pathogenesis of this condition?

A. Malformation
B. Disruption
C. Deformation
D. Dysplasia

A

B. Disruption

Rationale:

Disruption occurs when previously normal tissue is destroyed due to external factors.
Amniotic bands can wrap around fetal limbs and cut off blood supply, leading to ischemia, necrosis, and limb amputation.
It is not a malformation (A) because the limbs were originally developing normally.
It is not deformation (C) since deformations do not involve tissue destruction.
It is not dysplasia (D) because dysplasia involves abnormal cellular organization.

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13
Q

Which of the following is an example of a disruption rather than a malformation?

A. Achondroplasia
B. Amniotic band syndrome
C. Myelomeningocele
D. Pierre Robin Sequence

A

B. Amniotic band syndrome

Rationale:

Disruption = destruction of previously normal tissue.
Amniotic band syndrome β†’ Fibrous bands cut off blood supply, leading to ring constrictions and amputations.
Achondroplasia (A) is a genetic dysplasia.
Myelomeningocele (C) is a malformation.
Pierre Robin Sequence (D) is a malformation sequence.

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14
Q

A 5-year-old child presents with short stature, short limbs, and a large head with frontal bossing. Radiologic findings show loss of caudal widening in the vertebrae and short long bones of the lower limbs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Marfan Syndrome
B. Achondroplasia
C. VACTERL Association
D. Amniotic Band Syndrome

A

B. Achondroplasia

Rationale:

Dysplasia is a defect in tissue organization at the cellular level.
Achondroplasia is caused by a mutation in FGFR3, leading to abnormal cartilage and bone growth.
Features:
Short stature
Large head with frontal bossing
Short limbs with trident hand appearance
It is not Marfan Syndrome (A) because Marfan presents with tall stature and cardiovascular problems.
It is not VACTERL (C) or Amniotic Band Syndrome (D) because those involve multiple unrelated anomalies or disruptions.

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15
Q

Which of the following best defines dysplasia?

A. Abnormal cellular organization within tissue leading to structural changes
B. A primary defect causing a cascade of anomalies
C. A single congenital defect due to abnormal embryogenesis
D. A normal structure altered by external mechanical forces

A

A. Abnormal cellular organization within tissue leading to structural changes

Rationale:

Dysplasia results from abnormal cellular organization, leading to structural defects.
Example: Achondroplasia (defective cartilage growth).
Sequence (B) involves secondary defects, malformations (C) affect organogenesis, and deformations (D) are caused by external forces.

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16
Q

A 3-year-old boy is brought to the clinic for short stature. On examination, he has a large head, frontal bossing, short limbs, and trident hands. His parents are of normal height. Radiographic findings reveal loss of caudal widening of vertebrae and short long bones. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Marfan Syndrome
B. Achondroplasia
C. Turner Syndrome
D. Down Syndrome

A

B. Achondroplasia

Rationale:

Achondroplasia is the most common cause of disproportionate short stature.
Features include macrocephaly, frontal bossing, short limbs, and trident hands.
It is not Marfan Syndrome (A) because Marfan presents with tall stature and cardiovascular issues.
Turner Syndrome (C) is associated with short stature, but with features like webbed neck and gonadal dysgenesis.
Down Syndrome (D) does not present with short limbs but rather intellectual disability and facial features like upslanting palpebral fissures.

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17
Q

Which of the following syndromes is most commonly associated with tall stature?

A. Achondroplasia
B. Williams Syndrome
C. Marfan Syndrome
D. Turner Syndrome

A

C. Marfan Syndrome

Rationale:

Marfan Syndrome is characterized by tall stature, long limbs, arachnodactyly (long fingers), and cardiovascular abnormalities (aortic aneurysm, mitral valve prolapse).
Achondroplasia (A) causes short stature.
Williams Syndrome (B) does not affect stature significantly but is associated with cardiovascular defects and intellectual disability.
Turner Syndrome (D) causes short stature due to SHOX gene deletion.

