General Orders 300's Flashcards
The ___ will ensure that all incident numbers assigned by Departmental computer systems have a report in the Records Management System, as authorized by this Order, within ___ of the number having been generated
Records Section Supervisor, ten days
___- The initial report used to officially record a police incident. (Refers only to the report form itself, not to the classification of incident type).
Incident Report
___- A report used to record all coded calls. This is a standard incident report form with only the incident number, unit assigned, call date, call time, type of call, date of incident, time of incident, location of incident, district, incident/offense type, and narrative completed.
Abbreviated Incident Report
___- The report used to provide additional information concerning any police incident wherein an Incident Report was previously filed. Supplement Forms (Forms A and B) may also be used to add additional suspects, victims, person reporting, etc., to the original report when necessary
Supplement Report
___- Incidents wherein there is the allegation of or evidence suggesting, the commission or attempted commission of a criminal offense by any party, whether the remedy is further police investigation or civilian warrant action.
Police Incidents
___- Incidents which do not pertain to a distinct criminal offense, or attempt, and which do not require further police action or follow-up; or incidents which do not lend themselves to criminal prosecutions or property seizures
Non-Police Incidents
___- Dispatched assignments or incidents discovered in the field will require the completion of an Abbreviated Incident Report.
Code Calls
Incident Reports must be prepared for all ___.
police incidents
___- shall be indicated when an incident involves the threat or use of force against an occupant of a motor vehicle for the purpose of facilitating the motor vehicle theft.
Car Jacking
___- shall be indicated when an incident involves the illegal discharge of any firearm from a motor vehicle at any person, group of persons, motor vehicle, or occupiable structure, whether or not a person was injured or a structure or vehicle damaged.
Drive-By
___- shall be indicated when an incident reasonably appears to be the result of criminal street gang activity.
Gang Related
A ___ shall be defined as any ongoing organization, association, or group of ___ or more persons, whether formal or informal, having as one of its primary activities the commission of one or more criminal acts, involving the sale, manufacture, or delivery of a controlled substance or the use of force, violence, or intimidation against any person, and which has a common name or common identifying sign or symbol, whose members individually or collectively engage in or have engaged in a pattern of criminal gang activity.
criminal street gang, three
___- shall be indicated when an incident involves a criminal offense committed against a person or property which is motivated, in whole or in part, by the offender’s bias against an individual’s race, religion, ethnic/national origin group, disability, or sexual orientation.
Hate Crime
___ shall mean a pre-formed, negative opinion or attitude toward a group of persons, based on their race, religion, ethnicity/national origin, disability, or sexual orientation.
Bias
___ shall be indicated when an officer encounters or responds to an incident involving a person reasonably believed to be suffering from a mental illness or other condition including suicide threats, amnesia, or dementia.
Mentally Afflicted
___ is the unauthorized use of an individual’s personal identifying information to create, obtain, or open a credit account, debit account, or other financial resource.
Identity theft
Identity theft reports that do not occur within the jurisdictional boundaries of the City of Little Rock will be taken. These reports will be titled, “___”.
Outside Identity Theft
All Incident Reports detailing the theft of a motor vehicle shall immediately, upon completion, be reviewed for approval by a supervisor, taken to Communications for data entry, and forwarded to the ___.
Auto Theft Unit
Supervisors shall ensure that all Incident Reports, along with a LRPD Report Submission Form, are forwarded to the Desk Officer within ___ after each shift change.
three (3) hours
___ shall monitor all reports, and those containing errors or omissions shall be forwarded to the Records Section Supervisor, who shall ensure that the report is corrected in a timely manner and returned for data entry.
Records Division data entry clerks
___- This form will be utilized to report all accidents involving an injury to any person, DWI, city vehicles, damages greater than $1000.00, and anytime a citizen requests.
Motor Vehicle Crash Report Form (MVCR)
___- This form will be utilized to report minor accidents not involving injury or damages greater than $1000.00. This report may also be used at the direction of a shift commander for reporting weather related accidents during inclement weather.
TraCS Incident Report Form (IRF)
___- This form will be utilized to report minor accidents involving a single vehicle and animal.
Arkansas Vehicle/Animal Crash Report Form (ARVACR).
