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CISSP - Security Management > General Security > Flashcards

General Security Flashcards

1
Q

4 Phases of DITSCAP and NIACAP accreditation

A
  1. Definition”
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2
Q

A weakness in a system which might be exploited

A

Vulnerability

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3
Q

ALE

A

Annualized Loss Expectancy

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4
Q

Also called a maintenance hook

A

Trap door

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5
Q

An event that can cause harm to a system and create a loss of C, I , A

A

Threat

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6
Q

Are SSL and TLS compatible?

A

no

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7
Q

Are SSL sessions stateful or stateless?

A

stateful

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8
Q

ARO

A

Annualized Rate of Occurence

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9
Q

At the Network Interface layer, what is the packet of information placed on the wire known as?

A

a frame

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10
Q

At what OSI layer (and above) must networked computers share a common protocol?

A

data link and above

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11
Q

Attack that exploits difference in time when a security control is applied and a service is used

A

TOC/TOU attack

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12
Q

Biba, Clark Wilson, and Non?Interference models cover what aspect of security

A

Integrity

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13
Q

Combination of ITSEC, TCSEC, and Canada’s CTCPEC

A

Common Criteria

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14
Q

Consolidation of power should not be allowed in a secure system, this is called

A

Separation (or segregation) of duties

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15
Q

Design where a component failure allows the system to continue to function

A

Fault?tolerant

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16
Q

Design where a failure causes non?critical processes to terminate, and system runs in a degraded state

A

Fail?soft or Resilient

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17
Q

Design where a failure causes termination of processes to protect the system from compromise

A

Fail?safe

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18
Q

Design where a failure causes the system to use backup spare components to compensate for failed ones

A

Fail?over

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19
Q

Do hashing algorithms protect files from unauthorized viewing?

A

no, only verify files have not been changed

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20
Q

Does DSS use symmetric or asymmetric keys?

A

asymmetric

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21
Q

Does L2TP require IP connectivity?

A

no

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22
Q

Does PPTP require IP connectivity?

A

yes

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23
Q

Does TLS use the same ports for encrypted and unencrypted data?

A

no

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24
Q

EF

A

Exposure Factor

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25
Q

European counterpart to TCSEC

A

ITSEC (Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria)

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26
Q

Execution and memory space assigned to each process is called a _______ _______

A

Protection Domain

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27
Q

From what does RSA derive its strength?

A

the difficulty of factoring large numbers

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28
Q

How are asymmetric algorithms used for authentication?

A

authenticator sends a random number (nonce) to receiver, who encrypts it with their private key

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29
Q

How are digital signatures implemented?

A

a hash is created and encrypted with the creator’s private key

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30
Q

How are RSA and DES used together?

A

RSA is used to encrypt the key for transmission; DES is used for message encryption

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31
Q

How can source routing be defended against?

A

routers can be configured to discard source?routed packets

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32
Q

How do the RADIUS client and server avoid sending their shared secret across the network?

A

shared secret is hashed and hash is sent

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33
Q

How does a host respond to a FIN packet if the scanned port is open? Closed?

A

open: packet discarded; closed: RST

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34
Q

How does a host respond to a TCP connect scann if the scanned port is open? Closed?

A

open: SYN?ACK; closed: RST

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35
Q

How does an 802.1x authenticator handle authentication traffic?

A

Passes it to a RADIUS server for authentication

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36
Q

How does an application?level firewall handle different protocols?

A

with a proxy program for each protocol

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37
Q

How does an XMAS scan work?

A

a variety of TCP packets are sent to elicit a response

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38
Q

How does CHAP work?

A

server sends random value to client; client uses MD5 to create hash with ID, random value, and shared secret; client sends hash to server; server performs same function and compares values

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39
Q

How is source routing used by attackers?

A

used to route packets around security devices

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40
Q

In a 128?bit WEP key, how long is the actual secret key?

A

104 bits? the first 24 bits are used for the Initialization Vector (IV)

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41
Q

In a bridge CA architecture, what is the CA that connects to a bridge CA called?

A

a principal CA

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42
Q

In biometric scanning, what is the crossover rate?

A

error percentage when Type I and II errors are equal

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43
Q

In MAC, of read?up, read?down, write?up, and write?down, which two are legal? Which two are illegal?

A

legal? read?down, write?up”

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44
Q

In MAC, what is read?up?

A

the ability of users in lower security categories to read information in higher categories

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45
Q

In relation to AAA, what is CIA?