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18
Q

A 2-month-old infant presents with microcephaly, severe developmental delay, and holoprosencephaly on brain imaging. Physical exam reveals cleft lip and polydactyly. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome)
B. Trisomy 13 (Patau Syndrome)
C. Trisomy 18 (Edwards Syndrome)
D. Williams Syndrome

A

B. Trisomy 13 (Patau Syndrome)

Rationale:

Trisomy 13 (Patau Syndrome) presents with:
Microcephaly
Severe developmental delay
Holoprosencephaly (failure of forebrain division)
Cleft lip/palate
Polydactyly
Down Syndrome (A) does not present with polydactyly or holoprosencephaly.
Trisomy 18 (C) causes clenched hands and rocker-bottom feet, not polydactyly.
Williams Syndrome (D) presents with hypertelorism and cardiovascular defects but not holoprosencephaly.

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19
Q

Which of the following genetic conditions is most associated with hypertelorism (wide-set eyes)?

A. Williams Syndrome
B. Trisomy 18
C. Trisomy 21
D. Achondroplasia

A

A. Williams Syndrome

Rationale:

Williams Syndrome is associated with hypertelorism, elfin facies, and supravalvular aortic stenosis.
Trisomy 18 (B) presents with microcephaly and clenched fists.
Trisomy 21 (C) presents with upslanting palpebral fissures, not hypertelorism.
Achondroplasia (D) does not primarily affect eye spacing.

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20
Q

A newborn is noted to have a single transverse palmar crease (Simian crease) on both hands. The baby also has hypotonia, upslanting palpebral fissures, and congenital heart disease. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Turner Syndrome
B. Down Syndrome
C. Noonan Syndrome
D. Klinefelter Syndrome

A

B. Down Syndrome

Rationale:

Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21) is characterized by:
Simian crease (single transverse palmar crease)
Hypotonia
Upslanting palpebral fissures
Congenital heart defects (endocardial cushion defects, AVSD)
Turner Syndrome (A) does not present with simian creases.
Noonan Syndrome (C) resembles Turner but occurs in both sexes and is linked to RASopathy.
Klinefelter Syndrome (D) is associated with infertility and tall stature but no palmar crease abnormalities.

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21
Q

Which of the following genetic conditions is most associated with polydactyly?

A. Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome)
B. Trisomy 18 (Edwards Syndrome)
C. Trisomy 13 (Patau Syndrome)
D. Turner Syndrome

A

C. Trisomy 13 (Patau Syndrome)

Rationale:

Trisomy 13 (Patau Syndrome) is the most common chromosomal condition associated with polydactyly.
Down Syndrome (A) is associated with Simian creases but not polydactyly.
Trisomy 18 (B) presents with clenched hands, not extra digits.
Turner Syndrome (D) does not affect digits.

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22
Q

A 16-year-old boy presents to the clinic for a sports physical examination. He has a tall, thin build, long limbs, and hypermobile joints. On examination, he has long fingers (arachnodactyly), a high-arched palate, and pectus excavatum. Cardiac auscultation reveals a diastolic murmur, and echocardiography confirms aortic root dilation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Marfan Syndrome
B. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
C. Homocystinuria
D. Klinefelter Syndrome

A

A. Marfan Syndrome

Rationale:

Marfan Syndrome is caused by an FBN1 (Fibrillin-1) mutation affecting connective tissue.
Features include:
Tall stature, long limbs (dolichostenomelia), and hypermobility
Aortic root dilation β†’ risk of aortic aneurysm/dissection
Ectopia lentis (lens dislocation)
Pectus deformities (excavatum or carinatum)
Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (B) also has hypermobility but lacks cardiac and eye findings.
Homocystinuria (C) mimics Marfan but presents with thrombosis, intellectual disability, and a downward lens dislocation.
Klinefelter Syndrome (D) causes tall stature but also includes hypogonadism and infertility.

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23
Q

Which of the following is the most serious life-threatening complication of Marfan Syndrome?

A. Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Aortic dissection
C. Lens dislocation
D. Mitral valve prolapse

A

B. Aortic dissection

Rationale:

The most serious complication of Marfan Syndrome is aortic dissection due to progressive aortic root dilation.
Lens dislocation (C) is characteristic but not life-threatening.
Mitral valve prolapse (D) is common but usually benign.
Spontaneous pneumothorax (A) can occur but is not the most critical complication.