Patrol supervisors will check for completed accident reports ___ during their shift in order to ensure reports are processed in a timely fashion.
at least twice
In the event of a significant system failure, an ___ may authorize the use of paper reports for the reporting of accidents.
on duty shift commander
___ will review the TraCS Database daily to ensure reports are being reviewed and placed in an “Accepted” status in a timely fashion. As a general rule, reports should be in an “Accepted” status no later than ___ after the time of the accident.
Shift Commanders, four hours
___- are designed to provide documentation regarding the activity, appearance and bearing, or specific location of persons or vehicles, under circumstances which do not constitute a Police Incident requiring an Incident Report, but which, in an officer’s professional judgment, are noteworthy.
Field Interview Cards
Completed Field Interview Cards shall be reviewed by supervisors in the same manner as Incident Reports, and shall be forwarded directly to the ___ assigned to the appropriate Field Services Division
Crime Analyst
The ___ has been designed to provide identifying information concerning violent gangs, members of these gangs, terrorist organizations, and members of these organizations to law enforcement personnel. This is a national database, which is maintained by the ___ and is accessible by local law enforcement personnel.
Violent Gang and Terrorist Organization File (VGTOF), Federal Bureau of Investigations
___ is the preferred method of completing all incident reports and abbreviated incident reports
The Incident Report Direct Entry (IRDE) System
Reports that are approved will be electronically signed and transferred to the mainframe system within ___ of approval.
two minutes
___ is defined as the operation of an authorized emergency vehicle (emergency lights and siren in operation) by a police officer in response to a life threatening situation or a violent crime in progress, using due regard for the safety of others.
Emergency driving
When deciding to initiate or continue driving under emergency conditions, officers will consider such factors as ___.
traffic volume, time of day, potential hazard, and safety to themselves and the public
Emergency responses shall be made only when the call involves ___.
a life threatening situation or a violent crime in progress
Police vehicles without emergency lights and sirens ___.
not make emergency (Code Three) responses or participate in pursuits
Motorcycles may conduct emergency (Code Three) responses, but are prohibited from becoming involved in ___. If a motorcycle initiates a pursuit, it will yield to other authorized Departmental vehicles as soon as practical. They will serve as a support unit and provide assistance to the pursuing units if needed, once the pursuit is concluded.
an active pursuit
___ involve an officer or officers assisting a party or vehicle to a specific location, during which motor vehicle laws may be disregarded. Emergency escorts will only be performed with the prior authorization of a supervisor.
Emergency escorts
Emergency escorts of medical patients shall only be performed in an articulable ___, and then with authorization from a supervisor.
life threatening situation
An officer may be authorized to engage in a motor vehicle pursuit if the officer ___ believes that the suspect has committed or is about to commit a felony or if the actions of the suspect intentionally puts the public at risk.
reasonably
The pursued vehicle proceeds the wrong way on any freeway, divided highway, or one-way street. At no time will officers pursue violators the wrong way on a ___.
freeway
Any ___ may order a pursuit terminated if, in their best judgment, the necessity of apprehension is outweighed by the level of danger.
police supervisor
A formal review of all pursuits will be conducted by the officer’s Chain of Command and ___.
the Training Division
After final review, the pursuit file will be forwarded to ___ for computer data entry. ___ will retain files where any type of disciplinary action was taken. All other files will be routed to the appropriate Division Commander for retention.
Internal Affairs, The Internal Affairs Division
___ will be responsible for the completion of an ___ analysis of all police pursuits. The analysis will include statistical data and a summary recommending any training needs or policy modifications, based on trends or patterns revealed in the report. This analysis should be completed and forwarded to the Office of the Chief of Police no later than ___ of each year.
The Training Division Commander, annual, February 15th
___ will be responsible for the completion of an annual review of pursuit policies and reporting procedures.
The Training Division Commander
___ will be responsible for the completion of a ___ statistical report of all police pursuits. The report should be completed and forwarded to the Office of the Chief of Police no later than the ___ (January, April, July, October).
