General Revision Flashcards

1
Q

Name the three main categories of joints.

A
  • Fibrous
  • Cartilaginous (primary and secondary)
  • Synovial
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2
Q

What is the type of joint found between tibia and fibula?

A

Syndesmosis Fibrous Joint (bones with the interosseous membrane)

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3
Q

What is the type of joint found in the skull?

A

Suture Fibrous Joint

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4
Q

What are the two types of cartilaginous joints?

Give examples.

A
  • Synchondrosis (primary) - sternocostal joint

- Symphysis (Secondary) - Examples: Pubic symphysis vertebral disc

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5
Q

Pivot Joint?

A

Atlanto-axial joint

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6
Q

What type of joint is a condyloid joint?

Give an example of a condyloid joint.

A

Synovial Joint

Example: Metacarpophalangeal joint

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7
Q

Give an example of a ball and socket joint.

A

Glenohumeral joint

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8
Q

Give two examples of a plane/gliding joint.

A
  • Sternoclavicular Joint

- Acromioclavicular joint

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9
Q

which of the following is multinucleated: smooth or skeletal muscle?

A

Skeletal.

Also Striated.

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10
Q

What are the three junctions found in intercalated discs in cardiac muscle?

A
  • Desmosomes
  • Fascia Adherentes
  • Gap Junctions
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11
Q

Example of a convergent muslce?

A

Pectoralis Major (has a clavicular head and a strenal head)

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12
Q

What nerve innervates the serratus anterior?

A

Long Throacic Nerve

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13
Q

What nerves innervates the pectoralis major and minor?

A

Major: lateral and medial pectoral nerves
Minor: Medial pectoral nerve

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14
Q

Which part of the bone provides strength for weight bearing?

A

Cortical Bone

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15
Q

Which type of bone provides flexibility and acts to absorb shock?

A

Trabecula (spongy) bone

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16
Q

What are the main 4 types of tissues found in the human body.

A
  • Epithelium
  • Connective
  • Neural
  • Muscle
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17
Q

What are types of specialised connective tissue.

A
  • Bone
  • Blood
  • Cartilage (purple on MS)
  • Reticular (in bone marrow)
  • Adipose
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18
Q

What are types of connective tissue proper.

A
  • Loose Connective (underskin, usually purple under micrscope)
  • Dense regular
  • Dense Irregular
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19
Q

What are the two parts of intervertebral discs?

What type of joints do they form?

A
  • Annulus Fibrosis (connect adjacent vertebral bodies)
  • Nucleus Pulposus (shock absrober)

Joint: Secondary Cartilaginous Joint

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20
Q

Which number vertebrae are Atlas and Axial Vertebrae?

A

C1 and C2 - Form the Atlatoaxial Joint - A pivot

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21
Q

Describe the identification of vertebrae by their structure.

A

Cervical - bifid spinous process, and foreman transversarium where the vertebral artery passes
Thoracic - think giraffe, has facets for articulation with ribs
Lumbar - massive body, short d sturdy spinous process

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22
Q

What is special about C7?

A

carries the vertebral vein rather than artery and the spinous process isn’t bifid.

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23
Q

What is the difference between back sprain and back strain?

A

Sprain: involves ligamentous tissue only (due to excessive rotation or extension)
Strain: stretching or tearing of muscle tissue (overly strong contraction)

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24
Q

Which ligaments prevent hyperflexion, hyperextension, and one that limits flexion?

A

Hyperflexion: Posterior Longitudinal Ligament
Hyperextension: Anterior Longitudinal ligament
Limits flexion: Ligamentum Flavum

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25
Q

Which nerve innervates the trapezius?

A

Spinal accessory nerve (carnial nerve xii)

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26
Q

Which nerve innervates the lattissimus dorsi?

A

Thoracodorsal nerve

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27
Q

What is the name of the space that contains the cerebospinal fluid in the spinal chord?

A

Subarachnoid Space (between arachnoid mater and pia mater)

28
Q

What is special about the internal venous plexus.

A

Valveless veins making it a potential path for cancer metastasis.

29
Q

At which level would you carry out lumbar puncture, spinal anaesthesia, and Epidural anaesthesia?

A

At L4

30
Q

What is the name of spinal arthiritis that will cause inflammation and fusion of vertebrae?

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

31
Q

How many arteries does the spinal chord have?

A

3 one anterior spinal artery and two posterior spinal arteries

32
Q

Describe Venous supply of the spinal cord.

A
  • 3 anterior veins forming the external anterior plexus and 3 posterior veins forming the external posterior plexus
  • There is also
33
Q

What type of information is carried by the ventral and dorsal roots? sensory or motor.

A
  • Ventral: Motor

- Dorsal: Sensory

34
Q

Name the two enlargements along the spina chord.

A

Cervical (C5-T1)

Lumbosacral (L1-S3)

35
Q

What innervates serratus posterior superior and posterior inferior muscles?

A

Anterior Rami of spinal nerves

36
Q

What nerve innervates the levator scapulae muscles, rhomboid rhomboid major?

A

Dorsal Scapular Nerve

37
Q

What is the name of the potential space that could allow infections to spread from an abscess in the teeth?

