Genetic testing and medical diagnostics Flashcards

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1
Q

More than _____ human gene tests are in diagnostic use.

A

900

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2
Q

It is becoming increasingly prevalent to

A

directly examine an individual’s DNA for mutations associated with disease.

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3
Q

Genetic tests are used for

A

prenatal, childhood, and adult prognosis and diagnosis of genetic diseases.

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4
Q

A prognostic test

A

predicts a person’s likelihood of developing a particular genetic disorder.

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5
Q

A diagnostic test

A

for a genetic condition identifies a particular mutation or genetic change that causes the disease or condition.

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6
Q

Can also test for

A

‘carriers’.

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7
Q

These tests usually detect

A

gene alterations associated with single-gene disorders inherited in a Mendelian fashion.

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8
Q

Examples include

A

sickle-cell anemia, cystic fibrosis, Huntington disease, hemophilia, and muscular dystrophy.
Also for more complex disorders like cancer.
Sampling for DNA testing are from white blood cells and cheek (buccal) swabs, hair cells or from gametes.
Results using either method are exactly the same (genomic DNA).

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9
Q

Prenatal genetic tests are used for

A

certain disorders in which waiting until birth is not desirable

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10
Q

For prenatal testing, fetal cells are obtained by

A

amniocentesis (fetal cells from amnionic fluid is harvested) or chorionic villus sampling (CVS – cells from the fetal part of the plasenta wall are collected by suction).

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11
Q

Captured fetal cells can then be

A

subjected to genetic analysis by techniques that involve PCR (such as allele-specific oligonucleotide testing, or sequencing.

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12
Q

More genetic testing has been used to detect genetic conditions in babies than in adults.

A

About 60 conditions that can be detected, although not all use DNA-or RNA-based genetic tests – some test for proteins or other metabolites.

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13
Q
A
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14
Q

Approx. _____ of the DNA in a pregnant mother’s blood belongs to the fetus.

A

3-6 %

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15
Q

Approx. 3-6 % of the DNA in a pregnant mother’s blood belongs to the fetus.
These are called cell-free DNA (cfDNA) and…

A

can be extracted and analyzed for genetic conditions such as Down syndrome (MarteniT® 21PLUS).

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16
Q

WGS of maternal blood-plasma cfDNA can be used to accurately sequence the entire exome of a fetus.

A
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17
Q

Deducing fetal genome sequences from maternal blood – haplotype analysis (contiguous DNA fragments that do not undergo recombination during gamete formation).

A
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18
Q

For any given chromosome, a fetus inherits one copy of a haplotype from the mother (maternal copies, M1 or M2) and another from the father (paternal copies, P1 or P2). Here the fetus inherited haplotypes M2 and P2 from the mother and father, respectively. DNA from the blood of a pregnant woman would contain paternal haplotypes inherited by the fetus (P2), maternal haplotypes that are not passed to the fetus (M1), and maternal haplotypes that are inherited by the fetus (M2). The maternal haplotype inherited by the fetus (M2) would be present in excess amounts relative to the maternal haplotype that is not inherited (M1).

A
19
Q

Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) analysis

A

Variation in the length of DNA fragments generated by restriction endonucleases.

20
Q

Variation in the length of DNA fragments generated by restriction endonucleases.

A

These variations are caused by mutations that create or abolish cutting sites for restriction enzymes.

21
Q

RFLPs are inherited in a
_____________ fashion and are useful as genetic markers

A

codominant

22
Q

Example of RFLPs

A

Sickle cell anemia

23
Q

Only about________ of all point mutations can be detected by RFLP analysis
______ revealed many more disease-associated mutations
Now use _________ to detect these mutations.

A

5-10 %
HGP
PCR and synthetic oligonucleotides (ASOs)

24
Q

Allele-specific oligonucleotides

A

Short, single-stranded fragment of DNA designed to hybridise to a complementary specific allele in the genome.

25
Q

Under proper conditions, an ASO will hybridise only with

A

its perfect complementary DNA sequence and not with other sequences, even those that vary by as little as a single nucleotide.

26
Q

How does Allele-specific oligonucleotides

A

Region of interest is PCR-amplified and spotted on DNA-binding membrane. Hybridised with labelled ASO and visualised by fluorescence.
Can detect single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs).
Rapid and relatively cheap – routine tests.