A

Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

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46
Q

Is 802.11g backwards?compatible with 802.11a and 802.11b?

A

backwards?compatible with 802.11b only at 11 Mbps

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47
Q

Is L2TP usually implemented through hardware or software?

A

hardware

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48
Q

Is PPTP usually implemented through hardware or software?

A

software

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49
Q

Is RSA a public? or private?key system?

A

public?key

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50
Q

ITSEC separately evaluates ____ and _____

A

Functionality and Assurance

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51
Q

Lack of parameter checking leaves a system vulnerable to this type of attack

A

Buffer overflow

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52
Q

No Read Up, No Write Down describes what Security Model

A

Bell LaPadula

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53
Q

Non?repudiation has been compared to what real?world version of authentication?

A

using a public notary

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54
Q

Observing the timer value in the TCP stack makes what possible?

A

determining the OS in use, useful in planning attacks

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55
Q

Operates at the highest level of information classification where all users must have clearances for the highest level

A

System High mode

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56
Q

Operating system loaded without the front?end security enabled, is only done in this mode

A

Single?user mode

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57
Q

Operators are given varying assignments for a time period, then their assignment changes. This is called

A

Rotation of duties

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58
Q

Programming technique used to encapsulate methods and data in an object

A

Information Hiding

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59
Q

Required tracking of changes to a system under B2, B3, and A1 is called

A

Configuation Management

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60
Q

Separation of duties, least privilege, personnel security, configuration control, Record retention, are examples of what type of controls?

A

Administrative Controls

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61
Q

SLE

A

Single Loss Expectancy

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62
Q

Software controls, media controls, hardware controls, physical access controls are examples of what type of controls?

A

Operations Controls

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63
Q

System component that manages and enforces access controls on objects

A

Reference Monitor

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64
Q

TCSEC Discretionary Protection (two classes)

A

C1 (User logon, Groups allowed)”

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65
Q

TCSEC level that addresses both covert storage and timing channels

A

B3, A1

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66
Q

TCSEC Level that addresses covert storage channels

A

B2

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67
Q

TCSEC Mandatory Protection (three classes)

A

B1 (MAC)”

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68
Q

TCSEC Minimal Protection (one class)

A

D (Minimal Protection)

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69
Q

TCSEC Verified Protection (one class)

A

A1 (Mathematical model must be proven)

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70
Q

The Boundary that separates the TCB from the rest of the system.

A

Security Perimeter

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71
Q

The ITSEC subject of an evaluation is called the ___ __ _____

A

Target of Evaluation (TOE)

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72
Q

This Access Control model specifies the rights that a subject can transfer to an object, or that a subject can take from another subject.

A

Take?Grant model

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73
Q

This recovery mode permits access by only privileged users from privileged terminals

A

Maintenance mode

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74
Q

This refers to the data left on media after erasure

A

Data Remanence

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75
Q

This standard includes levels of assurance, from D (Least secure) to A (Most secure)

A

TCSEC (Trusted Computer Security Evaluation Criteria)

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76
Q

This type of recovery is required for only B3 and A1 TCSEC levels

A

Trusted Recovery

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77
Q

Two operators are needed to perform a function. This is called

A

Dual Control

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78
Q

Two operators review and approve each other’s work. This is called

A

Two?man control

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79
Q

Unit of evaluations levels in the Common Criteria

A

Evaluation Assurance Level”

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80
Q

What advantage does compulsory tunneling provide?

A

allows VPN connections to be concentrated over fewer high?capacity lines

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81
Q

What advantage does LEAP have over EAP?

A

LEAP allows for mutual authentication

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82
Q

What advantage does LEAP have over EAP?

A

LEAP allows for mutual authentication

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83
Q

What advantage does RADIUS have over TACACS+?

A

better vendor support and implementation

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84
Q

What advantage does TACACS+ have over RADIUS?

A

better security

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85
Q

What advantage does TACACS+ have over TACACS?

A

multi?factor authentication

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86
Q

What advantages do hand geometry scans have over fingerprint scans?

A

they are faster, cleaner, and less invasive

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87
Q

What algorithm does AES use?

A

Rijndael

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88
Q

What are DAT drives primarily used for?

A

basic network backups

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89
Q

What are most fire extinguishers loaded with?

A

FE?36

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90
Q

What are QIC tapes primarily used for?

A

backing up standalone computers

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91
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of retinal scanning?

A

most reliable but most invasive

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92
Q

What are the five main services provided by firewalls?