A

Retropharyngeal (base of skill to diaphragm - also lies posterior to the heart)

38
Q

What is compartent syndrome?

A

Injury to muscles within compartments made by the the layers of fascia separation muscles, causes the muscles to swell, compresses neurovascular bundles.

39
Q

Name the veins from which you get venous blood samples and IV line?

A

Venous Sample: Median Cubital Vein

IV: Cephalic Vein

40
Q

Which type of cartialge found in tendons and intervetebral discs?

A

Fibrocartilage - chondrocytes in lacuna with collagen fibres around - good for tensile strength

41
Q

Which type of cartilage is found in the ribs?

A

Hayline cartilage (chondrocytes in lacuna)

42
Q

What is the difference between an exocrine and endocrine gland?

A

Exocrine have ducts

Endocrine no ducts with hormones directly into the blood stream

43
Q

What are the three types of secretions by exocrine glands?

A
  • Merocrine secretion - through vesicles - pancreatic acinar cells (secrete digestion enzymes into ducts)
  • Apocrine secretion - the apical portion of a cell is shed - lactating mammals
  • Holocrine - the whole cell is ruptured and destroyed and the contents are released - sebaceous glands
44
Q

Muscles in the anterior compartment of the thigh?
Function?
Innervation?

A
  • Quadracieps femoris (rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus intermedialis, vastus medials), sartorius, illiopsoas
  • Function: knee extension and hip flexion
  • Innervation: femoral nerve
45
Q

List boundaries of the femoral triangle.

A

Inguinal ligament
Sartorius
Adductor longus

46
Q

Muscles in the medial compartment?
Function?
Innervation?

A
  • Pectineus, adductor brevis, longus and Magnus, gracilis
  • Function: Adduction of the hip
  • Innervation: obturator nerve
47
Q

Which muscle in the gluteal region extends the hip?

A

gluteus maximus (inferior gluteal nerve)

48
Q

What are hip abductors in the gluteal area?

Innervation?

A

Gluteus Medius
Gluteus Minimus
Tensor Fascia Lata

  • Innervation: superior gluteal nerve
49
Q

What is the function of the piriformis?

A
  • Lateral rotation of the hip

- innervated by S1,S2

50
Q

Which nerve is damage is Trendelenburg sign is positive?

A

Superior gluteal nerve (affecting the abductor muscles in the gluteal area)

51
Q

What is the significance of the piriformis?

A
  • divides the gluteal region into two parts, superior and inferior. so you have superior gluteal nerve/artery/vein and inferior
  • Used to identify sciatic nerve which enters the gluteal region directly under the piriformis
52
Q

Muscles in the first layer of the plantar foot?

A
  • Abductor hallucis (Medial plantar nerve)
  • Flexor digitorum brevis (medial plantar nerve)
  • Abductor digiti minimi (Lateral Plantar Nerve)
53
Q

Second Layer of the plantar foot?

A
  • Tendons of the flexor digitorum longus
  • Quadratus Plantae (Lateral plantar nerve) (assists in flexion of the 4 lateral digits as it is attached to the tendons of the flexor digitorum longus
54
Q

What nerve injury may result from the anterior dislocation of the hip?

A

Obturator nerve injury

55
Q

Name the condition where the patient may experience burning pain and numbness in their outer thigh. state the affected nerve.

A
  • Meralgia paresthetica

- Lateral Cutaneous nerve of the thigh

56
Q

Which nerve damage will cause foot drop?

A

common or deep fibular nerve

57
Q

What muscles constitute the hamstrings? State nerves.

A
  • Bicep Femoris
    Short head: Common fibular portion of Sciatic Nerve
    Long Head: the tibial portion of sciatic nerve
  • Semi-tendinosis: Tibial portion of sciatic
  • Semimembranosus: tibial portion of sciatic
58
Q

Name muscles in the third layer of the plantar foot.

A
  • Flexor digit minimi brevis (lateral plantar nerve)
  • Adductor hallucis (Lateral plantar nerve)
  • Flexor hallucis brevis (Medial plantar nerve)
59
Q

Names muscles in the 4th layer of the foot.

A

Plantar Interossei (Lateral Plantar Nerve)

60
Q

What may damage the sciatic nerve?

A
  • Intervertebral Prolapsed disc

- Dislocation of Hip Joint

61
Q

List rotator cuff muscles.

A

S.I.T.S

  • Supraspinatus
  • Infraspinatus
  • Teres Minor
  • Scapularis
62
Q

What sort of fracture affects the radial nerve?

What is a consequence of radial nerve injury?

A
  • Mid-shaft humeral fracture

- Wrist Drop

63
Q

What sort of fracture affects the median?

What is a consequence of median nerve injury?

A
  • Supracondylar Fracture

- Hand of benediction

64
Q

What fracture may affect the axillary nerve?

What might be a consequence of this injury?

A
  • Regimental patch paresthesia
65
Q

A) What are the two muscles that flex the fingers of the hands?
B) What nerve innervates these muscles?

A

A) Flexor digitorium superficialis and Flexor digitorum profundus
B) Median nerve