Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

The term mitosis coined by

A

Walther Flemming

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2
Q

Spontaneous radioactivity was discovered by

A

Becquerel

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3
Q

Glycolysis take place in?

A

Cytoplasm

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4
Q

The metal atom present in chlorophyll is?

A

Magnesium (Mg)

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5
Q

Bacterial genes lack (introns/exons)

A

Introns

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6
Q

For clearing oil spills, which microorganism is used?

A

Pseudomonas putida

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7
Q

Crop preservation is done with liquid nitrogen at temperature of

A

-196 degree Celsius

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8
Q

Plants which keep their stomata open during night for taking CO2 are known as

A

CAM plants to minimize transpiration

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9
Q

Which of the following crops has the largest area under transgenic globally ?

A

Soybean

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10
Q

Agrobacterium mediated gene transfer is only effective for (monocots/dicots)

A

Dicots

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11
Q

The DNA replicating enzyme in bacteria is

A

DNA Polymerase III

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12
Q

It contain colorless and are associated with storage starch protein and fat

A

Leucoplasts

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13
Q

Lock and key model was proposed by

A

Emil Fischer

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14
Q

_________ deals with the control of several inherited human diseases, especially inborn errors of metabolism in which the missing or defective enzyme has been identified

A

Euphenics

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15
Q

The defective copies of normal genes are known as

A

Pseudogene is a segment of DNA that structurally resembles a gene but is not capable of coding for a protein.

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16
Q

Ratio of the genetic variance to the total variance, which determines the relationship between phenotype and genotype is known as

A

Heritability
High heritability values of 0.5 mean that on average half of the differences among phenotypes of animals are genetic

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17
Q

The bond between sugar and nitrogenous base in case of DNA is known as?

A

N-glycosidic bond

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18
Q

The phenomenon of linkage was first observed by

A

Bateson and Punnet in 1906 in sweet pea (Lathyrus odoratus)

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19
Q

For corrections of defects in any popular variety ___________ method is used.

A

Backcross method

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20
Q

Which method is used for nuclear seed production of pure line varieties?

A

Mass selection

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21
Q

Varieties produced by open pollination among number of outstanding strains which usually not tested for combining ability with each other

A

Composite varieties

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22
Q

Term gene pool was coined by

A

Theodosius Dobzhansky

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23
Q

Plants showing less than _____% of outcrossing are known as self fertilizing plants.

A

5%

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24
Q

Source of male sterility in sorghum

A

Kaffir - 60

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25
Q

Common crop of natural autotetraploid grown in India is

A

Potato

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26
Q

Variety resistant to more than 1 race of pathogen

A

Horizontal resistance

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27
Q

Father of plant tissue culture

A

Haberland

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28
Q

Theory of epigenesis was given by

A

Wolf

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29
Q

Synthesis of progesterone and testosterone is associated with

A

Smooth ER

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30
Q

Term chromosome was given by

A

Waldeyer

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31
Q

Enzyme present in lysosome

A

Acid phosphatase

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32
Q

Plasma membrane consists of _____% proteins and ____% lipids

A

Almost equal to 60% lipids and 40% proteins

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33
Q

RNA synthesis occurs in

A

Nucleolus

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34
Q

RNA was 1st synthesized by

A

Severo Ochoa de Albornoz

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35
Q

Site of electron transport is

A

Mitochondria

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36
Q

Layer of cell wall made up of pectin is

A

Middle lamella

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37
Q

Characters which are expressed in one sex only

A

Sex limited

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38
Q

Physical chromosomal exchange i.e crossing over takes place in

A

Pachytene

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39
Q

Chemical found effective in inducing male sterility in bajra and barley is

A

Ethidium bromide

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40
Q

Bacteriophages are _____ virus

A

ss DNA virus

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41
Q

In which stage of meiosis chromosome condensation occurs so that they are visible fine threads formed as a structure of bouquets?

A

Leptotene

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42
Q

Organelle involved in photorespiration

A

Peroxisomes

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43
Q

Physical basis for life is

A

Protoplasm

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44
Q

Closest form of inbreeding possible in self incompatible species is

A

Sib mating

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45
Q

Fluid mosaic model was given by

A

Singer and Nicholson

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46
Q

___________ are important cytological tools for mapping genes

A

Deletions

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47
Q

Total variability present within and among species of all living organisms

A

Biodiversity

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48
Q

Multiple alleles show crossing over. True or false

A

False. There is no crossing over

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49
Q

F1 is superior to both the parents

A

Heterobeltiosis

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50
Q

Rye is

A

Autotetraploid

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51
Q

Ratio exhibited in complementary gene action

A

9:7

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52
Q

Crossing of F1 with its recessive parent

A

Test cross

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53
Q

Histones constitute about ________% of total chromosomal proteins

A

80%

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54
Q

Down syndrome is also known as

A

Mangolism

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55
Q

Isolating and process of producing identical copies of gene is known as

A

Gene cloning

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56
Q

Trisomy of Chromosome 21 leads to

A

Down Syndrome

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57
Q

Double monosomy condition is indicated as

A

2n - 1 - 1

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58
Q

Cross between an inbred line and OPV is known as

A

Top cross

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59
Q

________ leads to addition of some genes in population

A

Duplication

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60
Q

Autopolyploids show an increase in vigour and size is known as

A

Gigantism

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61
Q

Chromosome number can be counted with relative ease during _______ phase of mitosis