A

packet filtering; application filtering; proxy server; circuit?level; stateful inspection

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93
Q

What are the four layers of the TCP/IP suite? How do they map to the OSI model?

A

Application > Application?Session”

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94
Q

What are the four WAP layers?

A

Wireless Application Environment (WAE); Wireless Session Layer (WSL); Wireless Transport Layer Security (WTLS); Wireless Transport Layer (WTL)

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95
Q

What are the seven stages in a certificate life cycle?

A

certificate enrollment; distribution; validation; revocation; renewal; destruction; auditing

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96
Q

What are the six steps to incident response?

A

Preparation; Identification; Containment; Eradication; Recovery; Follow?Up

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97
Q

What are the three A’s in computer forensics?

A

Acquire, Authenticate, Analyze

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98
Q

What are the three components of AAA?

A

Authentication, Authorization, Access Control

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99
Q

What are the three major classification levels with MAC?

A

Top Secret; Confidential; Unclassified

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100
Q

What are the three major components of SSH?

A

Transport Layer protocol (SSH?TRANS); User authentication protocol (SSH?USERAUTH); connection protocol (SSH?CONN)

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101
Q

What are the three types of NAT?

A

static NAT; dynamic NAT; overloading NAT

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102
Q

What are the two advantages of block ciphers over stream ciphers?

A

they are faster and more secure

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103
Q

What are the two basic types of DoS attacks?

A

flaw exploitation attacks and flooding attacks

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104
Q

What are the two encryption modes for IPSec?

A

Transport, where only the data is encrypted; and Tunneling, where the entire packet is encrypted

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105
Q

What are the two main components of L2TP?

A

L2TP Access Controller (LAC) and L2TP Network Server (LNS)

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106
Q

What are the two main types of firewalls?

A

application?level and network?level

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107
Q

What are the two most popular hashing routines in use today?

A

MD5 and SHA?1

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108
Q

What are the two parts of a Key Distribution Center?

A

An authentication server (AS) and a ticket?granting server (TGS)

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109
Q

What are the two types of network?level firewalls?

A

packet filters and stateful packet inspection

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110
Q

What are the two types of symmetric algorithms?

A

block and stream

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111
Q

What are tokens also known as?

A

One?time passwords

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112
Q

What are two characteristics of a null scan?

A

TCP sequence number set to 0; no TCP flags set

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113
Q

What can be done to reduce the effects of half?open attacks?

A

reduce the time a port waits for a response

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114
Q

What disadvantage does CRL have that OCSP addresses?

A

updates must be downloaded frequently to be accurate

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115
Q

What disadvantage does CRL have the OCSP addresses?

A

updates must be downloaded frequently to be accurate

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116
Q

What disadvantage does speech recognition have?

A

easier to spoof than other biometric techniques

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117
Q

What do BSS and ESS stand for?

A

Basic Service Set and Extended Service Set

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118
Q

What DoD classification does DAC map to?

A

Level?C classification

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119
Q

What DoD classification does MAC map to?

A

Level?B classification

120
Q

What does 802.1x do?

A

provides an authentication framework for wired and wirelss networks

121
Q

What does an attacker need to conduct ARP cache poisoning?

A

physical connectivity to a local segment

122
Q

What does CHAP use for authentication?

A

hashing

123
Q

What does chargen do?

A

responds to packets on UDP port 19 with random characters

124
Q

What does echo do?

A

responds to packets on UDP port 7

125
Q

What does ESS offer that BSS does not?

A

the ability to roam between AP’s

126
Q

What does IPSec require to be scaleable?

A

a PKI

127
Q

What does IPSec use for authentication and key exchange?

A

Diffie?Hellman

128
Q

What does IPSec use for encryption?

A

40?bit DES algorithm

129
Q

What does PGP use in place of a CA?

A

a web of trust””

130
Q

What does S/FTP use for encryption?

A

SSL

131
Q

What does WEP stand for?

A

Wired Equivalent Protection

132
Q

What drawback do heuristic?based IDS’s have?

A

higher rate of false positives

133
Q

What encryption does S/MIME use?

A

RSA

134
Q

What encryption scheme does WEP use?

A

RC4

135
Q

What four trust models do PKI’s fall into?

A

heirarchical; network/mesh; trust list; key ring

136
Q

What frequency does 802.11b operate at?

A

2.4 GHz

137
Q

What frequency does 802.11g operate at?

A

2.4 GHz

138
Q

What happens if an application?level protocol doesn’t have a proxy program for a given protocol?