27
Q

ASOs are ideal for pre-implantation genetic diagnosis (PGD)

A

PCR amplification of small quantity of DNA allows for genetic analysis of single cells from embryos created by in vitro fertilisation (IVF).
Any alleles that can be detected by ASO testing can be used during PGD.
Sickle-cell anemia, cystic fibrosis, and dwarfism are often tested for by PGD, but alleles for many other conditions are also often analysed.
PGD should improve embryo implantation success rates and reduce miscarriages for couples.

28
Q

pre-implantation genetic diagnosis (PGD)

A
29
Q

Demand for genetic tests that detect complex mutation patterns or previously unknown mutations in a single gene associated with genetic diseases and cancers.

A

Microarrays can generate, simultaneously, an immense amount of information from a single array (50K spots).

30
Q

For example, the CFTR gene (responsible for cystic fibrosis) is 250 Kb in size and has 27 exons and contains approx. 1000 known mutations (about half are point mutations, insertions, and deletions - and they are widely distributed throughout the gene).

A
31
Q

Eg of microarrays:

A

Gene expression analysis
Disease diagnosis and drug development.
Nutrigenomics
Genome scanning
DNA genotyping

32
Q

DNA genotyping

A

– test for gene mutations.
Human genome microarrays containing probes for most human genes are available, including the p53 gene and the BRCA1 gene.

33
Q

Genome scanning

A

– test for SNPs.
Uses SNP sequences as probes on a DNA microarray allowing to simultaneously screen thousands of mutations that might be involved in single-gene diseases as well as those involved in disorders exhibiting multifactorial inheritance. Possible to analyze a person’s DNA for dozens or even hundreds of disease alleles .

34
Q

Gene expression analysis

A

–compare differential expression under defined conditions.

35
Q

Disease diagnosis and drug development.

A
36
Q

Nutrigenomics

A

– gene expression profiles linked to the metabolism of specific nutrients.

37
Q
A
38
Q

Gene expression analysis –compare differential expression under defined conditions.(Transcriptomics)

A

mRNA is isolated from two different cell or tissue types – e.g. normal cells and cancer cells arising from the same cell type.
The mRNA samples contain transcripts from each gene that is expressed in that cell type.
The expression level of each mRNA can be used to develop a gene-expression profile that is characteristic of the cell type under the specific conditions.

39
Q

Certain cancers have distinct patterns of gene expression, correlated to factors such as the cancer stage and response to drugs.

A

Gene expression analysed in normal white blood cells and in cells from a white blood cell cancer known as diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL).
Assayed the expression profiles of 18,000 genes and discovered that there were two types of DLBCL, with almost inverse patterns of gene expression!

40
Q

Pathogen Identification – use of Microarrays and NGS

A

Whole-genome analysis to identify genes associated with infections

41
Q

Hosts are infected in vitro with bacteria, yeast, protist, or viral pathogens, and then gene-expression microarrays are used to analyze pathogen gene-expression profiles.

A

Patterns of pathogen gene activity during infection and replication are useful for identifying pathogens and understanding mechanisms of infection.

42
Q

NGS and third-generation sequencing (TGS) methods are being used for pathogen identification.

A

Whole-genome sequencing (WGS) is a quick way to identify pathogenic bacteria, viruses, or other microorganisms, and also valuable for tracking genetic variations in microorganisms.
CERI @SU: NGS provided a large body of data on evolving strains of SARS-Cov-2, identified delta and omicron variants.

43
Q

A primary goal of infectious disease research is to prevent infection. Gene-expression profiling can identify important pathogen genes and the proteins they encode. The latter may prove to be useful targets for subunit vaccine development or for drug treatment strategies to prevent or control infectious disease.

A
44
Q

Genome screening for “good” genes/mutations
Natural or “healthy knockouts” - the fortunate few individuals who may lack a specific gene or have a mutation in a disease-causing gene that provides a health benefit

A

A rare mutation (1 person in 10 million) in the human gene ISG15 protects individuals with this mutation against many, if not most viruses.

ISG15 mutations knock out a function that helps to dampen inflammation, so individuals with this mutation have a heighted inflammatory system, which helps fight off viruses.

CCR5 delta-32 mutation makes one immune to HIV infection (1% of Northern European population).