A

Metaphase

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62
Q

RNA that carries the AA to site of protein synthesis

A

tRNA

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63
Q

1st case of cytoplasmic inheritance was reported in

A

Mirabilis jalapa

64
Q

Common method to detect linkage

A

Test cross

65
Q

Example of non ionizing radiation

A

UV rays

66
Q

First interspecific hybridization was developed by

A

Thomas Fairchild

67
Q

Most abundant chemical present in cell wall

A

Lignin

68
Q

What is cistron, muton and recon?

A

The cistron (unit of function) begin with initiation codon and ends with a terminating codon. Each cistron is responsible for coding one m-RNA molecule

Recon : It is a unit of recombination. It is the smallest unit capable of recombining
genetically.

Muton : It is a unit of mutation. The shortest chromosomal unit capable of
undergoing mutation

69
Q

The smallest unit of genetic material that can not be divided but is interchangeable among units refers to

A

Recon

70
Q

This is the practice of mating of animals within the same breed but having no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree up to 4-6 generations.

A

Out crossing

71
Q

GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee) is an apex body, it is functioning under which ministry?

A

Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).

72
Q

Flowers do not open at all ensuring complete self pollination

A

Cleistogamy

73
Q

For differentiation of cellular components, which microscope is used?

A

Fluorescence microscopy or UV micropscope

74
Q

Range of IR in nm is

A

> 700 nm

75
Q

Conversion of spermatid into spermatozoa is

A

Spermiogenesis

76
Q

The process of synthesis of messenger RNA from a DNA template is known as

A

transcription

77
Q

Essential amino acids

A

Tryptophan, threonine, histidine, valine, isoleucine, phenylalanine, methionine, leucine, lysine
Mnemonic [Try THis VIP MaLL]
Come from diet

78
Q

Part of chromosome after secondary constriction

A

Satellite chromosome (SAT chromosome).

79
Q

The concept of plant ideotype was first given by?

A

Donald

80
Q

______ is the progeny of single homozygous plant

A

Pureline

81
Q

Ratio of epistatic gene interaction is

A

12:3:1

82
Q

CGMS line used in which of the following crops?

A

Maize, sorghum, onion, sugarbeet, pearl millet

83
Q

Presence of B line plants in A line are called

A

Pollen shedders

84
Q

Who invented the gene gun?

A

John Sanford

85
Q

Process in which seeds are formed but embryos develop without fertilization

A

Apomixis

86
Q

Transgenic crops are produced by ____ mediated gene transfer

A

Agrobacterium-mediated transformation

87
Q
  1. Animals have shorter chromosome than plants.
  2. Dicots have shorter chromosome than monocots.
A

Both are true

88
Q
  1. Arm ratio of chromosome is the ratio of shorter(p) and longer(q) arm.
  2. Chromosomal Arm ratio ranges from 0-1 depending upon the position of centromere.
  3. Arm ratio for metacentric chromosome is one. Select correct statement (s) among them?
A

Only 3 is correct
Arm ratio (L/S ratio) is the ratio of longer arm to shorter arm. Its values can range from 1 (if S = L) to +∞ (the limit for S = 0)

89
Q
  1. Centromeric region contains highly repetitive SAT-DNA which forms minor band under CsCl ultracentrifugation.
  2. Centromeric region starts replicating in late S phase.
  3. Change in the position of specific genes leads to different centromeric position
A

1 and 2 are correct
Position of centromere is constant in a given chromosome

90
Q
  1. The position of secondary constriction in SAT- chromosome is fixed and remains constant.
  2. Somatic cells of human beings contains 10 pairs of SAT-chromosome
  3. SAT chromosomes are also know as NORs How many statements are correct?
A

Only 1 is true
There are 5 pairs of SAT chromosomes
SATs contain NORs. (Nucleolus organizer regions (NORs) are chromosomal regions crucial for the formation of the nucleolus)

91
Q
  1. Diagrammatic representation of karyotype is known as idiotype.
  2. Karyotype is the photographic representation of chromosomes.
  3. Karyotype provides more information than idiotype.
A

Only 2 is correct
Diagrammatic representation of karyotype is called Ideogram.
Ideotype provides more information as we can see the genetic abnormalities

92
Q

Assertion (A): Heterochromatin replicates later than euchromatin.
Reason(R): Heterochromatin have very low gene densities and genetic recombination is greatly reduced in this region.