The Training Division Commander, quarterly, 10th of each quarter
Upon notification that tire deflation devices are being deployed in front of the fleeing vehicle, pursuing vehicles should increase the gap between them and the fleeing vehicle to avoid striking the tire deflation device (approximately ___).
3 to 5 seconds
Tire deflation devices shall not be used to stop the following vehicles:
Vehicles with less than four (4) wheels, Vehicles transporting hazardous materials, School buses transporting passengers, Public transportation vehicles transporting passengers
Anytime a tire deflation device has been compromised (ran over or damaged by any means), the entire device will be turned into ___ for replacement
the division’s vehicle/equipment coordinator
All vehicle damage or missing equipment will be reported to a supervisor, prior to the vehicle being placed in service. The supervisor will initiate an investigation to determine the cause and document his/her findings. The reports will be forwarded through the Chain of Command to ___ for resolution.
the Division Commander
The ___ will designate all take-home vehicle assignments in writing as needed
Chief of Police
___ will be responsible for assuring that employees under their command are maintaining their assigned vehicles pursuant to Departmental guidelines and will conduct ___ inspections to assure adherence.
Supervisors, monthly
The assigned driver of a take home vehicle will park the vehicle at their respective place of duty when they are off duty for a period of more than ___.
ten consecutive working days
The ___ must approve all take-home vehicle assignments.
Chief of Police
Any employee, who damages a city vehicle or becomes involved in a motor vehicle accident with a city owned, rented, leased or seized vehicle, in the city limits will immediately notify an on-duty patrol supervisor who will ensure that ___ is notified.
the appropriate Division Commander
___ will serve as the Defensive Driving Coordinator.
The Training Division Lieutenant
___ will serve as the Assistant Defensive Driving Coordinator.
The Recruit Training Sergeant
The Office of the Chief of Police will forward the original accident file to the ___ for processing. The original accident file will be forwarded to the ___ for review.
Professional Standards Section, Defensive Driving Coordinator
The ___ will maintain a log of accident files received, including date of receipt and date to be reviewed by the Accident Review Committee.
Defensive Driving Coordinator
___- as used in this Policy, is defined as that force which creates some specified degree of risk that a reasonable and prudent person would consider likely to cause death or serious physical injury.
Deadly Force
___- as used in this Policy, is defined as physical injury that creates a substantial risk of death or that causes protracted disfigurement, protracted impairment of health, or loss or protracted impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ
Serious Physical Injury
___- as used in this Policy, is defined as any bodily impact, restraint, or confinement, or the threat thereof
Physical Force
___ or ___- as used in this Policy, is defined as belief that an ordinary, prudent person would form, under the circumstances in question, and one not recklessly or negligently formed
Reasonably believe, reasonable belief
___- as used in this Policy, is defined as taking action or communicating verbally or non-verbally during a potential force encounter in an attempt to stabilize the situation and reduce the immediacy of the threat so that more time, options, and resources can be called upon to resolve the situation without the use of force or with a reduction in the force necessary. De-escalation may include the use of such techniques as command presence, advisements, warnings, verbal persuasion, and tactical repositioning.
6
De-escalation
___- as used in this Policy, is defined as those circumstances that would cause a reasonable person to believe that a particular action is necessary to prevent physical harm to an individual, the destruction of relevant evidence, the escape of a suspect, or some other consequence improperly frustrating legitimate law enforcement efforts
Exigent circumstances
The citizens of Little Rock have vested their police officers with the responsibility to protect life and property, and to ___.
apprehend criminal offenders
The apprehension of criminal offenders and protection of property must, at all times, be ___ to the protection of life. Therefore, the use of Deadly Force is not allowed to protect property interests
secondary
Officers may draw or display___ when there is a threat or reasonable belief that there is a threat to life, or when they have a reasonable fear for their own safety and/or the safety of others.
firearms
The ___ is authorized as an additional force option for officers when faced with incidents posing a higher degree of danger where a long-range weapon or tactical weapon to meet comparable resistance is needed. The ___ is available as a supplement to the officer’s primary weapon.
carbine rifle, carbine rifle
___- Non-verbal clues indicating subject’s attitude, appearance, and physical readiness. (e.g., blank stare, clenching of fist(s), tightening of jaw muscles, etc.)
