General surgery Flashcards

1
Q

Define the acute abdomen. What physical examination signs suggest its presence?

A

Acute abdomen generally refers to an inflamed peritoneum (peritonitis), which is often because
of a surgically correctable problem. Patients with an acute abdomen often receive a laparotomy and/or laparoscopy because it signifies a potentially life-threatening condition. The best physical examination confirmations of peritonitis are rebound tenderness and involuntary guarding. Rebound tenderness is elicited by letting go quickly after deep palpation of the abdomen; acute pain occurs in the area of palpation (with generalized peritonitis) or at the location of localized inflammation (e.g., Rovsing sign in appendicitis). Involuntary guarding describes abdominal wall muscle spasms that cannot be controlled. Voluntary guarding (person reflexively or willfully tenses their abdomen during attempted palpation) and tenderness to palpation are softer signs often present in benign diseases.

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2
Q

What should you do if you are not sure whether a stable patient has an acute abdomen?

A

When you are in doubt and the patient is stable, use minimal as needed pain medications (to avoid masking symptoms before you have a diagnosis), perform serial abdominal examinations, and consider a computed tomography (CT) scan. If the patient becomes unstable, proceed to laparoscopy and/or laparotomy.

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3
Q

Name a few causes of peritonitis that do not require laparotomy or laparoscopy

A

Pancreatitis, many cases of diverticulitis, and spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.

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4
Q

What are the classic symptoms and signs of gallstone disease?

A

Classic gallstone symptoms include postprandial, colicky pain in the right upper quadrant with bloating and/or nausea and vomiting. The pain usually begins 15 to 60 minutes after a meal (especially a fatty meal). Look for Murphy sign (palpation of the right upper quadrant under the rib cage causes arrest of inspiration as a result of pain) as the main physical examination finding for cholecystitis.

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5
Q

What are the six Fs of cholecystitis? How are the demographics of patients with pigment stones different from those with cholesterol stones?

A

The first five Fs summarize the demographics of people with cholesterol gallstones: fat, forty, fertile, female, and flatulent; the sixth F is febrile, which indicates that such patients have now developed acute cholecystitis. Patients with pigment (i.e., calcium bilirubinate) stones are classically young patients with hemolytic anemia (e.g., sickle cell disease, hereditary spherocytosis).

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6
Q

How is a clinical suspicion of cholecystitis confirmed and treated?

A

Ultrasound is the best first imaging study for suspected gallbladder disease (Fig. 13-1). It may show gallstones, a thin layer of fluid around the gallbladder, and/or a thickened gallbladder wall. A more specific ultrasonographic Murphy sign using direct visualization of the gallbladder can be obtained (variant anatomy and significant obesity can create uncertainty). A nuclear hepatobiliary scintigraphic study (e.g., hepato-iminodiacetic acid [HIDA] scan) clinches the diagnosis with nonvisualization of the gallbladder (Fig. 13-2). The treatment is pain control and cholecystectomy (antibiotics may be indicated if infection is suspected); a laparoscopic approach is generally preferred over an open procedure.

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7
Q

Define cholangitis. How does it differ from cholecystitis? How is it treated?

A

Cholangitis is an inflammation of the bile ducts, whereas cholecystitis is an inflammation of the gallbladder. Cholangitis is classically caused by biliary obstruction with subsequent bile stasis and infection. Choledocholithiasis (a gallstone in the common bile duct) and malignancy are common causes of obstruction. Autoimmune cholangitis (e.g., sclerosing cholangitis) and primary infection (e.g., Clonorchis sinensis and other parasite infections common in some parts of Asia) are other causes. Cholangitis classically presents with Charcot triad: (1) right upper quadrant pain, (2) fever or shaking chills, and (3) jaundice. Patients may have a history of gallstones. Start broad-spectrum antibiotics to cover bowel flora (e.g., piperacillin with tazobactam); then manage more definitively depending on the circumstances (e.g., cholecystectomy with evacuation of any common duct stones for gallstone disease, biliary stent placement for unresectable malignant obstruction).

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8
Q

Describe the classic presentation of appendicitis. How is it treated?