A

the protocol can’t pass through the firewall

139
Q

What IP layer do man?in?the?middle attacks take place at?

A

internet layer

140
Q

What IP layer do SYN floods occur at?

A

transport layer

141
Q

What IP layers do DoS attacks occur at?

A

any layer

142
Q

What is a bastion host?

A

a gateway in a DMZ used to secure an internal network

143
Q

What is a key difference in security between MAC and DAC?

A

In MAC, a user who can access a file cannot necessarily copy it

144
Q

What is a TCP ACK scan used for?

A

determining if a port is filtered by a firewall

145
Q

What is a teardrop attack?

A

a type of DoS attack using a false fragmentation offset value

146
Q

What is a window scan?

A

a scan that attempts to determine the OS in use by its default TCP window size

147
Q

What is AES?

A

Advanced Encryption Standard? algorithm used by US government for sensitive but unclassified information

148
Q

What is an AUP?

A

Acceptable Use Policy

149
Q

What is an FTP bounce?

A

running scans against other computers through a vulnerable FTP server

150
Q

What is an open relay?

A

an SMTP relay that does not restrict access to authenticated users

151
Q

What is an open relay?

A

an SMTP relay that does not restrict access to authenticated users

152
Q

What is an SIV?

A

System Integrity Verifier? IDS that monitors critical system files for modification

153
Q

What is Authenticode?

A

a method of signing ActiveX controls

154
Q

What is Authenticode?

A

a method of signing ActiveX controls

155
Q

What is bytestream?

A

data from Application layer is segmented into datagrams that source and destination computers will support

156
Q

What is compulsory tunneling?

A

situation where VPN server chooses the endpoint of a communication

157
Q

What is CRL?

A

Certificate Revokation list? list of subscribers to a PKI and their certificate status

158
Q

What is DEN?

A

Directory?Enabled Networking? specification for how to store network information in a central location

159
Q

What is ECC?

A

Elliptical Curve Cryptography? public?key cryptographic method which generates smaller, faster, and more secure keys

160
Q

What is FE?13 used for?

A

explosion prevention

161
Q

What is FE?13 used for?

A

explosion prevention

162
Q

What is hashing?

A

changing a character string into a shorter fixed?length value or key

163
Q

What is HTTPS?

A

HTTP over SSL

164
Q

What is IDEA?

A

International Data Encryption Algorithm? a 128?bit private?key encryption system

165
Q

What is IGMP used for?

A

multicasting

166
Q

What is key escrow?

A

administration of a private key by a trusted third party

167
Q

What is MD5 designed for?

A

digital signatures

168
Q

What is OCSP?

A

Online Certificate Status Protocol? a replacement for CRL

169
Q

What is PEM?

A

Privacy Enhanced Mail? public?key encryption similar to S/MIME

170
Q

What is PGP primarily used for?

A

email encryption

171
Q

What is port mirroring?

A

on switches, the ability to map the input and output of one or more ports to a single port

172
Q

What is smurfing?

A

broadcasting echo requests with a falsified source address, overwhelming the owner of the address

173
Q

What is source routing?

A

Sender defines hops a packet must travel through

174
Q

What is TACACS?

A

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System

175
Q

What is the hidden node” problem?”

A

When a wireless client cannot see the network due to interference.

176
Q

What is the difference between S?HTTP and SSL?

A

S?HTTP is designed to send individual messages securely; SSL sets up a secure connection between two computers

177
Q

What is the DSS?

A

Digital Signature Standard? provides for non?repudiation of messages

178
Q

What is the first step in risk analysis?

A

identifying assets

179
Q

What is the key length for Blowfish?

A

variable length

180
Q

What is the main difference between S/MIME and PGP?

A

S/MIME relies upon a CA for public key distribution

181
Q

What is the maximum capacity of 4mm DAT?

A

40 Gb

182
Q

What is the maximum capacity of 8mm tapes?

A

50 Gb

183
Q

What is the maximum capacity of DLT?

A

220 Gb

184
Q

What is the maximum capacity of QIC?

A

20 GB

185
Q

What is the maximum capacity of Travan?

A

40 Gb

186
Q

What is the maximum length of a valid IP datagram?

A

64K

187
Q

What is the maximum throughput of 802.11a?

A

54 Mbps

188
Q

What is the maximum throughput of 802.11b?

A

11 Mbps

189
Q

What is the maximum throughput of 802.11g?