Psychological Intimidation
___- Verbal responses indicating subject unwillingness to obey commands of detainment, arrest, or to stop unlawful or dangerous behavior.
Verbal non-compliance
___- Any type of resistance where the subject does not attempt to defeat the officer(s) attempt to touch or control him/her, but refuses to actively comply with the officer(s). (e.g., dead weight, does not react to verbal commands, etc.)
Passive Resistance
___- Any action that attempts to prevent an officer from gaining control of the subject (e.g., pulling/pushing away to defeat the escort position). It is not an attack on the officer, but a physical act designed to prevent the officer from gaining control.
Defensive Resistance
___- Includes physical actions/assaults against the officer or another person with less than deadly force (e.g., advancing, challenging, punching, kicking, grabbing, wrestling, etc.)
Active Aggression
___- Any force used against an officer and/or another person that may result in great bodily harm or the loss of human life. It is important to note that a subject’s use of deadly force does not require the use of a weapon against the officer. ___ is any force that the officer reasonably believes could result in serious injury or death.
Deadly Force Assault, Deadly force
___- The identification of police officer’s authority, either by the uniformed police or the verbal indication of being a police officer.
Level 1- Officer Presence
___- Verbal commands of direction or arrest.
Level 2- Verbal Direction
___- Techniques that are designed to control Passive or Defensive Resistance, used when verbal direction/commands are not effective and there is non-compliance with lawful orders. They include strength techniques, joint locks, pressure points, or a Knee-Strike/Distraction Technique to the subject’s thigh (to prevent resistance from the escort position). These techniques have little or no potential for injury.
Level 3- Soft Empty Hand Control
___- Techniques that are designed to control Active Aggression, but can be used to control Defensive Resistance when lower forms of control have failed or when the officer believes lower forms of control will fail. These techniques include Defensive Counterstrikes and the Shoulder Pin Restraint. These techniques have a probability of injury in the form of bruises, contusions, or lacerations.
Level 3- Hard Empty Hand Control
___- level of control is the application/use of any weapon/object that is not part of the human body to control resistance or an assault. Examples include any form of chemical agent, impact weapons (flashlight, radio, broomsticks, etc.) and conducted electrical weapons (Taser). The use of an Intermediate Weapon is justified when lower forms of empty hand control have failed, or when an officer believes that his skill level in empty hand control will be insufficient, and the use of Deadly Force is not justified. They are used with the intent to temporarily disable the subject and never with the intent to cause permanent injury.
Level 4- Intermediate Weapons
___- Any force used by an officer that may result in great bodily harm or the loss of human life. Officers may only use Deadly Force to protect themselves or others from what they reasonably believe to be an immediate threat of death or serious physical injury.
Level 5- Deadly Force
Oleoresin Capsicum (O.C.) - O.C., a chemical deterrent, may be used in defense against ___.
combative, resisting, and/or otherwise violent individuals
Conducted Electrical Weapons (i.e. Taser) – Conducted Electrical Weapons (CEW) shall be used as a resource to facilitate the safe arrest of ___.
combative, combative resisting, or violent individuals
A CEW may be used to:
(1) Defend against imminent physical attack,
(2) Prevent injury to any person, and
(3) Control ___ when necessary.
vicious animals
___- These weapons are an option in dealing with situations where an individual may be intent on harming themselves or others.
Less Lethal Launchers
Officers may purchase and use, at their own expense, a flashlight which meets the following requirements: Overall length shall not exceed ___ inches; Total weight, with batteries inserted, not to exceed ___ ounces
13, 24
The following Use of Force files will be forwarded to the Chief of Police for his findings and disposition:
a) Any file wherein a potential violation of Departmental policy has been identified;
b) Any file where counseling or other disciplinary action has been recommended;
c) Any file where there is some element of ___ in the Chain of Command evaluations;
d) Any file where an officer has been ___; and,
e) Any file where there is an indication of a safety or policy issue which should be addressed.
disagreement, injured
After final review, the Use of Force file will be forwarded to ___ for computer data entry. The Professional Standards Section will retain files where any type of disciplinary action was taken. All other files will be routed to the appropriate ___ for retention.
