General Q,s Flashcards
1
Q
Qantas requirements with approaches and missed approaches?
A
- limit the WX related missed approaches to 2. A third should not be attempted unless the PIC believes here is a high probability of success or a greater operational requirement exists.
- must not continue beyond 1000’ in low vis app if controlling RVR is less than min.
- a normal approach must not continue past 1000’ if the pilot in command believes on reasonable grounds that the required vis will not be attained.
2
Q
When is a Takeoff alternate required?
A
Whenever the weather conditions at the departure airport are below the lowest published usable landing minima
- may be a main alternate or adequate airport within
60 min at SE speed for non-etops ops. Or within the published etops time for flights operating to etops criteria. - the forecast must be valid for the time it will be used and above the adequate minima.
- Qantas also have AV2 requirement to non Australian ports of a mandatory takeoff alt within 60 mins at single engine cruise speed.
3
Q
What height can we commence the third segment (level flight acceleration)?
A
Qantas
1000’ min
800’ after a missed approach
4
Q
Stable Approach criteria?
A
Must be stable by 1000’ IMC and 500’ VMC
- Briefings and checks complete - fully configured for landing - established on normal vertical app path. - unless specified on the procedure, the aircraft is tracking the extended center line of the runway with all manoeuvring completed by 500' - The airspeed, thrust and ROD are correct for the configuration and conditions - only small changes in heading and pitch are required to maintain vertical and lateral paths.
5
Q
Tolerances During Approaches
A
LOC - PFD or ADI
-down to 300’ = greater than 1 dot normal scale
-below 300’ = greater than 1 dot expanded scale
- for Autoland = below 100’ = greater than 1/2 a dot
expanded scale.
LOC - ND or HSI
- Down to 300' greater than 1 dot
- below 300' greater than 1/2 dot
Glideslope
- 1 dot
VOR
- +/- 5 degrees off nominated track
NDB
- +/- 5 degrees off nominated track
DME arc
- +/- 2nm
Speed
- above Vref + 20kts at 500' or lower
- below vref + 5kts
- continually below 500'
Rate of decent
-more than 1000’/min below 1000’
VASI/PAPI
- Any significant deviation from nominated visual
approach path.
6
Q
What are the modes of GPWS?
A
1) Excessive Sink Rate
2) Excessive terrain closure rate
3) Loss of height after takeoff
4) Unsafe terrain clearance with Gear and Flap not selected
5) Glideslope deviation below
6) Callouts altitude, bank angle ect
7) Windshear
7
Q
What is the difference between GPWS and EGPWS?
A
EGPWS uses GPS and a DATA base to give it look ahead functions
GPWS is just look below.
8
Q
Indications of Windshear?
A
Unacceptable flight path deviations; recognised as uncontrolled changes from steady state flight conditions below 1000’ AGL in excess of any:
- 15 kts IAS
- 500 fpm vertical speed
- 5 degrees pitch
- 1 dot displacement from glideslope
- unusual thrust lever position for a significant
period of time.
9
Q
What do you do if you encounter windshear on the takeoff roll?
A
Prior to V1 there may not be enough runway to stop if an RTO is initiated at V1. At Vr, rotate at a normal rate to 15 degrees. Once airborne perform the windshear escape manoeuvre
If encountered near rotate there may be insufficient runway remaining to accelerate back to rotate speed. initiate a normal rotation at least 2000’ before the end of the runway even is speed is low. Higher than normal attitudes may be required and ensure max thrust is set.
10
Q
What system does the predictive windshear system use?
A
WX radar
11
Q
where does the PWS scan?
A
up to 3nm and 25 degrees either side of the nose.
12
Q
How does the PWS work?
A
It detects disturbed air ahead of the aircraft which contains moisture or particulate matter that fits its known patterns of windshear.
Time shared with the WX radar.
Automatically adjusts tilt and gain regardless of control panel setting for optimum windshear detection
Alerts are available 12 secs after scan start.
13
Q
when is the PWS enabled?
A
auto enabled = in flight below 2300’ AGL
= on ground when thrust is set for takeoff
= on ground with WXR selected on EFIS
control and any mode except test on the
WX control panel.
