General Review Flashcards

1
Q

changes that occur in periductal/smokers mastitis

A

cuboidal epithelium of duct –> squamous –> overgrowth –> blockage

(lactational = d/t tissue damage –> S. aureus infection)

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2
Q

ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) pattern on histology

(“in situ = hasn’t left”)

A
  1. cookie cutter pattern
  2. cribriform
  3. Calcifications (“DCIS has Dem CalcificationS”)

(hasn’t invaded the basement membrane)

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3
Q

Comedo DCIS is a subtype of DCIS. What are the histologic findings?

A
  • Central necrosis
  • Large tumor cells
  • Pleomorphic nuclei
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4
Q

lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) appearance on histology

A
  1. “discohesive growth”
  2. Loose intercellular connections d/t loss of adhesion protein E-cadherin)

(invasive lobular carcinoma = single file cells)

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5
Q

histology: invasive ductal carcinoma

(Ductal Carcinoma In Situ that has broken through the basement mambrane)

A

duct-like structures in desmoplastic stroma

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6
Q

peau d’orange a/w

A

inflammatroy carcinoma

(subtype of invasive ductal carcinoma)

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7
Q

invasive lobular carinoma on histology

A

single file

(lack of e-cadherin adhesion protein expression; similar to LCIS)

(histology of lobular carcinoma in situ: “discohesive growth”)

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8
Q

HER-2 cells have … recptor on the surface

A

tyrosine kinase

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9
Q
A
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10
Q
  1. Embryonic Genes
A
  1. Sonic Hedgehog
  2. FGF
  3. Wnt-7a
  4. Homeobox (Hox) genes
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11
Q

2 key role of sonic hedgehog gene

A
  1. CNS development: cleavage or prosencephalon
  2. Limb development in the anterior-posterior plane

(FGF gene is responsible for the linear growth of the limbs)

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12
Q

mutation to the sonic hedgehog gene can cause

A

holoprosencephaly: failure of prosencephalon cleavage

(can also have cyclopia)

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13
Q

FGF gene is responsible for … (embryonic development)

A

linear growth of the limbs (proximal-distal axis), the apical ectodermal ridge

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14
Q

Wnt genes are regulators of the … (2) in embryonic development?

A

dorsal-ventral axis
anteroposterior axis

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15
Q

dorsal development of the limbs relies on which gene?

A

Wnt-7a (“dorsalizes” limbs)

(absence of the Wnt-7a gene is what make the ventral/flexors of the limbs)

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16
Q

homeobox (HOX) genes code for transcription factors that regulate… development

A

anterior-posterior limb axis (sonic hedgehog gene also influences this with AER)

(mutation = polydactylyl or syndactylyl)

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17
Q

Cystic swelling of the chorionic villi and proliferation of trophoblastic tissue

A

Hyatidiform mole/molar pregnancy

(diffuse proliferation = complete; minimal proliferation = partial)

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18
Q

__________(partial/complete) molar pregnancies have genotypes of 69, XXY or XYY; ___________(partial/complete) molar pregnancies have genotypes of 46, XX or XY.

A
  • Partial (has fetal parts)
  • complete (has NO fetal parts)

both increase the risk of choriocarcinoma

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19
Q

Hydatidiform moles are a type of

A

gestational trophoblastic disease, resulting in trophoblastic overgrowth.

(B-hCG must be monitored for progresion of chroiocarcinoma, even after d&c)

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20
Q

2 imaging findings of complete hyatid mole

A

“Honeycombed” uterus or “clusters of grapes” (A) , “snowstorm” (B) on ultrasound

21
Q

Rare malignancy of trophoblastic tissue (cytotrophoblasts, syncytiotrophoblasts), without chorionic villi present

A

choriocarinoma (usu follows hyatidaform mole or abortion)

(presents w/abnormal uterine bleeding, dyspnea & hemoptysis)

22
Q

fastest way to dx HELLP syndrome

A

serial deep tendon reflex exams

(hypermagnesemia –> loss of DTRs)

23
Q

cause of death in HELLP syndrome?

A

Can lead to hepatic subcapsular hematomas (rupture–>severe hypotension) and DIC (due to release of tissue factor from injured placenta).

24
Q

Why are pregnant patients prone to gallstone formation?