A

Appendicitis classically presents in 10- to 30-year-olds with a history of crampy, poorly localized periumbilical pain followed by nausea and vomiting. Then the pain localizes to the right lower quad- rant, and peritoneal signs develop with worsening of nausea and vomiting. It is said that a patient who is hungry and asking for food does not have appendicitis (called the “hamburger” sign). A classic clue to the diagnosis is Rovsing sign: when you palpate a different quadrant and then quickly release your hand, the patient feels pain at McBurney point (two thirds of the way from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine). McBurney point is the area of maximal tenderness in the right lower quadrant and the site where an open appendectomy incision is made. CT is increasingly used to confirm the diagnosis before surgery in stable patients (Fig. 13-3).

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9
Q

What is the cause of left lower quadrant pain and fever in a patient older than 50 years until proved otherwise? How is it treated?

A

Diverticulitis. Treat medically with broad-spectrum antibiotics (e.g., ciprofloxacin plus metronidazole), avoidance of eating, and a nasogastric tube if nausea and vomiting are present. For disease that recurs or is refractory to medical therapy, consider sigmoid colon resection.

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10
Q

What tests should and should not be done to confirm possible cases of diverticulitis? What test does every patient need after a treated episode of diverticulitis?

A

Colonoscopy should not be performed in the acute setting because colon rupture may occur; barium enema is also avoided for the same reason. However, one of these tests should be done in every patient after treatment to exclude colon carcinoma. Order a CT scan, if necessary, to confirm a diagnosis of diverticulitis (

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11
Q

Describe the typical history, physical examination, and laboratory findings of pancreatitis. How is it treated?

A

Look for epigastric pain that radiates to the back in an alcohol abuser or a patient with a history of (or risk factors for) gallstones. Serum amylase and/or lipase should be elevated. If these values are not given, order them. Other common signs include decreased bowel sounds, localized ileus (“sentinel” loop of bowel on abdominal radiograph) and nausea, vomiting, and/or anorexia.
Treat pancreatitis supportively; narcotics are often needed for pain control; hydromorphone or fentanyl are common choices these days; meperidine, which has a risk of seizures, has traditionally been favored over morphine because of the concern about sphincter of Oddi spasm, although clinical evidence of this is lacking. Do not feed the patient initially; place a nasogastric tube as needed for nausea and vomiting; and give intravenous (IV) fluids as well as other needed supportive care. Watch for the complications of pseudocyst and pancreatic abscess, both of which can be diagnosed by CT scan and may require surgical intervention.

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12
Q

Describe the usual history of a perforated ulcer. How is it treated?

A

Patients often have no history of alcohol abuse or gallstones (pancreatitis risk factors). Abdominal radiographs classically show free air under the diaphragm, and a history of peptic ulcer disease(PUD) is often included in the patient description. Remember that a perforated bowel can cause an increased amylase and lipase levels. Treat with surgery.

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13
Q

What are the hallmarks of small bowel obstruction? How is it treated?

A

Small bowel obstruction commonly causes bilious vomiting (early symptom), abdominal distention, con- stipation, hyperactive bowel sounds (high-pitched, rushing sounds), and usually poorly localized abdomi- nal pain. Radiographs show multiple air-fluid levels. Patients often have a history of previous surgery.
Start treatment by withholding food, placing a nasogastric tube, and giving IV fluids. If the obstruc- tion does not resolve or if peritoneal signs develop, laparotomy is usually needed. CT scanning can confirm an uncertain diagnosis in stable patients and may reveal the underlying cause of obstruction.

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14
Q

What are the common causes of a small bowel obstruction?

A

In adults, the most common cause is adhesions, which usually develop from prior surgery. Incarcer- ated hernias and Crohn disease are other common causes. Other causes include Meckel diverticulum and intussusception (both typically seen in children).

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15
Q

Describe the signs and symptoms of large bowel obstruction. What causes it? How is it treated?

A

Large bowel obstruction usually presents with gradually increasing abdominal pain, abdominal dis- tention, constipation, and feculent vomiting (late symptom). In older adults, the most common causes are diverticulitis, colon cancer, and volvulus. In children, watch for Hirschsprung disease. Treat early by withholding food and placing a nasogastric tube for nausea and vomiting. Sigmoid volvulus (Figs. 13-5 and 13-6) can often be decompressed with an endoscope. Other causes or refractory cases require surgery to relieve the obstruction.