= below 1200’ AGL auto pop up regardless of WXR being selected or not.
14
Q
PWS inhibits
A
Warnings = between 100kts and 50’ AGL
Cautions = between 80 kts and 400’ AGL
also inhibited by - windshear immediate alert
- GPWS immediate alert
- GPWS look ahead alert
15
Q
Tolerance during RNP approach?
A
Lateral = advisory at 0.1 nm = “cross track error”
= At limit at 0.3nm = “outside limits” / “go around”
Vertical = Advisory at =/- 50’ = “Vertical track error”
= At limit at =/-75’ = “ Outside limits”/ “ go around”
16
Q
What RNAV and RNP approvals does your operation have?
A
DEP/ARR
= RNP 1
= RNAV 1 and RNAV 2
ENROUTE = RNP 4 = RNP 2 = RNP 10 = RNAV 5
APP
= RNP APCH LNAV
= RNP APRCH LNAV/ VNAV
17
Q
RVSM tolerances?
A
In-flight +/- 200’ difference between capt and first officer
On Ground
sea level = 40’ max diff between capt and FO
= 75’ max diff between capt and FO and field
elevation
5000’ = 45’ and 75’
10000’ = 50’ and 75’
Supp procedure:
inflight: FL300 = 135’ Cpt and FO/ 115’-615’ Cpt or FO and
Stby
as you get higher the tolerances become larger
18
Q
RVSM preflight?
A
for flights between FL 290 - FL410
1) two independent primary altimeter systems
2) a mode C capable SSR transponder
3) an altitude alert system
4) an Auto pilot with height lock
- also external check of area around static ports
- before departure altimeter checks.
19
Q
What is TCAS 2?
A
Traffic and collision avoidance system.
It interrogates operating transponders in other aircraft, analyses the replies, predicts flight paths and designates possible conflicting aircraft as a “traffic Aircraft”. TCAS then provides you with situational display and potentially aural annunciation and flight path guidance.
20
Q
Explain a RA?
A
Resolution advisory;
- intruder aircraft will enter the TCAS collision airspace in 20-30 seconds
- need altitude of other traffic to generate.
- voice alert
- vertical guidance
- Red square displayed with altitude and climbing or descending arrow
- auto displays on HSI
- A decent RA should NOT be followed below 1000’
21
Q
how long do you have to complete an RA manoeuvre?
A
- 5 sec to complete the .25g manoeuvre
- 2.5 sec to achieve a reversed corrective action or increase strength RA
22
Q
Explain a TA?
A
Traffic Advisory;
- 35- 40 secs away
- voice alert
- amber circle with altitude and climbing or descending arrow
- auto displays symbol on HSI
23
Q
When do TA and RA auto display?
A
- A TA or RA occurs, and
- neither pilot has pushed the TFC switch, and
- HSI mode selector is on VOR, APP or MAP mode, and
- TCAS mode selector is in TA or TA/RA
24
Q
Explain proximate and other traffic?
A
- Within 6nm laterally and 1200’ vertically
- filled white diamond for proximate traffic with altitude and arrow for climbing and descending
- hollow diamond for other traffic
25
What are the TCAS inhibits?
- INCREASE DESCENT RAs are inhibited below 1450' Rad Alt
- DESCEND RAs below 1100' Rad Alt
- RAs below 1000'
- below 1000' with TA/RA selected TA mode is enabled automatically.
- All TCAS voice annunciations below 500'
- PWS annunciations
- GPWS immediate alert
- windshear immediate alert
26
Define Icing conditions?
10 deg c or below and;
- visible moisture (vis less than 1nm= 1600m)
- ice, snow, slush or standing water is present on ramps, taxiways or runways
27
What are some cold WX ops considerations?
During start;
- oil pressure slow to rise
- initial oil pressure rise may be higher
- additional warm up time may be needed.
- when engine anti-ice is required and temp below 3 degrees, do engine run up to minimise ice build up. 60%n1 for 30 secs no longer apart than 30 min.
- Remember cold weather corrections required when reported OAT is below 0
- flight control check as part of before takeoff procedure
- If taxi through ice, snow or slush in low temps = flaps up
- in-flight is eng start switches are in cont then eng anti ice is auto on.
