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General Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Complete non-appearance of an organ

A

Agenesia

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2
Q

Failure of an organ to form an opening

A

Atresia

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3
Q

Increase in size of tissues or organs due to increase in size of individual cells

A

Hypertrophy

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4
Q

Marked regressive change in adult cells towards more primitive or embryonic cell types

A

Anaplasia

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5
Q

Reversible change involving the transformation in one type of adult cell to another

A

Metaplasia

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6
Q

Most common pattern of metaplasia

A

Columnar to squamous

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7
Q

Loss of uniformity of the individual cells and loss in their architectural orientation but is considered if factors are eliminated

A

Dysplasia

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8
Q

Consist of the crowding of the epithelial cells in the form of papillary projections or cell strafification

A

Diffuse hyperplasia

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9
Q

Multiple, poorly delineated, highly cellular nodules are formed and compress the surrounding normal tissues

A

Nodular hyperplasia

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10
Q

Involves one of the paired organs when the opposite organ has been removed or suffered from functional insufficiency

A

Compensatory hypertrophy

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11
Q

Continuous abnormal proliferation of cells without control; pathologic overgrowth

A

Neoplasia

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12
Q

Also known as nuclear fragmentation

A

Karyorrhexis

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13
Q

Characteristic of hypoxic death where the outline of the dead cells is maintained; tissue is somewhat firm

A

Coagulative necrosis

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14
Q

Special form of cell death produced by the Tubercle bacillus

A

Caseous necrosis

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15
Q

What are the two cytoplasmic changes?

A 
Cellular swelling (hydropic changes)
Fatty degeneration
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16
Q

Reduction in size & condensation of the nuclear chromatin

A

Pyknosis

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17
Q

Cardinal sign of inflammation due to transfer of internal heat to the surface of site of injury, brought about by increased blood content

A

Calor

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18
Q

Cardinal sign of inflammation due to pressure upon the sensory nerve by the exudate or tumor

A

Dolor

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19
Q

Extensive outpouring of a watery, low protein fluid derived from either the blood, serum or secretions from the serosal mesothelial cells

A

Serous inflammation

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20
Q

Active element of the tumor

A

Parenchyma

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21
Q

Connective tissue framework with lymphatic and vascular channels

A

Stroma

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22
Q

Malignant tumors of connective tissue origin, characterized by abundant intracellular tissue framework

A

Carcinoma

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23
Q

Benign tumors from glands

A

Adenoma

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24
Q

Cardinal sign of inflammation due to arteriolar and capillary dilation with increased rate of blood flow

A

Rubor

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25
Cardinal sign of inflammation due to increased capillary permeability; extravasation of body fluid; increased concentration of plasma proteins
Tumor
26
Contains fibrinous and fibrinopurulent material with necrotic cells
Membranous inflammation
27
Contains both serous and hemorrhagic materials
Serosanguinous inflammation
28
Contains large amounts of mucus and epithelial cells; characteristic of inflammatory involvement of the respiratory, GI, and other mucous-secreting glands
Mucinous/catarrhal inflammation
29
Focal aggregation of activated macrophages
Granulomatous inflammation
30
BENIGN vs MALIGNANT TUMOR: Absence of metastasis
Benign
31
BENIGN vs MALIGNANT TUMOR: Well-differentiated
Benign
32
BENIGN vs MALIGNANT TUMOR: Locally invasive, infiltrating the surrounding tissues
Malignant
33
Broder's Classification Differentiated Cells: Grade III
50-25%
34
Broder's Classification Undifferentiated Cells: Grade IV
75-100%
35
In TMN System of Cancer Staging, T score is:
Based on the size and/or extent of invasion
36
In TMN System of Cancer Staging, N score is:
The extent of lymph node involvement
37
Staging: Larger, more invasive within the primary organ site
T2
38
Staging: Very large/invasive, spread to adjacent organs
T4
39
Staging: Extensive regional lymph node involvement
N2
40
Staging: Distant metastases present
M1
41
Somatic death refers to the death or complete cessation of metabolic and functional activities of the organism or the body as a whole
Postmortem clotting
42
First demonstrable change observed characterized by cooling of the body
Algor mortis
43
Drying and wrinkling of the cornea and the anterior chamber of the eye due to the absorption of aqueous humor
Desiccation
44
Epithelial neoplasms producing fingerlike or warty projections
Papilloma
45
This organ should not be dissected before they are fixed
Eyes
46
In an autopsy procedure, the prosector is the:
Pathologist
47
Autopsy: Organs are removed one by one
Virchow
48
Autopsy: In situ dissection of organs combined with en bloc removal
Rokitansky
49
Primary signs of somatic death
Circulatory failure Respiratory failure CNS failure
50
Purplish discoloration of the body; postmortem lividity
Livor mortis
51
Production of foul-smelling gases due to invasion of the tissue by saprophytic organisms
Putrefaction
52
Greenish-blue discoloration of the abdomen due to formation of iron sulfide
Putrefaction
53
Self-digestion of cells
Autolysis
54
Plasma and serum produce a yellow "chicken" fat appearance
Post-mortem clot
55
In post-mortem clot, sediment of blood cells are called "____" that assumes the shape of the blood vessels and has a rubbery consistency
Currant jelly
56
Fibrin precipitation in tangled, irregular fashion
Ante-mortem clot
57
Autopsy: en bloc technique
Ghon
58
Autopsy: en masse technique
Letulle
59
One who investigates the cause of death by inquest
Coroner
60
Morgue attendant; autopsy technician
Diener
61
Most commonly done incision among children and infants
Straight cut

Histopathology (3 decks)

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