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24
Q

A 10-year-old boy presents with tall stature, long limbs, scoliosis, and pectus excavatum. His teacher reports intellectual disability and learning difficulties. He has a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and a stroke at age 8. Ophthalmologic examination shows lens dislocation (ectopia lentis) downward. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Marfan Syndrome
B. Homocystinuria
C. Klinefelter Syndrome
D. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

A

B. Homocystinuria

Rationale:

Homocystinuria (CBS deficiency) presents with a Marfanoid habitus (tall, long limbs, scoliosis, pectus deformities) but differs by:
Intellectual disability
Thrombosis (DVT, stroke)
Lens dislocation downward (Marfan = upward)
Marfan Syndrome (A) has normal intelligence and no thrombosis.
Klinefelter Syndrome (C) has tall stature but features hypogonadism and infertility.
Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (D) causes hypermobility but not thrombosis or intellectual disability.

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25
Q

What is the best initial diagnostic test for Homocystinuria?

A. Serum methionine levels
B. Plasma homocysteine levels
C. Urinary organic acid analysis
D. Chromosomal karyotyping

A

B. Plasma homocysteine levels

Rationale:

Plasma homocysteine levels are the best initial test for homocystinuria (CBS deficiency).
Serum methionine levels (A) may also be elevated but are not the primary test.
Urinary organic acids (C) help diagnose metabolic disorders but not homocystinuria specifically.
Karyotyping (D) detects chromosomal abnormalities, not metabolic defects.

26
Q

A 17-year-old male presents for evaluation due to learning difficulties and behavioral issues. He is taller than expected for his age, has mild speech delay, and has a history of aggressive outbursts and poor impulse control. Physical examination is unremarkable. Karyotyping reveals 47, XYY. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Klinefelter Syndrome
B. Turner Syndrome
C. XYY Syndrome
D. Fragile X Syndrome

A

C. XYY Syndrome

Rationale:

XYY Syndrome (47, XYY) is characterized by:
Tall stature
Learning disabilities and speech delay
Behavioral issues (impulsivity, aggression, ADHD-like symptoms)
Klinefelter Syndrome (A) (47, XXY) also causes tall stature but is associated with hypogonadism and infertility.
Turner Syndrome (B) (45, X) is associated with short stature and primary amenorrhea.
Fragile X Syndrome (D) presents with intellectual disability, large ears, and macroorchidism.

27
Q

Which of the following is most commonly seen in XYY Syndrome (47, XYY)?

A. Hypogonadism and gynecomastia
B. Tall stature and behavioral issues
C. Short stature and congenital heart defects
D. Intellectual disability with macroorchidism

A

B. Tall stature and behavioral issues

Rationale:

XYY Syndrome (47, XYY) presents with:
Tall stature
Behavioral problems (aggression, impulsivity, ADHD-like features)
Mild learning difficulties
Klinefelter Syndrome (A) causes hypogonadism and gynecomastia.
Turner Syndrome (C) causes short stature and congenital heart defects.
Fragile X Syndrome (D) causes intellectual disability and macroorchidism.

28
Q

A newborn male is brought in for evaluation due to poor feeding and hypotonia. Physical examination reveals upslanting palpebral fissures, epicanthal folds, a flat facial profile, and a single transverse palmar crease. What is the most likely diagnosis?
πŸ’‘ A. Turner Syndrome
πŸ’‘ B. Trisomy 21
πŸ’‘ C. Trisomy 18
πŸ’‘ D. Klinefelter Syndrome

A

B. Trisomy 21
πŸ“ Rationale: Down syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, distinct craniofacial features, and a single palmar crease. Congenital heart defects (e.g., AV septal defect) are also common.

29
Q

A 3-day-old infant presents with micrognathia, low-set ears, and a prominent occiput. Physical examination reveals clenched fists with the index finger overlapping the third and the fifth overlapping the fourth finger. What is the likely diagnosis?
πŸ’‘ A. Trisomy 13
πŸ’‘ B. Trisomy 18
πŸ’‘ C. Marfan Syndrome
πŸ’‘ D. Turner Syndrome

A

B. Trisomy 18
πŸ“ Rationale: Clenched fists with overlapping fingers are a classic feature of Edwards syndrome (Trisomy 18). Other features include rocker-bottom feet, congenital heart defects, and severe developmental delay.

30
Q

A neonate is born with severe microcephaly, cleft lip and palate, polydactyly, and an omphalocele. Echocardiography reveals a ventricular septal defect (VSD). What is the most likely chromosomal abnormality?
πŸ’‘ A. Trisomy 21
πŸ’‘ B. Trisomy 18
πŸ’‘ C. Trisomy 13
πŸ’‘ D. Turner Syndrome

A

C. Trisomy 13
πŸ“ Rationale: Trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome) is associated with midline defects (cleft lip/palate, holoprosencephaly), polydactyly, and congenital heart defects.