28
What are Holdover times?
The estimated time the anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of ice and frost and the accumulation of snow on the protected (treateed) surfaces of the aircraft.
This time begins from the commencement of the fluid application.
29
What are the Takeoff/ climb segments?
First Segment;
-from 35' (screen height) through to gear up at constant V2. Positive climb gradient.
Second Segment;
- From end of first segment through to 400 ' min 1000' max at a constant V2 speed. Gross climb gradient 2.4%
Third Segment;
- assumes a level-flight acceleration during which flaps are retracted. Gross climb gradient of 1.2%
Fourth Segment;
- from the end of the third segment to 1500' or more with flaps up and max continuous thrust. Gross climb gradient not less than 1.2%
Note: Net climb gradient = gross - 0.8%
30
Comm Failure Procedure (AUS)?
If IFR or in CTA;
- Squawk 7600
- Listen out on navaids and/or ATIS
- Prefix “transmitting blind”
- If no clearance than continue on last route clearance and climb to planned level.
- If given a clearance altitude, maintain for 3mins then continue to planned level or maintain LSALT for 3min what ever is higher.
- If on a vector then maintain for 2 mins then continue with the latest route clearance acknowledged.
- If holding complete one more holding pattern
- Descend in accordance with normal operating procedures
- Conduct the most appropriate approach to the circling minima if visual and if able to obtain an ATIS or Clearance (green light) continue straight in to minima and land. if you can't get a clearance or ATIS and visual then circle and land.
- If not then go-around and depart to alternate or hold and conduct additional approaches.
31
What are the Cat D Approach Speeds?
```
Initial = 185kts - 250kts
Final = 130kts- 185kts
Missed App = 205kts
Circling = 265 kts
Vat = 141kts- 165kts
```
32
What are the holding speeds and times?
Up to FL 140 = 230kts and 1min
FL140 - FL200 = 240kts and 1.5 min
FL200 > = 265kts and 1.5 min
33
What is the CAT D circling area?
5.28NM arcs
34
What are the circling criteria?
- Remain within the circling area
- VIS along the intended flight path is greater than or equal to the circling min
- Remain visual with the runway
- By night remain at circling altitude until intercept a normal decent for a normal approach and landing
- By day can descend to 400' (jepps) or 1000' (767 qantas)
35
What are the Visual App criteria?
- within 30nm by day
- clear of cloud
- continuous reference to ground or water
- 5km or greater VIS
- By night; remain at MVA/ LSALT until within the circling area and intercept a position on downwind base or final where a normal decent and approach can be made. or,
- 5NM not below slope on PAPI or TVASI
- 7NM for a runway equipped with a ILS
- 10NM established not below glide path and less than half scale deflection on the ILS (14nm for 16L and 34L SSY)
36
When is a flight classified as ETOPS?
Whenever it is planned to take the aircraft beyond 60 min SE , still air in ISA (415 NM) from a Main, Alternate or Adequate airport.
37
What is the Max diversion time that the 767 is approved for?
180 min still air in ISA.
| = 1200nm
38
What is the 767 ETOPS Single Engine cruise speed?
0.80 M / 310 KIAS
39
What are the diversion times and distances for the 767?
```
180min = 1200NM
120min = 800NM
60min = 415NM
```
note: all OEI and In ISA and still air.
40
What qualifies a airport to be used as a Adequate Airport?
- Available
- Overflight and landing autherisations
- Ground operational assistance ( ATC, MET, Lighting, ect )
- At least 1 suitable instrument approach
- ATC must be available for ops outside Australia
- Non controlled can be used within AUS provided;
they have PAL if they require lighting.
-ARFFS must be available if ops outside AUS (30min call out is acceptable)
41
What qualifies a airport to be a Usable Adequate?
- Available (as per NOTAMS)
- Satisfy ETOPS Adequate minima for 30 min before and after ETA
- X-Wind acceptable fro engine inop
note:
- If pre-flight forecast not available then can depart provided a forecast is obtained prior to sole reliance on airport
- in flight once first forecast has been obtained then the WX only needs to be above the landing minima.