A

Both are true but R is not the correct explanation for A

93
Q

Assertion (A): Paranemic coiling is observed during meiotic prophase.
Reason (R): During meiosis, crossing over and genetic recombination takes place.

A

Both are true but R is not the correct explanation for A
Plectonemic coiling occurs in mitosis and Paranemic coiling occurs in meiosis.

94
Q

Arrange the following stages of cell division in descending order of duration
A. Prophase B. Telophase C. Metaphase D. Anaphase

A

ACBD

95
Q

RNA and formation of condensin proteins are synthesized during which stage of Prophase 1?

A

Fungi
In organisms undergoing an open mitosis, the NPC is disassembled along with the nuclear envelope, and therefore nuclear transport does not occur during open mitoses. However, in organisms undergoing a closed mitosis, the NPC must still function as a conduit between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

96
Q

The operon concept was developed on

A

E.coli

97
Q

The journal of genetics was founded by

A

W. Bateson and R. C. Punnett in 1910

98
Q

Mating of a cross breed back to one of the pure parent is known as?

A

Backcrossing

99
Q

Genes for the different characteristics may be transferred simultaneously in a single backcross programme?

A

Simultaneous transfer

100
Q

Off season nurseries and green houses cannot be used to advance generation in which method

A

Bulk method

101
Q

Self incompatibility term coined by _________ In 1917

A

Stout

102
Q

Self incompatibility and male sterility first reported by

A

Koelreuter

103
Q

In a linkage map or chromosome map a map unit is also known as

A

Centimorgan

104
Q

Ti plasmid used in genetic engineering is obtained from

A

Agrobacterium tumefaciens

105
Q

Which chromosome aberration will produce pseudo-dominance?

A

Pseudodominance is a scenario that occurs when recessive traits act as dominant traits in an inheritance pattern. It occurs due to the deletion of the dominant allele.

106
Q

The sum total of unfavorable recessive genes of an species is known as

A

Genetic load

107
Q

The sum total of all the genes present in a population is known as

A

Gene pool

108
Q

Protected areas of great genetic diversity under natural conditions are called

A

Gene sanctuary

109
Q

SSR F2 ratio

A

1:2:1

110
Q

Systematic hybridization on a scientific basis begin with the work

A

Koelreuter-Nicotiana.
Nicotiana paniculata and N. rustica

111
Q

Mass pedigree selection method of breeding is particularly, useful for improvement of _______ pollinated crops

A

Self pollinated

112
Q

Self-compatibility is helpful in the development of

A

Pure line variety

113
Q

Which DNA markers can be used to distinguish between a homozygote and heterozygote ?

A

Co-dominant markers like RFLP, SSR, STS, STMS

114
Q

A Lod score of 3 represents a Recombination Frequency (RF) that is:

A

3 is translated roughly into about 1,000-to-one odds that this gene really is linked to this disease as opposed to the alternative hypothesis which is unlinked ie 1000 times as likely as the hypothesis of no linkage. LOD (“log of the odds,”) LOD score actually refers to a numerical result when estimating whether two genes, or a gene and a disease, are linked to one another. LOD score has to be above 3.

115
Q

RNA interference involves

A

silencing of mRNA using complementary double stranded RNA
Method of cellular defense in eukaryotes.

116
Q

Which vectors is used to replace the defective gene in gene therapy?

A

Adenovirus vectors

117
Q

Which wheat line has complete set of monosomic and nullisomic available?

A

Chinese Spring

118
Q

UV rays have mutagenic action through

A

Dimer formation and Deamination

119
Q

How many different types of transversions are possible?

A

8
Four possible transitions and eight possible transversions

120
Q

Most abundant molecular marker in genome

A

SNP

121
Q

Which marker is widely used in constructing genetic linkage maps , and germplasm analysis in plant?

A

SSR

122
Q

If chromosome a and b gets mutated at the sites recognized by restriction enzymes which leads to variation in length of restriction fragments, such variation leads to generation of which molecular marker?

A

RFLP

123
Q

Three or more forms of genes occupying a single locus on the same chromosome are called a

A

Multiple alleles

124
Q

Which of the following country developed first Hybrid variety of Rice?

A

China

125
Q

Intergenic suppression involves mutation in

A

tRNA
It is suppression of mutation in one gene due to mutation in another gene, can be achieved mainly due to alteration in transfer RNA (tRNA)

126
Q

Which one of the following microscopic techniques can be used to study the contour of proteins?