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16
Q

List and differentiate the three common types of groin hernias.

A
  1. Indirect hernias are the most common type in both sexes and all age groups. The hernia sac travels through the inner and outer inguinal rings (protrusion begins lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels) and into the scrotum or labia because of a patent processus vaginalis (congenital defect).
  2. Direct hernias (no sac) protrude medial to the inferior epigastric vessels because of weakness in the abdominal musculature of Hesselbach’s triangle.
  3. Femoral hernias are more common in women. The hernia (no sac) goes through the femoral ring onto the anterior thigh (located below the inguinal ring).
    Of the three types, femoral hernias are the most susceptible to incarceration and strangulation. All three types are treated with elective surgical repair if symptomatic.
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17
Q

Define incarcerated and strangulated hernias.

A

Incarceration occurs when a herniated organ is trapped and becomes swollen and edematous. Incarcerated hernias are the most common cause of small bowel obstruction in patients who have had no previous abdominal surgery and the second most common cause in patients who have had previous abdominal surgery (Fig. 13-7). Treatment is prompt surgery.
Strangulation occurs after incarceration when the entrapment becomes so severe that the blood supply is cut off. Strangulation can lead to necrosis and is a surgical emergency. Patients may come to the hospital with symptoms of small bowel obstruction and shock.

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18
Q

True or false: Generally, patients should not eat or drink for 8 hours or more before surgery.

A

True. This protocol reduces the chance of aspiration and subsequent pneumonia

19
Q

What is the best test (other than a good history) for preoperative evaluation of pulmonary function?

A

Spirometry, which gives functional vital capacity, forced expiratory volumes, and maximal voluntary ventilation. A good history (e.g., activity level, exercise tolerance) is also useful.

20
Q
What measures help prevent intraoperative and postoperative deep
venous thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolus (PE)?
A

Compressive/elastic stockings, early ambulation, and/or low-dose heparins (unfractionated or low molecular weight).

21
Q

What is the most common cause of fever in the first 24 hours after surgery?

A

Atelectasis. Prevent and treat atelectasis with early ambulation, chest physiotherapy/percussion, incentive spirometry, and proper pain control. Too much pain and too many narcotics (both can decrease respiratory effort) increase the risk of atelectasis.

22
Q

What are the other common causes of postoperative fever?

A

The five Ws—water, wind, walk, wound, and weird drugs—summarize the common causes of post- operative fever. Water stands for urinary tract infection, wind for atelectasis and pneumonia, walk for DVT, wound for surgical wound infection, and weird drugs for drug fever. In patients with daily fever spikes that do not respond to antibiotics, think about an intraabdominal abscess. Order a CT scan to locate the abscess, and then drain it if present.

23
Q

Define fascial or wound dehiscence. How do you recognize it?

A

Fascial or wound dehiscence occurs when the surgical wound opens spontaneously, usually 5 to 10 days postoperatively. Look for leakage of serosanguineous fluid from the wound, particularly after the patient coughs or strains. Frequently the wound is infected. Surgical reclosure of the wound and treatment of infection are required.

24
Q

Explain the ABCDEs of trauma. How are they used?

A

The ABCDEs of trauma are airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure. They are the keys to the initial management of trauma patients. Follow them in order if simultaneous management is not possible. For example, if a patient is bleeding to death and has a blocked airway, address airway management first

25
Q

What is the difference between airway and breathing in trauma protocol?

A

Airway means provision, protection, and maintenance of an adequate airway at all times. If the patient can speak, the airway is fine. You can use an oropharyngeal airway in uncomplicated cases and give supplemental oxygen. When you are in doubt or the patient’s airway is blocked, intubate. If intubation fails, do a cricothyroidotomy.
Breathing is similar to airway, but even patients with an open airway may not be breathing spon- taneously. The end result is the same. When you are in doubt or the patient is not breathing, intubate. If intubation fails, do a cricothyroidotomy.