42
What is considered before a airport becomes a nominated Adequate airport?
- WX and Wind
- any WX less than PROB 40 is ignored
- MEL's and NOTAMS
43
When must you remain non ETOPS?
Prior to the EEP a change in any of the following;
- Comms = must remain in constant contact with ATC
- Aircraft performance. i.e, Speedbrake may preclude the use of a adequate.
- Nav facilities at Adequate.
- ETOPS required equipment
NOTE:
if any change in status occurs after EEP there is no requirements to plan alternate course of action.
44
What are the ETOPS critical systems failures and what are the required actions?
- Engine Failure
- Electrical systems failure that results in power being available from not more than 1 primary source ( engine driven GENS and APU. HDG not included for 767)
- Failure of any of the above precludes ETOPS and requires en-route diversion
45
What is TODA
Take Off Distance Available
TODA = TORA + Clearway
TODA must not exceed 1.5 x TORA
46
What is ASDA?
Accelerate Stop Distance Available
| ASDA = TORA + stopway available.
47
Explain Balanced Field length?
TODA = ASDA
| The purpose of a balanced field length calculation is to optimise the V2 climb performance.
48
What is Vmu
Demonstrated un-stick speed all engines
49
Vmca?
Minimum control speed in air after engine failure in take off config.
must always be equal to or less then V2
767 = at 15 degrees around 90-100kts depending on pressure altitude. between 8000' - 0'
50
What are the approx stall speeds of the 767
Flaps up 130kts at 90000kg - 195kts at 187000kg
Gear down Flap 30 = 95kts at 90000kg - 135kts at 187t
approx speeds.
51
Vmcg?
Minimum control speed on ground after engine failure
| - equal to or less than V1
52
What is V1?
The decision speed during takeoff roll at which in the event of an engine failure the aircraft can continue the takeoff and achieve the screen height or bring the aircraft to a stop prior to V1
53
What is Vr
Rotation speed
| cant be less than 1.05vmca or 1.1 Vmu
54
What is V2?
Take off safety speed achieved by the screen height in the event of an engine failure that maintains directional control and climb properties. It is essentially the best one-engine inoperative angle of climb speed for the airplane and is the minimum speed for flight that condition until atlas 400'.
- not less then Vs x 1.2
- not less then Vmca x 1.1
55
What is screen height?
35' Dry
15' Wet
must reach screen height at V2 with engine failure at V1
56
Why use V2 over speed technique?
- Improves climb gradient performance in the second segment.
- Runway length not an issue but there are obstacles in the second segment.
- Higher V2 = higher net climb gradient in second segment.
57
RVSM pre flight?
- for flights Between FL 290- FL 410
Required equipment;
1) two independent primary altimeter systems
2) a mode C transponder- capable of SSR transponder
3) An altitude alert system
4) and auto pilot with altitude locking capability.
- external check around static ports.
- before departure altimeter check.
58
Hypoxia; Time of useful Consciousness
FL 450 = 9-15 sec
FL 400 = 15-20 sec
FL 350 = 30-60 sec
FL 300 = 1 - 2 min
59
What is the definition of CAVOK?
- 10 km VIS or more
- nil sig cloud below 5000' or highest 25nm MSA
- No Cb's or TCU
- Nil sig WX
60
What are some causes of CAT?
Clear air turbulence;
-Low level CAT = Temperature inversions
= Mountain waves
= local surface winds i.e sea breeze
- Jetstreams = Most severe CAT found in jetstream level or just above jetstream level in warm air but on the polar side.
- Fronts = horizontal windshear
- Thunderstorms microbursts
- Wake turbulence
61
What are some indications that you have flown into Volcanic ash?
- sulphur smell
- unusual engine indications
- haze in the cockpit.
- Airspeed can decrease or become erratic
- Pressurisation can change or possible loss of cabin pressure.
- Static discharges simular to st-elmose fire.
- abrasion on windows
- Possible nuisance cargo fire warnings.
62
What would your initial reactions be if you suspected you have entered a volcanic ash cloud?
- 180 degree turn.
- Don oxygen masks
- A/T arm switch off
- Eng Start selectors FLT
- Wing anti- ice ON
- APU ON
Note: when time permits conduct a AIREP SPECIAL
63
Runway Edge Lights?