A
  • estrogen = increases cholesterol secretion
  • progesterone = decreases bile acid secretion & slows GB emptying –> stasis
  • bile becomes super saturated w/cholesterole
25
AE of fluoroquinolones in pregnant patients
defects in bone and cartilage development
26
what are the teratogenic effects of giving TMP/SMX to a pregnant patient?
1. cardiotoxic & neural tube defects (first trimester) 1. neonatal jaundice (term)
27
Inevitable abortion presents with... (2)
1. uterine bleeding and pain 1. open cervix (detection of the fetus on US)
28
MC gynecologic tumors (in order of MC first)
endometrial > ovarian > cervical (cervical cancer is more common worldwide due to lack of screening or HPV vaccination)
29
porcelain-white plaques that can be hemorrhagic, eroded, or ulcerated. Diagnosis?
lichen sclerosus
30
lichen sclerosis is MC in which age group?
prepubertal and peri-/postmenopausal females
31
...presents with intense pruritus, dyspareunia, dysuria, dyschezia. Benign, but slightly increases risk for SCC. diagnosis?
lichen sclerosis (lichen simplex chronicus presents with leathery vulvar skin from rubbing/scratching, no increased risk of SCC)
32
...presents with pruritus, erythema, crusting, ulcers in females. Diagnosis
extramammary paget disease Intraepithelial adenocarcinoma. Carcinoma in situ, low risk of underlying carcinoma (vs Paget disease of the breast, which is always associated with underlying carcinoma).
33
what are the 3 types of vaginal tumors?
1. SSC (Usually 2° to cervical SCC) 1. Clear cell adenocarcinoma 1. Sarcoma botryoides
34
Clear cell adenocarcinoma or the vagina is caused by...
females who had exposure to diethylstilbestrol in utero Arises from vaginal adenosis (persistence of glandular columnar epithelium in proximal vagina)
35
Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma variant. Affects females < 4 years old; spindle-shaped cells; desmin ⊕. Presents with clear, grapelike, polypoid mass emerging from vagina. Diagnosis?
Sarcoma botryoides
36
cells with wrinkled “raisinoid” nucleus and perinuclear halo
koilocytes: pathognomonic of HPV infection
37
invasive cervical carcinoma is often ... which type?
SCC (Diagnose via colposcopy and biopsy. Lateral invasion can block ureters --> hydronephrosis --> renal failure)
38
How does severe caloric restriction, high energy expenditure, and/or stress cause functional hypothalamic amenorrhea? (hormonally?)
functional disruption of pulsatile GnRH secretion --> decrease in LH, FSH, estrogen. Decreased leptin (d/t decreased fat) and elevated corisol (from stress & exercise).
39
“female athlete triad”
decreased calorie availability/excessive exercise decreased bone mineral density menstrual dysfunction (d/t functional hypothalamic amenorrhea)
40
how is PCOS diagnosed?
Diagnosed based on ≥ 2 of the following: 1. cystic/enlarged ovaries on ultrasound (arrows in A ), 2. oligo-/anovulation 3. hyperandrogenism (eg, hirsutism, acne)
41
Painful menses, caused by uterine contractions to decreased blood loss ---> ischemic pain.
primary dysmenorrhea
42
ovarian tumors that are benign... ovarian tumors that are malignant...
* serous cystadenoma (benign & bilateral) * serous cystadenocarcinoma
43
estrogen-dependent tumor (benign fibroma) in women...
leiomyoma (tumor size increases with pregnancy and decreases with menopause)
44
Most common gynecological tumor
leiomyoma/fibroid
45
Histology: whorled pattern of smooth muscle bundles and well-demarcated borders Gross exam: Enlarged uterus with nodular contour (benign reproductive tumor)
leiomyoma
46
desmin positive tumors are located
muscle (leiomyosarcoma: smooth msk tumor or uterus) (note: leiomyoma is a **benign, non-precancerous** polyp)
47
struma ovarii
ovarian tumor consisting of ectopic thyroid tissue, causes an elevation of thyroid hormones in up to 15% of patients
48
white or greyish vaginal discharge and fishy odor
bacterial vaginosis d/t gardnerella vaginalis (gram-variable rod, pleomorphic, clue cells)
49
strawberry cervix, yellow-green, foul-smelling discharge
trichomonas | motile