26
Q

Explain circulation, disability, and exposure.

A

Circulation refers to circulating blood volume. For practical purposes, it means that if the patient seems hypovolemic (tachycardic, bleeding, weak pulse, pale, diaphoretic, capillary refill more than 2 seconds), give IV fluids and/or blood products. Initially, you should start two large-bore IV lines and give a bolus of 10 to 20 mL/kg (roughly 1 L) of lactated Ringer solution or normal saline. Then reas- sess the patient after the bolus for improvement. Repeat the bolus, if needed.
Disability refers to the need to check neurologic function. In practical terms, this translates into doing a Glasgow coma scale assessment.
Exposure reminds you to expose and examine the entire body. In other words, remove all of the patient’s clothes and “put a finger in every orifice” so that you do not miss any occult injuries.

27
Q

What imaging films are routinely ordered for most patients with at least moderately severe trauma?

A

Cervical spine, chest, and pelvic radiographs.

28
Q

What is the imaging study of choice for head trauma?

A

Noncontrast CT (better than magnetic resonance imaging [MRI] for acute trauma).

29
Q

How do you manage a patient with blunt abdominal trauma?

A

In patients with blunt abdominal trauma, the initial findings determine the appropriate course of action. If the patient is awake and stable and your examination is “benign,” observe the patient and repeat the abdominal examination later. You can also do a FAST (focused assessment by sonography in trauma) scan to check for free fluid in the abdomen and pelvis. Meanwhile, perform a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with oral and IV contrast.
If the patient is hemodynamically unstable (hypotension and/or shock that does not respond to fluid challenge), proceed directly to laparotomy.
If the patient has a positive FAST scan (i.e., there is free fluid, presumably blood, in the abdomen), proceed to laparotomy.
If the patient has altered mental status, the abdomen cannot be examined, or an obvious source of blood loss explains the hemodynamic instability, order a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis (Fig. 13-8) with oral and IV contrast (also obtain a CT scan of the head and cervical spine if altered mental status is present). Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is no longer used because it is nonspecific and less sensitive than CT; it can also alter CT scan results.

30
Q

How is penetrating abdominal trauma managed?

A

In patients with penetrating abdominal trauma (e.g., gunshot, stab wound), the type of injury and the initial findings determine the course of action. With any gunshot wound that may have violated the peritoneal cavity, proceed directly to laparotomy. With a wound from a sharp instrument, management is more controversial. Either proceed directly to laparotomy (your best choice if the patient is unstable) or perform a CT scan if the patient is stable. With nonoperative management, perform serial abdominal examinations.

31
Q

Which six thoracic injuries can be rapidly fatal?

A
  1. Airway obstruction
  2. Open pneumothorax
  3. Tension pneumothorax
  4. Cardiac tamponade
  5. Massive hemothorax
  6. Flail chest
    You may be asked to recognize and/or treat any of these six conditions on the USMLE.
32
Q

How do you recognize and treat airway obstruction?

A

Patients with airway obstruction have no audible breath sounds, cannot answer questions even if awake, and may be gurgling. Treat with intubation. If intubation fails, do a cricothyroidotomy (or a tracheostomy in the operating room, if time allows).

33
Q

How do you recognize and treat an open pneumothorax?

A

An open pneumothorax presents with an open defect in the chest wall and decreased or absent breath sounds on the affected side. This condition causes poor ventilation and oxygenation. Treat with intubation, positive-pressure ventilation, and closure of the defect in the chest wall. To close the defect, use gauze and tape it on three sides only. This approach allows excessive pressure to escape so that you do not convert an open pneumothorax into a tension pneumothorax.

34
Q

How do you recognize and treat a tension pneumothorax?

A

A tension pneumothorax may occur after blunt or penetrating trauma to the chest. Air forced into the pleural space cannot escape and collapses the affected lung and then shifts the mediastinum and trachea to the opposite side of the chest (Fig. 13-9). Findings include absent breath sounds on the affected side and a hypertympanic percussion sound. Hypotension and/or distended neck veins may result from impaired cardiac filling. Treat with needle thoracentesis, followed by insertion of a chest tube.