Runway edge lights are used to outline the edges of runways at night or during low visibility conditions. These lights are classified according to the intensity they are capable of producing. They are classified as high intensity runway lights (HIRL), medium intensity runway lights (MIRL), or low intensity runway lights (LIRL). The HIRL and MIRL have variable intensity settings.
These lights are white, except on instrument runways, where amber lights are used on the last 2,000 feet or half the length of the runway, whichever is less. The lights marking the end of the runway are red.
64
Runway Centerline lighting System (RCLS) ?
Runway centerline lights are installed on some precision approach runways to facilitate landing under adverse visibility conditions. They are located along the runway centerline and are spaced at 50-foot intervals (15m).
When viewed from the landing threshold, the runway centerline lights are white until the last 3,000 feet (900m) of the runway. The white lights begin to alternate with red for the next 2,000 feet, and for the last 1,000 feet (300m) of the runway, all centerline lights are red.
65
Touchdown Zone Lighting (TDZL) ?
Touchdown zone lights are installed on some precision approach runways to indicate the touchdown zone when landing under adverse visibility conditions. They consist of two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline.
The system consists of steady-burning white lights which start 100 feet (30m) beyond the landing threshold and extend to 3,000 feet (900m) beyond the landing threshold or to the midpoint of the runway, whichever is less.
66
Taxi Lead Off Lights ?
Taxiway lead-off lights extend from the runway centerline to a point on an exit taxiway to expedite movement of aircraft from the runway.
These lights alternate green and yellow from the runway centerline to the runway holding position or the ILS/MLS critical area, as appropriate.
67
VMBE?
- Maximum brake energy speed.
- The maximum speed that a stop decision can be made within the braking capability of the brakes.
- V1 must be less than or equal to VMBE, otherwise a reduction in VMBE is required.
- Factors are wind and slope
68
Explain Coffin Corner?
- Occurs at an aircraft’s absolute ceiling
- Where Mach number buffet and pre stall buffet are coincident
- Stall is a function of IAS
- Mach number is a function of the speed of sound, which is a function of temperature
- At a constant Mach number, the IAS will decrease in climb.
- To prevent the IAS from decreasing to it’s stall speed, the Mach number must be increased.
- For a constant IAS, the Mach number will increase with altitude to due a decreasing temperature to the point where the Mach number exceeds Mcrit
- To prevent the Mach number form exceeding Mcrit, the IAS must be reduced, which results in a decreasing Mach number.
- The aircraft cannot go any higher. It is bounded on one side by low-speed buffet and on the other by high-speed buffet because the stall IAS and Mcrit values are equal
69
767 Min equipment for a CAT 2 (fail passive) approach ?
- two or three autopilots with at least two engaged
- Captains ASA with LAND 2 or 3 prior to 600'
- Independent EADI's including, rad alt, ILS deviation, DH indication, and AFDS mode annunciation, EHSI and FDS sources for each pilot.
- Two ADC
- two or three IRU's in NAV mode
- Normal flight controls
- Three hydraulic systems
- Two or three LRRA's
- Two or three ILS receivers
- MKR and DME as required
- Electrical power = at least two sources
- Both engines operating = an approach may be continued if flap 25 or 30 is selected and LAND 2 or 3 is annunciated
- Rain removal system if required
- Do not attempt autoland if the "RUDDER RATIO" is displayed.
70
What additional equipment is required for a CAT 3 (fail operational) approach?
In addition to CAT 2 equipment;
- Three Autopilots engaged
- Two ASA''s with LAND 3 prior to 600'
- Three IRU's in NAV mode
- Two engines operating
- Autothrottle
- Autobrakes
71
What is the required equipment for a RNP APCH- LNAV/ VNAV?
- Two flight mode annuciators
- Two independent Flight director sources and displays capable of LNAV and VNAV
- Two independent EADI/ EHSI
- Two IRS's in NAV mode
- One FMC
- One GPS
- One Rad alt
- Two ADC's
72
SAT?
- Ambient static air temperature
| - A different name for OAT
73
TAT?
