General Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Complete non-appearance of an organ

A

Agenesia

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2
Q

Failure of an organ to form an opening

A

Atresia

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3
Q

Increase in size of tissues or organs due to increase in size of individual cells

A

Hypertrophy

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4
Q

Marked regressive change in adult cells towards more primitive or embryonic cell types

A

Anaplasia

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5
Q

Reversible change involving the transformation in one type of adult cell to another

A

Metaplasia

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6
Q

Most common pattern of metaplasia

A

Columnar to squamous

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7
Q

Loss of uniformity of the individual cells and loss in their architectural orientation but is considered if factors are eliminated

A

Dysplasia

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8
Q

Consist of the crowding of the epithelial cells in the form of papillary projections or cell strafification

A

Diffuse hyperplasia

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9
Q

Multiple, poorly delineated, highly cellular nodules are formed and compress the surrounding normal tissues

A

Nodular hyperplasia

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10
Q

Involves one of the paired organs when the opposite organ has been removed or suffered from functional insufficiency

A

Compensatory hypertrophy

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11
Q

Continuous abnormal proliferation of cells without control; pathologic overgrowth

A

Neoplasia

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12
Q

Also known as nuclear fragmentation

A

Karyorrhexis

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13
Q

Characteristic of hypoxic death where the outline of the dead cells is maintained; tissue is somewhat firm

A

Coagulative necrosis

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14
Q

Special form of cell death produced by the Tubercle bacillus

A

Caseous necrosis

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15
Q

What are the two cytoplasmic changes?

A
Cellular swelling (hydropic changes)
Fatty degeneration
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16
Q

Reduction in size & condensation of the nuclear chromatin

A

Pyknosis

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17
Q

Cardinal sign of inflammation due to transfer of internal heat to the surface of site of injury, brought about by increased blood content

A

Calor

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18
Q

Cardinal sign of inflammation due to pressure upon the sensory nerve by the exudate or tumor

A

Dolor

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19
Q

Extensive outpouring of a watery, low protein fluid derived from either the blood, serum or secretions from the serosal mesothelial cells

A

Serous inflammation

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20
Q

Active element of the tumor

A

Parenchyma

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21
Q

Connective tissue framework with lymphatic and vascular channels

A

Stroma

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22
Q

Malignant tumors of connective tissue origin, characterized by abundant intracellular tissue framework

A

Carcinoma

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23
Q

Benign tumors from glands

A

Adenoma

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24
Q

Cardinal sign of inflammation due to arteriolar and capillary dilation with increased rate of blood flow

A

Rubor

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25
Q

Cardinal sign of inflammation due to increased capillary permeability; extravasation of body fluid; increased concentration of plasma proteins

A

Tumor

26
Q

Contains fibrinous and fibrinopurulent material with necrotic cells

A

Membranous inflammation

27
Q

Contains both serous and hemorrhagic materials

A

Serosanguinous inflammation

28
Q

Contains large amounts of mucus and epithelial cells; characteristic of inflammatory involvement of the respiratory, GI, and other mucous-secreting glands

A

Mucinous/catarrhal inflammation

29
Q

Focal aggregation of activated macrophages

A

Granulomatous inflammation

30
Q

BENIGN vs MALIGNANT TUMOR: Absence of metastasis

A

Benign

31
Q

BENIGN vs MALIGNANT TUMOR: Well-differentiated

A

Benign

32
Q

BENIGN vs MALIGNANT TUMOR: Locally invasive, infiltrating the surrounding tissues

A

Malignant

33
Q

Broder’s Classification Differentiated Cells: Grade III

A

50-25%

34
Q

Broder’s Classification Undifferentiated Cells: Grade IV

A

75-100%

35
Q

In TMN System of Cancer Staging, T score is:

A

Based on the size and/or extent of invasion

36
Q

In TMN System of Cancer Staging, N score is:

A

The extent of lymph node involvement

37
Q

Staging: Larger, more invasive within the primary organ site

A

T2

38
Q

Staging: Very large/invasive, spread to adjacent organs

A

T4

39
Q

Staging: Extensive regional lymph node involvement

A

N2

40
Q

Staging: Distant metastases present

A

M1

41
Q

Somatic death refers to the death or complete cessation of metabolic and functional activities of the organism or the body as a whole

A

Postmortem clotting

42
Q

First demonstrable change observed characterized by cooling of the body

A

Algor mortis

43
Q

Drying and wrinkling of the cornea and the anterior chamber of the eye due to the absorption of aqueous humor

A

Desiccation

44
Q

Epithelial neoplasms producing fingerlike or warty projections

A

Papilloma

45
Q

This organ should not be dissected before they are fixed

A

Eyes

46
Q

In an autopsy procedure, the prosector is the:

A

Pathologist

47
Q

Autopsy: Organs are removed one by one

A

Virchow

48
Q

Autopsy: In situ dissection of organs combined with en bloc removal

A

Rokitansky

49
Q

Primary signs of somatic death

A

Circulatory failure
Respiratory failure
CNS failure

50
Q

Purplish discoloration of the body; postmortem lividity

A

Livor mortis

51
Q

Production of foul-smelling gases due to invasion of the tissue by saprophytic organisms

A

Putrefaction

52
Q

Greenish-blue discoloration of the abdomen due to formation of iron sulfide

A

Putrefaction

53
Q

Self-digestion of cells

A

Autolysis

54
Q

Plasma and serum produce a yellow “chicken” fat appearance

A

Post-mortem clot

55
Q

In post-mortem clot, sediment of blood cells are called “____” that assumes the shape of the blood vessels and has a rubbery consistency

A

Currant jelly

56
Q

Fibrin precipitation in tangled, irregular fashion

A

Ante-mortem clot

57
Q

Autopsy: en bloc technique

A

Ghon

58
Q

Autopsy: en masse technique

A

Letulle

59
Q

One who investigates the cause of death by inquest

A

Coroner

60
Q

Morgue attendant; autopsy technician

A

Diener

61
Q

Most commonly done incision among children and infants

A

Straight cut