35
Q

Describe the usual presentation of cardiac tamponade. How is it diagnosed and treated?

A

Cardiac tamponade is classically associated with penetrating trauma to the left side of the chest. Patients have hypotension (caused by impaired cardiac filling), distended neck veins, muffled heart sounds, pulses paradoxes (exaggerated fall in blood pressure on inspiration), and normal breath sounds. If the patient is unstable, treat with pericardiocentesis; put a catheter through the skin and into the pericardial sac and aspirate blood and fluid. If the patient is stable, you can first do an echo- cardiogram to confirm the diagnosis.

36
Q

Define massive hemothorax. How is it diagnosed and treated?

A

Massive hemothorax is defined as a loss of more than 1 L of blood into the thoracic cavity. Patients have decreased (not absent) breath sounds in the affected area, dull note on percussion, hypotension, collapsed neck veins (from blood leaving the vascular tree), and tachycardia. Placement of a chest tube allows the blood to come out. Give IV fluids and/or blood before you place the chest tube if the diagnosis is known in advance. If the bleeding stops after the initial outflow, order a chest radiograph or CT scan to check for remaining blood or pathology. Treat supportively. If the bleeding does not stop, emergent thoracotomy is required.

37
Q

How do you recognize and treat flail chest?

A

Flail chest occurs when several adjacent ribs are broken in multiple places, causing the affected part of the chest wall to move paradoxically during respiration (inward during inspiration, outward during expiration). Almost all patients have an associated pulmonary contusion, which, combined with pain, may make respiration inadequate. When you are in doubt or the patient is not doing well, intubate and give positive pressure ventilation.

38
Q

What is the most common cause of immediate death after an automobile accident or a fall from a great height?

A

Aortic rupture. Look for a widened mediastinum on chest radiograph and an appropriate history
of trauma. Order a CT scan or angiogram if a contained aortic rupture (of those who survive to be admitted to the hospital, 50% will die in the first 24 hours) is suspected. Aortic laceration, traumatic aortic injury and traumatic pseudoaneurysm all describe the phenomenon seen in initial survivors: an aortic rupture contained by a hematoma or an inadequate amount of surrounding tissue
(e.g., adventitia only). Treat with immediate surgical repair.

39
Q

What do you need to know about splenic rupture?

A

The spleen is the most commonly injured organ in blunt trauma (Fig. 13-10). Patients with splenic rupture, the most severe form of injury, have a history of blunt abdominal trauma, hypotension, tachycardia, shock, and/or Kehr sign (referred pain in the left shoulder). Patients with Epstein-Barrvirus infection or infectious mononucleosis and splenomegaly should avoid contact sports to prevent rupture. Make sure patients needing splenectomy have received the pneumococcal, meningococcal, and H. influenzae (i.e., encapsulated bacteria) vaccines.

40
Q

What clues suggest a diagnosis of diaphragmatic rupture? How is it treated?

A

Diaphragm rupture usually occurs after blunt trauma and on the left side (because the liver protects the right side of the diaphragm). You may hear bowel sounds when listening to the chest or see bowel that has herniated into the chest on chest radiograph. Treatment is surgical repair of the diaphragm.

41
Q

What are the three zones of the neck? How is trauma in each of the different zones managed?

A

Zone I is the base of the neck from 2 cm above the clavicles to the level of the clavicles.
Zone II is the midcervical region from 2 cm above the clavicle to the angle of the mandible.
Zone III is the top of the neck from the angle of the mandible to the base of the skull.
With zone I and III injuries, you generally should order an arteriogram before going to the operat-
ing room. With zone II injuries, proceed to the operating room for surgical exploration without an arteriogram. In patients with obvious bleeding or a rapidly expanding hematoma in the neck, proceed directly to operating room, no matter where the injury is.

42
Q

How should a choking victim be managed?

A

Always leave choking patients alone if they are speaking, coughing, or breathing. If they stop doing all of these, perform the Heimlich maneuver.

43
Q

What should you do if a tooth is knocked out?

A

Put the tooth back in place with no cleaning (or only saline to rinse it off) and stabilize the tooth in place. The sooner this is done, the better the prognosis for salvage of the tooth.