- Total air temperature
- It is a product of the compression ram rise in temperature experienced on the aircraft
- Defined as the OAT plus the additional heat effect caused by compression at high speed
74
Change in temperature and effect on displayed altitude?
- High to low, look out below
- Remember cold weather corrections required when reported OAT is below 0
- Extremely low temperatures create significant altimeter errors and greater potential for reduced terrain clearance
- When temperatures are colder than ISA, true altitude will be lower than indicated altitude
- QF: No corrections required for reported temps above 0c
- Advice ATC of corrections
- Corrections apply to published minimum departure, en route and approach altitudes
- Adjust DA / MDA
- The air is more dense and heavier, causing the density altitude to differ from the pressure altitude read by the altimeter
75
Rate one turn?
3 degrees per second/ 360 degrees in 2 min
76
ISA?
- 15 degrees at seal level
- 2 degree lapse rate per 1000ft in the troposphere to 36000
- Above the troposphere, temperature is constant until about 66000ft where temperature will increase due to the presence of the ozone
- 1013.25 hpa
- So, ISA temp at FL410 = 15 minus 36 x 2 = -57
77
MACH?
- Speed of sound is dependant upon temperature
- Mach number will be faster when the OAT is low
- Mach number will be slower when the OAT is High
78
Why Swept Wing?
- Flight above approx. 300 kts need wings designed to cope with changes in air density and flow disturbances caused by compressibility effects
- The major aim is to minimise or delay the effects of shockwaves
- The component of speed PERPENDICULAR to the leading edge of the aerofoil is less than the actual aircraft speed
- Sweepback delays the onset of compressibility shockwave problems
- Shockwaves result in a very large and sudden increase in drag, with loss of lift, and often nose down changes as CP moves rearwards
- For a wingtip stall however, the CP moves forward and generates a nose up pitch
79
What is load factor?
- In straight and level flight, the load factor is 1.0
- In a 30 degree bank turn it is 1.2
- In a 45 degree bank turn it is 1.4
- In a 60 degree bank turn it is 2.0
80
Effects on Stall Speed?
- Load factor will increase the stall speed by increasing the lift requirements
- Increased gross weight will increase the stall speed by increasing the lift requirements
- Flaps reduce the stall speed by increasing the component of lift
- A forward CoG will increase the stall speed because it increases the tail down force required which adds to weight, increasing the lift required
- Stall speed is increased at high altitude, because the stall occurs at such high TAS that compressibility effects cause a disruption of airflow and separation occurs at a lower angle of attack, and therefor higher airspeed than at low altitude
81
Explain Drag?
- Total drag is made up of the components of PARASITE drag and INDUCED drag
- Parasite drag (or skin frictions drag) increases with an increase in speed
- Induced drag increases with an increase in angle of attack, or, decreased speed
- Total drag is minimum at VIMD
82
VIMD
- The speed where total drag is minimum
- This is the speed for best lift / drag ratio, therefore maximum glide range
- The speed for minimum fuel flow per hour, so best endurance
- The speed for maximum excess thrust, so maximum angle of climb
- NOTE: For maximum range, this will occur at 1.32VIMD which is the best TAS / Drag ratio
83
Explain Dutch Roll?
- An upset due to turbulence or pilot input could produce a yaw.
- The yaw will increase the span of one wing, and decrease the span of the other
- This causes the aircraft to then roll
- Yaw dampers correct the problem
- Series type for modern aircraft
84
What is the purpose of a horizontal stabilizer?
- Avoids prolonged deflection of elevator tabs and therefore eliminates trim tab drag
- Required for the large changes in aircraft CoG due to fuel load and burn, passenger movement etc.
- To compensate for the large change in pitch trim that results from the large change in centre of lift on the wing at high Mach numbers. At high Mach, the centre of lift moves AFT, which must be counteracted by nose up trim on the stabiliser
- To compensate for changes in pitch trim that occur when the trailing edge and leading edge flaps are extended and retracted
85
Explain Long Range Cruise (LRC) ?
- Used to increase range
- LRC involves a constant angle of attack, close to the angle of attack for best range
- As weight reduces, the MACH number is also reduced to provide the required lift reduction at the same angle of attack
- Thrust must be reduced since less thrust is required at the slower speeds
86
Explain optimum altitude?