31
Q

A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, a webbed neck, and widely spaced nipples. She has not yet had menarche. On exam, she has normal intelligence but poor secondary sexual development. What is the most likely diagnosis?
πŸ’‘ A. Klinefelter Syndrome
πŸ’‘ B. Turner Syndrome
πŸ’‘ C. Marfan Syndrome
πŸ’‘ D. Trisomy 18

A

B. Turner Syndrome
πŸ“ Rationale: Turner syndrome (45,X) presents with short stature, webbed neck, shield chest, and primary amenorrhea due to ovarian dysgenesis.

32
Q

A 17-year-old male presents with tall stature, small testes, and gynecomastia. He reports difficulty with reading and writing and mild learning disabilities. What is the most likely diagnosis?
πŸ’‘ A. Klinefelter Syndrome
πŸ’‘ B. Turner Syndrome
πŸ’‘ C. Marfan Syndrome
πŸ’‘ D. Fragile X Syndrome

A

A. Klinefelter Syndrome
πŸ“ Rationale: Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY) is characterized by tall stature, gynecomastia, small testes, and learning disabilities. It results from an extra X chromosome, leading to low testosterone and infertility.

33
Q

Which of the following chromosomal conditions is most commonly associated with a single palmar crease, congenital heart defects, and intellectual disability?
πŸ’‘ A. Trisomy 21
πŸ’‘ B. Trisomy 18
πŸ’‘ C. Trisomy 13
πŸ’‘ D. Turner Syndrome

A

A. Trisomy 21
πŸ“ Rationale: Single palmar crease + hypotonia + congenital heart disease (AVSD) β†’ Down syndrome (Trisomy 21).

34
Q

Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of Edwards Syndrome (Trisomy 18)?
πŸ’‘ A. Polydactyly
πŸ’‘ B. Clenched fists with overlapping fingers
πŸ’‘ C. Single palmar crease
πŸ’‘ D. Webbed neck

A

B. Clenched fists with overlapping fingers
πŸ“ Rationale: Trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome) is best recognized by clenched fists, rocker-bottom feet, and micrognathia.

35
Q

A 6-month-old infant presents with severe intellectual disability, inappropriate laughter, and ataxic gait. Genetic testing shows a deletion on maternal chromosome 15q11-13. What is the most likely diagnosis?
πŸ’‘ A. Prader-Willi Syndrome
πŸ’‘ B. Angelman Syndrome
πŸ’‘ C. Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome
πŸ’‘ D. Williams Syndrome

A

B. Angelman Syndrome
πŸ“ Rationale: Angelman Syndrome is caused by maternal chromosome 15q11-13 deletion and presents with happy demeanor, ataxia, and severe intellectual disability.

36
Q

Which of the following is a common cardiac defect in Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)?
πŸ’‘ A. Tetralogy of Fallot
πŸ’‘ B. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
πŸ’‘ C. Atrioventricular Septal Defect (AVSD)
πŸ’‘ D. Pulmonary Stenosis

A

C. Atrioventricular Septal Defect (AVSD)
πŸ“ Rationale: Down syndrome is highly associated with AVSD, a defect affecting both the atrial and ventricular septa due to abnormal endocardial cushion development.

37
Q

A 9-year-old boy presents with large ears, a long face, and intellectual disability. His teacher reports hyperactivity and social anxiety. His mother states that her brother had similar symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?
πŸ’‘ A. Fragile X Syndrome
πŸ’‘ B. Down Syndrome
πŸ’‘ C. Klinefelter Syndrome
πŸ’‘ D. Turner Syndrome

A

A. Fragile X Syndrome
πŸ“ Rationale: Fragile X Syndrome is X-linked, causing intellectual disability, large ears, a long face, and hyperactivity.