Professional Standards, Division Commander
The ___ will be responsible for compilation of a quarterly statistical report of all Use of Force incidents. This report should be completed and forwarded to the Office of the Chief of Police no later than the ___ of each quarter (April, July, October, January).
Training Division Commander, 10th
The ___ will be responsible for compilation of an annual analysis of all Use of Force incidents, policies, and reporting procedures. This analysis will review patterns or trends that may indicate training needs, equipment upgrades, and/or policy modification. The annual analysis shall be forwarded to the ___ no later than ___ of each year.
Training Division Commander, Office of the Chief of Police, February 15th
Officers who have employed Deadly Force which has resulted in injury or death to any person, will be referred to the ___ as soon as practical after the incident.
Employee Assistance Program
- The Deadly Force Review Board is established for the purpose of reviewing and evaluating incidents of firearms discharge, both intentional and unintentional, resulting in injury or death by sworn members while in the performance of their duties as police officers, and those incidents where an officer or another person is killed by any other means, except motor vehicle accidents.
- All incidents, as noted above, will be reviewed within ___ days after the Professional Standards Section has completed its investigation.
ten (10)
Deadly Force- All investigations shall be completed within ___ days from the date of the incident, unless evidentiary or investigatory considerations warrant delay and the Chief of Police approves.
90
Discharge of Firearm Upon Animals
- This procedure will be followed any time a member of the Department discharges a weapon at an animal while in an on-duty capacity.
- Any officer who discharges a firearm upon an animal will contact an on-duty police supervisor who will initiate an investigation.
- The supervisor will complete an Incident Report and a ___ Report, and will ensure that the involved officer(s) submit a detailed Officer’s Report of the incident.
- The supervisor will complete a ___ report in the Blue Team program, and will include a printed copy of this report in the file.
- The supervisor will evaluate the officer’s performance and submit his findings, in writing, to be reviewed at each level in the chain of command.
- The involved officer’s Division Commander will review and maintain the files on all weapons discharges upon animals.
Use of Deadly Force, Divisional Investigation
___ shall maintain the files on all accidental weapons discharges with injury.
Professional Standards
All items stored as “Evidence” requires ___ from the storing officer, case detective, Prosecuting Attorney of the 6th Judicial District, or Judge (Court Order) who has jurisdiction over the property before it may be released or disposed of according to policy.
written authority
A sworn officer may release evidence as long as it is documented and in accordance with the procedures outlined above. If the case has a ___, patrol officers cannot release evidence without approval from the case ___.
detective assigned, detective
After ___ days, all items stored with this classification may be released or disposed of, at any time, by property personnel, without prior notice to the recovering officer and/or case detective.
sixty (60)
This classification shall be used on all property where the owner is not known or cannot be identified (no identification or serial number, bicycles, lawnmowers, hand tools, etc.).
Found Property
Stored vehicles will not be entered into the Records Management System, except as authorized by the ___ or his/her designee.
Headquarters Division Commander
If a computer entry or a bar code label is created by mistake, the officer or detective responsible shall notify the ___ in writing.
Property Unit
Any item soiled with blood or other body fluids will be dried in Crime Scene lockers before being sealed in paper or cardboard and marked “___”.
CAUTION BIOHAZARD
Containers filled with non-flammable liquids shall be properly sealed and the container ___ before storage.
emptied
Hypodermic syringes, knives, or any other sharp objects must be made safe before storage. The Arkansas State Crime Lab has requested that all syringes be packaged in puncture proof containers, which are provided by the Property Unit, and labeled “___”, prior to requesting analysis.
CAUTION BIOHAZARD
Items determined to be inoperable or have no value by the ___ or his/her designee may be destroyed.