- Flying at optimum means flying at a level where the engines are running at their most efficient RPM and the speed that results gives the wing angle of attack for best range
- This provides the most economical and fuel efficient cruise
- Optimum flight level will be dependant upon weight
87
Runway Lighting?
- Permanent threshold lights are green in the approach direction only
- Runway edge lighting is white and has spacing of 60m for instrument runways
- For a CAT 1 or II runway the lights in the final 600m show yellow
- Runway end lighting is red
- Runway centreline lighting is white, until 900m remaining it alternates white then red, until the last 300m where it is constant red
- Taxiway lighting is green along the centreline of the taxiway, and blue on both sides of the taxiway
- Runway exit lights are spaced at 15m and alternate green and yellow
- Hold short lights are a series of 6 white lights flashing at approx. 30 times per minute
88
Explain Hydroplaning/Aquaplaning?
- Aquaplaning is the act of a tire skating (and not rotating) over the runway surface on a thin film of water
- Caused by the build-up of a layer of water ahead of the tire.
- This build-up effectively lifts the tire off the ground, therefore reducing braking efficiency dramatically
- 3 types of aquaplaning
- Viscous, dynamic and reverted rubber
- Dynamic is simply due to standing water on the runway which lifts the tire off the runway
- Viscous occurs when the surface is damp and provides a very thin film of fluid that cannot be penetrated by the tire. It is particularly associated with smooth surfaces and quite likely to occur in the touchdown area
- Reverted rubber aquaplaning frequently follows an encounter with dynamic aquaplaning, during which time the pilot may have the brakes locked in an attempt to slow the aircraft. Reverted rubber (steam) aquaplaning occurs during heavy braking that results in a prolonged locked-wheel skid. Only a thin film of water on the runway is required to facilitate this type of aquaplaning. The tire skidding generates enough heat to change the water film into a cushion of steam which keeps the tire off the runway
89
What is the calculation for Hydroplaning?
- The approximate minimum ground speed at which aquaplaning can be initiated
- 9 x square root of the tire pressure in PSI for takeoff
- 7 x square root of the tire pressure in PSI for landing
767 = tire pressure = 200psi
- rotating hydroplane speed = 127Kts
- stationary hydroplane speed = 99kts
90
What forecasts is the wind in True and what forecasts is the wind in magnetic?
- Route sector winds are in degrees TRUE
- Grid point forecast is in degrees TRUE
- METAR / TAF /TTF / PROV all in TRUE (rounded to nearest 10 deg)
- AWIS is degrees MAGNETIC
- ATIS is degrees MAGNETIC
91
CAT 1 ?
- DH not lower than 200ft
| - Minimum of 800m Vis or 550 RVR
92
CAT 2 ?
- DH not less than 100ft
- Minimum of 300m TDZ, 125m MID and advisory END
- END of 125m required if MID not provided
93
CAT 3a ?
- DH not less than 50ft
- Minimum of 175m TDZ, 125m MID and advisory END
- 125m END if MID not available
94
CAT 3b ?
- Operation to a DA less than 50ft
| - Minimum of 100m RVR in ALL zones
95
What are the visual reference requirements at the DA/DH?
- CAT I = At the DA, a portion of the approach lights should be visible, or, if there is no approach lighting, then the threshold must be in view
- Provided that an adequate visual portion of the approach lights / threshold / any other markings identifiable with the approach end of the runway is in view AND CONTINUES TO EXPAND, there should be adequate visibility during the flare and rollout
- CAT II = At the DH, at least 3 longitudinally aligned lights, being the centerline of the approach lights, the touchdown zone lights, or the runway lights, AND a lateral element of lighting, such as a crossbar, landing threshold, or a barrette of touchdown zone lighting
- CAT IIIA = At the DH, at least 3 longitudinally aligned lights, being the centerline of the approach lights, the touchdown zone lights, or the runway lights
- CAT IIIB = At the DH, at least one centerline light, or, the light from Wayne Goodin’s cigarette lighter if Wayne Goodin is in the left seat
96
What is the contingency procedure in oceanic airspace if a pilot has to deviate off track due to weather without ATC clearance?
under 10 nm;
- broadcast on 121.5, 123.45
- watch for conflicting traffic
- turn on all exterior lights
Greater than 10 nm;
- in addition to the above,
- for east track with left deviation decent 300'
- for east track with right deviation climb 300'
- for west track with left deviation climb 300'
- for west track with right deviation decent 300'
97
What is the contingency procedure in oceanic airspace if a pilot has to deviate off track due to something other than weather without ATC clearance?