38
Q

A 16-year-old male is seen in the clinic for delayed puberty. He is tall with long limbs, has small testes, and exhibits gynecomastia. His teacher reports he has mild learning difficulties. What is the most likely diagnosis?
πŸ’‘ A. Turner Syndrome
πŸ’‘ B. Klinefelter Syndrome
πŸ’‘ C. Fragile X Syndrome
πŸ’‘ D. Noonan Syndrome

A

B. Klinefelter Syndrome
πŸ“ Rationale: Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY) is the most common sex chromosome disorder in males. Key features include tall stature, small testes, gynecomastia, and mild learning disabilities due to testosterone deficiency.

39
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding Klinefelter Syndrome?
πŸ’‘ A. It is associated with a high risk of Wilms’ tumor
πŸ’‘ B. It results from a 47,XYY karyotype
πŸ’‘ C. It is caused by an extra X chromosome (47,XXY)
πŸ’‘ D. It primarily affects females

A

C. It is caused by an extra X chromosome (47,XXY)
πŸ“ Rationale: Klinefelter Syndrome results from an extra X chromosome (47,XXY), affecting males, leading to infertility, gynecomastia, and learning difficulties.

40
Q

A 2-year-old child presents with severe intellectual disability, frequent inappropriate laughter, ataxic gait, and seizures. Genetic testing reveals a deletion on the maternal chromosome 15q11-13. What is the most likely diagnosis?
πŸ’‘ A. Prader-Willi Syndrome
πŸ’‘ B. Angelman Syndrome
πŸ’‘ C. Down Syndrome
πŸ’‘ D. Williams Syndrome

A

B. Angelman Syndrome
πŸ“ Rationale: Angelman Syndrome is caused by the deletion of the maternal chromosome 15q11-13. Classic features include severe intellectual disability, ataxia, frequent laughter, and seizures (nicknamed β€œHappy Puppet Syndrome”).

41
Q

Which of the following is the key genetic mechanism in Angelman Syndrome?
πŸ’‘ A. Paternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15
πŸ’‘ B. Maternal deletion of chromosome 15q11-13
πŸ’‘ C. Trisomy 18
πŸ’‘ D. X-linked inheritance

A

B. Maternal deletion of chromosome 15q11-13
πŸ“ Rationale: Angelman Syndrome occurs when the maternal chromosome 15q11-13 is deleted, while Prader-Willi Syndrome occurs when the paternal chromosome 15q11-13 is deleted.

42
Q

A 5-year-old boy is brought to the clinic due to excessive eating, obesity, and hypotonia. His parents report delayed milestones and poor suck reflex as a newborn. Genetic testing reveals paternal deletion of chromosome 15q11-13. What is the most likely diagnosis?
πŸ’‘ A. Angelman Syndrome
πŸ’‘ B. Prader-Willi Syndrome
πŸ’‘ C. Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome
πŸ’‘ D. Klinefelter Syndrome

A

B. Prader-Willi Syndrome
πŸ“ Rationale: Prader-Willi Syndrome results from the deletion of the paternal chromosome 15q11-13. Classic features include severe hypotonia at birth, hyperphagia, obesity, and intellectual disability.

43
Q

Which of the following is a hallmark neonatal finding in Prader-Willi Syndrome?
πŸ’‘ A. Large mandible
πŸ’‘ B. Polydactyly
πŸ’‘ C. Hypotonia and weak suck reflex
πŸ’‘ D. Short stature at birth

A

C. Hypotonia and weak suck reflex
πŸ“ Rationale: Prader-Willi Syndrome is characterized by severe neonatal hypotonia and feeding difficulties, leading to poor weight gain initially, followed by hyperphagia and obesity in childhood.

44
Q

A newborn girl is noted to have macrosomia, macroglossia, and an umbilical hernia. An ultrasound is ordered due to the increased risk of Wilms’ tumor and hepatoblastoma. What is the most likely diagnosis?
πŸ’‘ A. Prader-Willi Syndrome
πŸ’‘ B. Angelman Syndrome
πŸ’‘ C. Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome
πŸ’‘ D. Turner Syndrome

A

C. Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome
πŸ“ Rationale: Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome (BWS) is associated with macrosomia (large body size), macroglossia (large tongue), and an increased risk of Wilms’ tumor and hepatoblastoma. It is linked to 11p15 imprinting defects.

45
Q

Which of the following is NOT a feature of Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome?
πŸ’‘ A. Increased risk of Wilms’ tumor
πŸ’‘ B. Macroglossia
πŸ’‘ C. Short stature
πŸ’‘ D. Omphalocele

A

C. Short stature
πŸ“ Rationale: Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome is characterized by overgrowth (macrosomia), macroglossia, and increased risk of tumors. Short stature is NOT a feature; instead, affected individuals are large for gestational age.