Headquarters Division Commander
All money and jewelry must be counted and itemized by ___ people prior to storage.
two (2)
All jewelry will be ___ prior to being sealed.
itemized
All ___ or jewelry shall be stored separately from other items of property.
money
Amounts over ___ shall be stored with a member of the Property Unit at the main Property Room during normal office hours. Amounts over ___ stored after hours, requires the call-out of the Property Unit Sergeant or designee to secure the money or valuables in the safe. Amounts over ___ will not be secured in the lockers provided at satellite locations for storage of property after hours.
$5,000.00, $5,000.00, $5,000.00
If any member of the police department, sworn or civilian, during the course of his/her duties, comes in contact with U.S. Currency in the amount of ___ or more that must be stored for any reason, he/she will immediately notify his/her immediate supervisor.
$2,000.00
Firearms that fall into the classification as Unusual/Exotic or if the officer/detective cannot make the firearm safe at the time of storage, the ___ must be called out.
department armorer
___ firearm will be stored under a single property tag number.
E
Only one
Narcotics will be weighed with scales, provided at each storage facility, after ___ in plastic.
heat-sealing
The clothing and sexual assault evidence collection kit will be stored separately under individual property tag numbers; however, all items may be placed into the same property storage locker. Sexual assault evidence collection kits shall ___ refrigerated.
not be
The Little Rock Police Department Stored Property Receipt Form (5500-95) is for use only when storing a person’s property that has been incarcerated under provision of this section. The form is printed with two copies: the ___ copy to be sent to the Property Room and the ___ copy for the person whose property was stored.
White, Yellow
The owner of the stored property will be required to sign the receipt acknowledging the accuracy of the items listed on the receipt if they are able. If the owner refuses to sign the receipt or is unable to, the officer will indicate this by writing “___” or “Unable” in the space provided for the owner’s signature.
Refused
Any personnel, requesting several items, should notify Property Room personnel ___ day in advance, so they may be pulled and ready in time.
one
Officers, who receive notifications advising that they have stored property as “Evidence”, shall return the notification to the Property Unit with the disposition of the item. If the officer has not returned the notice within ___ working days, the notice will be sent to the officer’s immediate supervisor for resolution.
- If the property is no longer required as evidence, the officer will notify the owner to retrieve the property within ___ working days.
- If the property is still required as evidence, the officer and/or case detective must return the notice with approval from a supervisor.
fifteen (15), ten (10)
In the event that registration, or license tag of the vehicle has been expired for less than ___, or the driver has a driver’s license that is expired and has been expired less than 60 days, the officer may in the sound exercise of his discretion, from the circumstances stated by the violator concerning the expiration, other factors relevant to the situation at hand, and the officer’s knowledge of the history of the defendant’s violation record, if any, forego the impoundment of the vehicle in connection with the issuance of a citation to the violator.
60 days, 60 days
Any person seeking to redeem a vehicle impounded as a result of a traffic citation has a right to an informal administrative hearing before the Records and Support Division Captain or his/her designee of the Little Rock Police Department to contest the validity of an impoundment. The request for a hearing must be in writing, signed by the owner of the vehicle, and received by the Little Rock Police Department within ___ (including Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays) of the date the vehicle was impounded and towed or within ___ after receipt of notification from the impound facility, whichever is later. The Little Rock Police Department has ___ (not including Saturdays, Sundays and holidays) to issue a written determination as to whether the impoundment met the requirements mandated by this General Order.
thirty (30) days, ten (10) days, five (5) business days
A decision made by the Little Rock Police Department may be appealed to the City Manager or his designee for final judgment. Any person appealing such a decision must file a written request for an appeal with the City Manager’s Office within ___ business days after the decision of the Police Department. The City Manager’s Office will be responsible for notifying the petitioner in writing, of their decision, within ___ working days. If a person fails to file a request for an appeal within the time specified by this section, the right to an appeal is waived and the Police Department’s decision is final.
two (2), five (5)
Vehicles parked unattended upon a city street for more than ___, and which are presumed to be abandoned, will be marked by affixing an orange warning tag to the front windshield.
48 hours
___ should be readily available during the 0700-1500 shift and 1500-2300 shift; the 2300-0700 shift will require a supervisor to contact Communications to implement the call-out procedure.