A

54 Mbps

190
Q

What is the most effective way of enforcing security in a dialup network?

A

require callback

191
Q

What is the primary limitation of symmetric cryptography?

A

key distribution

192
Q

What is the RFC?recommended size of an IP datagram?

A

576 bytes

193
Q

What is the standard key length for 3DES?

A

168 bits

194
Q

What is the standard key length for DES?

A

56 bits

195
Q

What is the standard key length for IDEA?

A

128 bits

196
Q

What is the top priority in computer forensics?

A

document each step taken

197
Q

What is TLS?

A

Transport?Layer Security? a successor to SSL

198
Q

What is unique about the network/mesh model of PKI?

A

multiple parties must be present before access to the token is granted

199
Q

What is WML?

A

Wireless Markup Language? used to create pages for WAP

200
Q

What is WML?

A

Wireless Markup Language? used to create pages for WAP

201
Q

What is X.509 used for?

A

digital certificates

202
Q

What kind of algorithm is 3DES?

A

symmetric

203
Q

What kind of encryption does AES use?

A

private?key

204
Q

What kind of encryption does HTTPS use?

A

40?bit RC4

205
Q

What language are most new smart card applications written in?

A

Java

206
Q

What language is normally used to write CGI scripts?

A

Perl

207
Q

What limitation do application?level firewalls create for proprietary software?

A

proprietary software often uses proprietary protocols, which often can’t pass the firewall

208
Q

What limitation does IPSec have?

A

only supports unicast transmissions

209
Q

What makes non?repudiation a stronger version of authentication?

A

non?repudiation comes from a third party

210
Q

What mathematical fact does a birthday attack rely on?

A

it is much easier to find two datasets that share a hash than to find a dataset that shares a hash with a given dataset

211
Q

What might be indicated by packets from an internal machine with an external source address in the header?

A

machine is being used in a DoS/DDoS attack

212
Q

What might be indicated by packets from an internal machine with an external source address in the header?

A

machine is being used in a DoS/DDoS attack

213
Q

What model is DEN based on?

A

Common Information Model (CIM)

214
Q

What OS do most PBX’s use?

A

UNIX

215
Q

What OSI layer do stateful firewalls reside at?

A

network layer

216
Q

What port do DNS lookups use?

A

UDP port 53

217
Q

What port do DNS zone transfers use?

A

TCP port 53

218
Q

What port does echo use?

A

port 7

219
Q

What port does FTP use for data?

A

port 20

220
Q

What port does HTTPS use?

A

TCP 443

221
Q

What port does L2TP use?

A

UDP 1701

222
Q

What port does LDAP use?

A

TCP/UDP port 389

223
Q

What port does LDAPS use?

A

TCP/UDP port 636

224
Q

What port does NNTP use?

A

TCP/UDP 119

225
Q

What port does POP3 use?

A

port 110

226
Q

What port does RADIUS use?

A

port 1812

227
Q

What port does SMTP use?

A

port 25

228
Q

What port does SNMP use?

A

port 161

229
Q

What port does SSH use?

A

port 22

230
Q

What port does TACACS use?

A

port 49

231
Q

What port does Telnet use?

A

port 23

232
Q

What port does the chargen exploit use?

A

TCP 19

233
Q

What ports are commonly used for NetBIOS names and sessions?

A

TCP/UDP 137, 138, 139

234
Q

What ports do DHCP and BOOTP use?

A

TCP/UDP ports 67 and 68

235
Q

What ports does DNS use?

A

TCP and UDP 53

236
Q

What ports does FTP use?

A

ports 20 and 21

237
Q

What protocol does 802.1x use for authentication?

A

EAP

238
Q

What protocol does 802.1x use for authentication?

A

EAP

239
Q

What protocol does IPSec use to exchange keys?

A

Internet Key Exchange (IKE)

240
Q

What protocol does RADIUS use?

A

UDP

241
Q

What protocol does TACACS+ use?

A

TCP

242
Q

What protocol is being pushed as an open standard for IM?

A

SIMPLE

243
Q

What protocol is replacing PPTP?

A

L2TP

244
Q

What security advantage do managed hubs provide over other hubs?

A

they can detect physical configuration changes and report them

245
Q

What security hole does RIPv1 pose?

A

RIPv1 does not allow router passwords

246
Q

What security hole does SPAP have?

A

remote server can be impersonated

247
Q

What security problem does FTP have?

A

authentication sent in cleartext

248
Q

What security weakness does SPAP have?