- Broadcast on 121.5, 123.45
- watch for conflicting traffic
- turn all exterior lights on
- turn at least 45 degrees either side of track to obtain the same or opposite direction track at 15nm offset.
- differ altitude by 500' from normal direction traffic
98
What are the different categories of windshear?
Light; Causing minor excursions from flight path and/or airspeed.
Moderate; Shear causing significant effect on control of aircraft
Strong; Shear causing difficulty in keeping the aircraft to desired flight path, or speed
Severe; Shear causing hazardous effects to aircraft controllability
99
What colour is a distance marker on side of a runway telling you distance remaining?
White number on black background and indicate the distance remaining in thousands of feet. If the runway cannot be divided evenly into thousands of feet the remaining distance is divided by two and added to the first and last section. i.e it is always a minimum indication.
100
When is it acceptable to fly with the skid ball not center?
above vmca, slow speed banking turns
101
Rearward centre of gravity? fuel, speed and stability?
A rearward Center of gravity will reduce the stability, reduce the stick force required and will reduce the drag of the aircraft and hence the fuel burn. As the fuel is burnt in a 767 main tanks the CofG moves FWD due to the swept wings.
102
Visual illusion of haze?
Flying in haze creates the illusion that the runway is farther away, including a tendency to shallow the glide path and land long
103
Visual illusion of rain?
In light or moderate rain the runway may appear fuzzy which makes increases the risk of not perceiving a lateral or vertical deviation during the visual segment.
Heavy rain affect depth and distance perception. Rain on windshields creates a refraction and the illusion of being too high, thus inducing a nose down correction which would place the aircraft below the glide path.
In daylight rain diminishes the apparent intensity of the approach lights, which would give the illusion of being farther away and have the tendency to shallow the glide path and land long.
At night rain increase the apparent brilliance of the approach lights which creates the illusion of being closer that actual which can than cause flight crew to pitch down and go below the glide path.
104
When must you conduct a missed approach on ILS?
- Do not have required visual reference at DA
- Loose required visual reference after DA
- ILS failure
- Instructed by tower
- Out of tolerances.
- X-wind exceeding aircraft limit.
105
What lighting systems are required for Cat 1/2 and 3?
CAT 1
- HIAL (if no HIAL then min vis 1.5km)
- HIRL ( if no HIRL then min vis 1.2km)
CAT 11
- HIAL ( min 720m)
- High Intensity Runway Edge Lighting (HIRL)
- Centreline lights
- Touchdown Zone Lights
CAT 111a/111b
- HIAL (min 300m where DA (H) is 50' or higher)
- High Intensity Runway Edge Lighting (HIRL)
- Centerline Lights
- Touchdown Zone Lights
106
What happens to optimum altitude as fuel weight is reduced?
As weight reduces optimum altitude increases. so as fuel is burnt optimum altitude increases
107
Factors affecting takeoff performance?
- Temp
- QNH
- Wind
- Slope
- Obstacle clearance after takeoff
- Flap
- Thrust setting (derate/ assumed temperature)
- Anti Ice
- Packs
108
Takeoff Runway lighting requirement?
RV or RVR 350m or greater
- RL (max spacing 60m);
- RCLM clearly visible or CL
RVR below 350m
- HIRL;
- CL (max spacing 15m for RVR below 200m)
109
What is the max and min cabin pressure differential?
```
Max = 9.10PSI
Min = 0.125 = 236' below the airport pressure altitude.
```
110
What do REIL (runway end identification lights) look like?
Sycronised flashing lights, one on each side of the landing threshold. They are on white and can only be seen in the direction of aircraft on approach.