A

AFM
Atomic force microscopy (AFM)

127
Q

The discourse of the similarities between the parents and the progeny and difference among the individuals is called as

A

Genetics

128
Q

The study of various aspects of chromosomes and their effect on development of characters of organisms is called as

A

Cytogenetics

129
Q

The gene _____ qualifies as tumor suppressor

A

p53 gene like the Rb (retinoblastoma) gene, is a tumor suppressor gene, i.e., its activity stops the formation of tumors.
If a person inherits only one functional copy of the p53 gene from their parents, they are predisposed to cancer

130
Q

Elaboration of cell theory called as Cell Lineage theory is given by

A

Rudolf Virchow

131
Q

Which spore arrangement is observed in Neurospora in absence of crossing over between a gene and its centromere

A

4:4
Crossing over between centromere and gene at four strand stage leads to 2 A : 2a : 2A : 2a or 2a : 4A : 2a arrangement. This means that reductional division is followed by equational division.

132
Q

A segment of more than 500 kb devoid of protein coding gene is known as

A

Gene desert

133
Q

Empty protein coat phage particles are known as

A

Ghost phages

134
Q

Who disproved theory of acquired characters?

A

August Weismann

135
Q

In 1902, chromosomal theory of inheritance was give by

A

Sutton and Boveri

136
Q

Who gave preformation theory?

A

Swammerdam and Bonnet

137
Q

Statement 1: Term gene was coined by Bateson.
Statement 2: Factor term for gene was given by Mendel.

A

Statement 1 is wrong
Wilhelm Johannsen coined the word ‘gene’

138
Q

Name the paper presented by Mendel before Natural History Society of Brunn in 1865

A

“Experiments in Plant Hybridization,”

139
Q

Suppose the gene B code for blue color in egg
(1) 6 out of 10 is blue and 4 are white
(2) out of 10, three are dark blue , 3 are light blue, 3 are medium blue, 1 is blue.
For given conditions, what does 1 and 2 represent:

A

Penetrance and expressivity
Penetrance is the percentage of animals of a specific genotype who express the phenotype associated with that underlying genotype. Expressivity refers to the degree that a particular genotype is expressed as a phenotype within an individual.

140
Q

Coupling and repulsion term given by

A

Bateson

141
Q

What chemical promotes recombination?

A

Mitomycin C

142
Q

Who proved experimentally that the exchange of segment take place between homologous chromosomes?

A

Curt Stern

143
Q

Who proposed chiasma type theory for relationship between chiasma and crossing over?

A

Janssens

144
Q

The gene encodes DNA pol 2

A

polB (a.k.a. dinA) gene.

145
Q

Processive enzyme

A

DNA pol delta and DNA pol epsilon
(DNA pol delta is processive only when HeLa proliferating cell nuclear antigen is present, whereas DNA pol epsilon is quite processive in its absence)
Processivity is defined as the ability of DNA polymerase to carry out continuous DNA synthesis on a template DNA without frequent dissociation

146
Q
  1. Haldane distance considers presence of interference
  2. Kosambi mapping function permits absence of interference
A

Both are false
Haldane’s mapping function assumes absence of interference between crossovers in meiosis, whereas Kosambi’s mapping function assumes a certain degree of interference

147
Q

In cytokinesis cell plate forms

A

Center toward the cell walls

148
Q

Which of the following is incorrect about genetic drift
1. It is directional force
2. Significant in large population
3. Founder effect is a special case
4. Change allelic frequency in the population

A

1 and 2
1 - non-directional and non-adaptive, i. e. the genes of a small population changes irrespective of selective advantages or disadvantages.
2 - occurs in all populations of non-infinite size, but its effects are strongest in small populations.

149
Q

Balbiani rings

A

Sites of particularly active RNA synthesis on the polytene chromosomes of Chironomids

150
Q

The lacI gene of E. coli functions as

A

Lactose repressor (LacI) regulates the transport and metabolism pathways simultaneously

151
Q

Principle of local control is not applied in

A

CRD

152
Q

Randomised Block Design is used when fertilility variation is in _____ direction

A

One

153
Q

Transcription initiation starts with the assembly of

A

Inititator Inr, multi-subunit transcription factor II D (TFIID) binds to the TATA box

154
Q

TFllD role is

A

Transcription initiation by eukaryotic RNA polymerase II (Pol II)

155
Q

Eukaryotic mRNA has a peculiar enzymatically appended cap structure consisting of 7- methyl guanosine residue via ____________ linkage

A

5′-5′ triphosphate linkage to the mRNA to

156
Q

Choose incorrect statement
1. Group I intron causes homing
2. Group II intron cause retro homing
3. In group II intron splicing, reactive A in the intron sequence is the attaching group
4. 4. In group II intron splicing, exon and lariat intermediate is generated

A

None of the above