Crime Scene Specialists
When issuing a Criminal Citation, officers will obtain a thumbprint from the person cited as a means of identifying that person for court purposes. Thumbprints will be placed on ___ only when the person being cited lacks valid photographic identification.
Traffic Citations
No more than two departmental personnel will be allowed in an interview room unless authorized by a ___.
Division Commander
Anyone placing a detainee in an interview room shall record certain information on the interview room status board. This board shall be for recording a detainee’s name, the time he/she was placed in an interview room, the name of the officer/detective who placed him/her in the room, and whether the detainee is an adult or a juvenile. This information should be erased within ___ of the detainee departing from the interview room. This procedure is intended as an effective and economical way to assist supervisors in monitoring those persons taken into custody.
twenty-four (24) hours
If the prisoner is apprehended soon after his escape, the transporting officer will transport the suspect to the appropriate location for follow-up, completion of pertinent documents and the filing of any additional charges. Should the prisoner not be apprehended, the transporting officer will contact the Prosecuting Attorney’s office, within ___, to obtain a warrant.
48 hours
The ___ will be responsible for soliciting comments from other elements, in the juvenile justice system, regarding development and implementation of new programs, or policy and procedures.
Juvenile Crimes Unit Sergeant
___- The failure of the parent to provide reasonable support and to maintain regular contact with the juvenile, through statement or contact, when the failure is accompanied by an intention on the part of the parent to permit the condition to continue for an indefinite period in the future, and failure to support or maintain regular contact with the juvenile, without just cause or an articulated intent to forego parental responsibility.
Abandonment
___- Any of the following acts or omissions by a parent, guardian, custodian, foster parent, person eighteen (18) years of age or older living in the home with a child whether related or unrelated to the child, or any person who is entrusted with the juvenile’s care by a parent, guardian, custodian, or foster parent, including but not limited to, an agent or employee of a public or private residential home, child care facility, public or private school, or any person legally responsible for the juvenile’s welfare, shall be considered abuse.
Abuse
Reasonable and moderate physical discipline inflicted by a parent or guardian shall not include any act that is likely to cause and which does cause injury more serious than transient pain or ___.
minor temporary marks
___- An emergency shelter, designed and authorized for the temporary care of juveniles (ages six through seventeen only) who are runaways, the victims of physical or sexual abuse, drug and/or alcohol abusers (where no withdrawal reaction may reasonably be anticipated), or are abandoned.
Centers For Youth and Families
___- Abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, sexual exploitation, or abandonment.
Child Maltreatment
___- A person, other than a parent or legal guardian who stands in loco parentis to the juvenile or a person, agency, or institution to whom a court of competent jurisdiction has given custody of a juvenile by court order.
Custodian
___- State of Arkansas agency responsible for the protection of individuals.
Department of Human Services (DHS)
___- A division of DHS responsible for assessing child maltreatment cases.
Division of Children and Family Services (DCFS)
___- Means any juvenile that is ten (10) years old or older who has committed an act other than a traffic offense or game and fish violation which, if the act had been committed by an adult, would subject the adult to prosecution for a felony or misdemeanor. This includes the violation of furnishing a deadly weapon to a minor (5-73-119) and any juvenile charged with capital murder (5-10-101) or murder in the first degree (5-10-102) in juvenile court.
Delinquent Juvenile
___- Means any juvenile who is at substantial risk of serious harm as a result of:
- Abandonment,
- Abuse,
- Sexual abuse,
- Sexual exploitation,
- Neglect,
- Parental unfitness to the juvenile, a sibling, or another juvenile, or is,
- A Dependent Juvenile.
Dependent- Neglected Juvenile
___- Means a child of a parent who is under the age of eighteen years and is in the custody of the Department of Human Services (DHS); a child whose parents or guardian has no appropriate relative or friend willing or able to provide care for the child; a child whose parents or guardian is incapacitated, whether temporarily or permanently, so that the parent or guardian cannot provide care for the juvenile and the parent or guardian has no appropriate relative or friend willing or able to provide care for the child; a child whose custodial parent dies and no stand-by guardian exists; a child who is an infant relinquished to the custody of DHS for the sole purpose of adoption; or a safe-haven baby
Dependent Juvenile
___- A parent, stepparent, legal guardian, legal custodian, foster parent, or anyone who, by virtue of a living arrangement, is placed in an apparent position of power or authority over a minor.