46
Q

Which syndrome is most commonly associated with excessive eating and obesity in childhood?
πŸ’‘ A. Prader-Willi Syndrome
πŸ’‘ B. Angelman Syndrome
πŸ’‘ C. Klinefelter Syndrome
πŸ’‘ D. Down Syndrome

A

A. Prader-Willi Syndrome
πŸ“ Rationale: Prader-Willi Syndrome is characterized by hyperphagia, obesity, and hypotonia.

47
Q

Which condition is best known as β€œHappy Puppet Syndrome” due to frequent laughter, ataxia, and intellectual disability?
πŸ’‘ A. Prader-Willi Syndrome
πŸ’‘ B. Angelman Syndrome
πŸ’‘ C. Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome
πŸ’‘ D. Williams Syndrome

A

B. Angelman Syndrome
πŸ“ Rationale: Angelman Syndrome presents with ataxia, severe intellectual disability, and frequent laughter, leading to the nickname β€œHappy Puppet Syndrome.”

48
Q

A 15-year-old male presents with tall stature, long fingers (arachnodactyly), hypermobile joints, and a high-arched palate. Auscultation reveals a mid-systolic click. Which of the following cardiovascular complications is this patient most at risk for?

πŸ’‘ A. Aortic aneurysm and dissection
πŸ’‘ B. Coarctation of the aorta
πŸ’‘ C. Mitral valve stenosis
πŸ’‘ D. Tricuspid atresia

A

A. Aortic aneurysm and dissection
πŸ“ Rationale: Marfan Syndrome is caused by a mutation in the fibrillin gene, affecting connective tissue. Cardiovascular complications include aortic root dilation, leading to aortic aneurysm, dissection, and mitral valve prolapse (mid-systolic click).

49
Q

A 10-year-old girl presents with joint hypermobility, fragile skin, and poor wound healing. On examination, her skin is soft, stretchy, and bruises easily. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

πŸ’‘ A. Marfan Syndrome
πŸ’‘ B. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
πŸ’‘ C. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
πŸ’‘ D. Klinefelter Syndrome

A

B. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
πŸ“ Rationale: Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS) is a collagen disorder characterized by hyperextensible skin, joint hypermobility, and easy bruising. Severe forms may involve vascular complications (arterial rupture).

50
Q

A 6-month-old infant presents with failure to thrive, chronic cough, and greasy stools. A sweat chloride test confirms the diagnosis. What is the most common respiratory pathogen in children with this condition?

πŸ’‘ A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
πŸ’‘ B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
πŸ’‘ C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
πŸ’‘ D. Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
πŸ“ Rationale: Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene, leading to thick, sticky mucus in the lungs and pancreas. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common and severe pathogen in CF patients.

51
Q

Which of the following is a hallmark gastrointestinal manifestation of Cystic Fibrosis?

πŸ’‘ A. Meconium ileus
πŸ’‘ B. Pyloric stenosis
πŸ’‘ C. Hirschsprung disease
πŸ’‘ D. Malrotation with volvulus

A

A. Meconium ileus
πŸ“ Rationale: Meconium ileus (intestinal obstruction in newborns) is often the first sign of CF. Other GI complications include pancreatic insufficiency, fat malabsorption, and failure to thrive.

52
Q

A 7-year-old African-American boy presents with recurrent episodes of severe pain in his arms and legs. He has a history of splenic infarctions and dactylitis. A peripheral blood smear shows sickled red blood cells. What is the pathophysiology behind his pain?

πŸ’‘ A. Autoimmune hemolysis
πŸ’‘ B. Ischemia due to vaso-occlusion
πŸ’‘ C. Vitamin B12 deficiency
πŸ’‘ D. Thrombocytopenia

A

B. Ischemia due to vaso-occlusion
πŸ“ Rationale: Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) is caused by a missense mutation in the Ξ²-globin gene, leading to sickled RBCs that block capillaries, causing ischemic pain (vaso-occlusive crisis).

53
Q

Which of the following conditions provides protection against malaria?