A

does not protect against remote server impersonation

249
Q

What size is an MD5 hash?

A

128 bits

250
Q

What sort of attack does TACACS+’s lack of integrity checking make it vulnerable to?

A

replay attacks

251
Q

What sort of devices normally use TACACS?

A

network infrastructure devices

252
Q

What standard is LDAP based on?

A

X500

253
Q

What TCP sequence number does an XMAS scan use?

A

0

254
Q

What three basic router/firewall measures will reduce the effects of a DoS attack?

A

egress filtering, ingress filtering, and disabling IP?directed broadcasting

255
Q

What three methods are used to determine VLAN membership on the local switch?

A

port?based; MAC?based; protocol?based

256
Q

What three people were involved in the creation of RSA?

A

Rivest, Shamir, Adleman

257
Q

What three protocols are routinely layered over TLS?

A

IMAP, POP3, and SMTP

258
Q

What three tape types offer high capacity and rapid data transfer?

A

8mm, DLT, and LTO

259
Q

What three utilities comprise SSH?

A

SSH, Slogon, SCP

260
Q

What two algorithm options exist for PGP?

A

RSA and Diffie?Hellman

261
Q

What two bit strengths is SSL available in?

A

40?bit and 128?bit

262
Q

What two bit strengths is SSL available in?

A

40?bit and 128?bit

263
Q

What two encryption standards is AES designed to replace?

A

DES and 3DES

264
Q

What two layers does TLS consist of?

A

TLS Record Protocol and TLS Handshake Protocol

265
Q

What two methods are used to determine VLAN membership on a remote switch?

A

implicit, based on MAC address; explicit, where the first switch adds a tag

266
Q

What two methods do IDS’s use to detect and analyze attacks?

A

misuse detection and anomoly detection

267
Q

What two pieces of information comprise a socket?

A

source IP address and source port

268
Q

What two protocols were combined to form L2TP?

A

Microsoft’s PPTP and Cisco’s L2F

269
Q

What two services are provided by IPSec?

A

Authentication Header (AH) and Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)

270
Q

What two strengths does SSL come in?

A

40?bit and 128?bit

271
Q

What two types of certificates does S/MIME use?

A

PKCS #7 certificates for message content and X.509v3 for source authentication

272
Q

What type of access control do most commercial OS’s use?

A

DAC

273
Q

What type of encryption does PGP use?

A

PKI

274
Q

What type of encryption does PGP use?

A

PKI

275
Q

What type of encryption does SSH use?

A

RSA PKI

276
Q

What type of encryption does SSL use?

A

RSA PKI

277
Q

What type of encryption is AES?

A

symmetric

278
Q

What type of encryption is Kerberos?

A

symmetric

279
Q

What type of IDS will likely detect a potential attack first? Why?

A

Network?based IDS: runs in real?time

280
Q

What type of media access control does 802.11 use?

A

collision avoidance

281
Q

What type of network is CHAP primarily used on?

A

PPP

282
Q

What type of network is extremely vulnerable to Man in the Middle attacks?

A

wireless

283
Q

What version of BIND allows for mutual authentication?

A

BINDv9

284
Q

Which hashing algorithm is more secure, MD5 or SHA?1?

A

SHA?1

285
Q

Which is faster, application?level or network?level firewalls?

A

network?level firewalls

286
Q

Which of the five router services do e?mail gateways provide?

A

application filtering

287
Q

Who created RC2 and RC4?

A

Rivest

288
Q

Who defines a certificate’s life cycle?

A

the issuing CA

289
Q

Who developed PGP?

A

Phillip R. Zimmerman

290
Q

Who developed SSL?

A

Netscape

291
Q

Why are VLAN’s considered broadcast domains?

A

all hosts on the VLAN can broadcast to all other hosts on the VLAN

292
Q

Why can hand geometry only be used for verification, rather than identification?

A

hand geometry is not unique

293
Q

Why do routers help limit the damage done by sniffing and MITM attacks?

A

They send data to a specific subnet only

294
Q

Why is detecting statistical anomolies a good approach to intrusion detection?

A

don’t have to understand the root cause of the anomolies

295
Q

Why is detecting statistical anomolies a good approach to intrusion detection?

A

don’t have to understand the root cause of the anomolies

296
Q

With biometric scanning, what is accepting a user who should be rejected called?

A

Type II error

297
Q

With biometric scanning, what is rejecting a valid user called?

A

Type I error

CISSP - Security Management (12 decks)

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