πŸ’‘ A. Cystic Fibrosis
πŸ’‘ B. Sickle Cell Trait
πŸ’‘ C. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
πŸ’‘ D. Turner Syndrome

A

B. Sickle Cell Trait
πŸ“ Rationale: Individuals with Sickle Cell Trait (heterozygous HbAS) have partial protection against malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum due to increased RBC turnover.

54
Q

A 5-year-old boy presents with spontaneous bruising and prolonged bleeding after a minor cut. He has a history of hemarthrosis (joint bleeds). Laboratory tests show a prolonged PTT with a normal PT and platelet count. What is the most likely diagnosis?

πŸ’‘ A. Von Willebrand Disease
πŸ’‘ B. Hemophilia A
πŸ’‘ C. Hemophilia B
πŸ’‘ D. Glanzmann Thrombasthenia

A

B. Hemophilia A
πŸ“ Rationale: Hemophilia A (Factor VIII deficiency) and Hemophilia B (Factor IX deficiency) present with prolonged PTT, hemarthrosis, and easy bruising. Hemophilia A is more common than Hemophilia B.

55
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the genetics of Hemophilia?

πŸ’‘ A. Autosomal dominant
πŸ’‘ B. Autosomal recessive
πŸ’‘ C. X-linked recessive
πŸ’‘ D. X-linked dominant

A

C. X-linked recessive
πŸ“ Rationale: Hemophilia A and B are X-linked recessive disorders, meaning they primarily affect males, while females are usually carriers.

56
Q

A 17-year-old male presents with tall stature, long fingers (arachnodactyly), hypermobile joints, and a history of sudden chest pain. His family history is significant for aortic dissections. What is the most likely pattern of inheritance?

πŸ’‘ A. Autosomal Dominant (AD)
πŸ’‘ B. Autosomal Recessive (AR)
πŸ’‘ C. X-Linked Recessive (XLR)
πŸ’‘ D. Mitochondrial

A

A. Autosomal Dominant (AD)
πŸ“ Rationale: Marfan Syndrome, a disorder of connective tissue caused by fibrillin gene mutation, follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. It is seen in every generation and affects both males and females.

57
Q

Which of the following inherited disorders follows an autosomal dominant pattern?

πŸ’‘ A. Marfan Syndrome
πŸ’‘ B. Cystic Fibrosis
πŸ’‘ C. Sickle Cell Disease
πŸ’‘ D. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

A

A. Marfan Syndrome
πŸ“ Rationale: Autosomal Dominant disorders include Marfan Syndrome, Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF1), and Familial Hypercholesterolemia. Cystic Fibrosis and Sickle Cell Disease are autosomal recessive, while Duchenne MD is X-linked recessive.

58
Q

A 3-year-old child presents with failure to thrive, frequent lung infections, and greasy stools. Both parents are healthy, but they have a distant relative with a similar condition. What is the most likely inheritance pattern?

πŸ’‘ A. Autosomal Dominant (AD)
πŸ’‘ B. Autosomal Recessive (AR)
πŸ’‘ C. X-Linked Recessive (XLR)
πŸ’‘ D. Mitochondrial

A

B. Autosomal Recessive (AR)
πŸ“ Rationale: Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is an autosomal recessive disorder, meaning both parents are carriers but unaffected. AR disorders appear in siblings but not in parents.

59
Q

A 4-year-old boy presents with easy bruising and prolonged bleeding after minor injuries. His maternal uncle had similar symptoms. Lab tests reveal prolonged PTT with normal platelet count and PT. What is the likely inheritance pattern of his condition?

πŸ’‘ A. Autosomal Dominant (AD)
πŸ’‘ B. Autosomal Recessive (AR)
πŸ’‘ C. X-Linked Recessive (XLR)
πŸ’‘ D. Mitochondrial

A

C. X-Linked Recessive (XLR)
πŸ“ Rationale: Hemophilia A and B are X-linked recessive disorders. Males inherit the disease from their carrier mothers, and affected males cannot pass it to their sons. Maternal uncles often have the same condition.

60
Q

Which of the following diseases follows an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern?

πŸ’‘ A. Cystic Fibrosis
πŸ’‘ B. Marfan Syndrome
πŸ’‘ C. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
πŸ’‘ D. Familial Hypercholesterolemia

A

C. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
πŸ“ Rationale: X-Linked Recessive disorders affect males and are inherited from carrier mothers. Examples include Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy, Hemophilia, and G6PD Deficiency.