Guardian
___- Any criminal offense, as defined by Arkansas State Statute, City of Little Rock Ordinance, Federal law, or any other accepted and enforced code, where the offender may be subjected to incarceration and/or fined as an adult.
Juvenile Charged as an Adult
___- Any individual who is under the age of eighteen, whether married or single (A.C.A. § 9-27-303(32)).
Juvenile
___- Any criminal offense, as defined by Arkansas State Statute, City of Little Rock Ordinance, Federal law, or any other accepted and enforced code, but where the offender is charged through the Juvenile Court system, and is subject only to the provisions therein. This is also referred to as delinquency or a delinquent act (A.C.A. § 9-27-303[15]).
Juvenile Charged as a Juvenile
___- Located at 3201 W. Roosevelt, this facility is where all Pulaski County juvenile cases are processed and tried. A detention facility located at the center is used to house juvenile offenders, who are charged on the juvenile docket.
Juvenile Justice Center
___- Acts or omissions of a parent, guardian, custodian, foster parent, or any person, who is entrusted with the juvenile’s care by a parent, custodian, guardian, or foster parent, including, but not limited to, an agent or employee of a public or private residential home, child care facility, public or private school, or any person legally responsible, under state law, for the juvenile’s welfare, which constitute:
Neglect
___- Means a biological mother, an adoptive parent, or a man to whom the biological mother was married at the time of conception or birth or who has been found by a court of competent jurisdiction to be the biological father of the juvenile.
Parent
- Obscene or licentious material including pictures, movies and videos lacking serious literary, artistic, political or scientific value, which when taken as a whole and applying contemporary community standards would appear to the average person to appeal to the prurient interest; or,
- Material that depicts sexual conduct in a patently offensive manner lacking serious literary, artistic, political or scientific value.
Pornography
___- Bodily injury that involves substantial risk of death, extreme physical pain, protracted and obvious disfigurement or protracted loss or impairment of the function of a bodily member, organ or mental faculty.
Serious Bodily Injury
___- Sexual abuse, sexual exploitation, acts or omissions which may or do result in death, abuse involving the use of deadly weapon as defined by the Arkansas Criminal Code § 51-102(4), bone fracture, internal injuries, burns, immersions, suffocation, abandonment, medical diagnosis of failure to thrive, or causing a substantial and observable change in the behavior or demeanor of the child.
Severe Maltreatment
___- Any act of sexual gratification involving the touching, directly or through clothing, of the sex organs, buttocks or anus of a person or the breast of a female
Sexual Contact
___- Allowing, permitting or encouraging participation or depiction of the juvenile in prostitution, obscene photographing, filming, or obscenely depicting a juvenile for any use or purpose.
Sexual Exploitation
___- Acts which are offenses only because of the age of victim (sexual offenses, sexual performances, computer crimes against minors, exposing children to chemical substance or methamphetamine, or endangering the welfare of a minor 1st).
Status Offense
___- Any act which is considered an offense resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle. These offenses may include moving, parking and license violations, as well as D.W.I. offenses.
Traffic Offense
___- A unit of the Prosecuting Attorney’s Office, which assists police agencies and prosecutors in interviewing victims and witnesses, and in preparing child abuse/neglect and sexual offense cases for trial.
Victim’s Assistance Unit
___- trained, civilian employees of the Little Rock Police Department, who provide valuable information such as counseling and therapy referrals and assistance in obtaining Orders of Protection
Victim Services Program
The authority to charge a juvenile as an adult rests with the ___.
Prosecuting Attorney’s Office
Juveniles Charged with Traffic Offenses: The court date indicated on the citation shall be for a Wednesday at 1600 hours, and shall be at least ___ days from the date of issue.
30
___- Incidents, involving an act of violence, or potential acts of violence, in which innocent persons and/or law enforcement officers are at a disadvantage and subject to extreme danger.
High-risk situations
___- One or more persons being held against their will, with the actual or implied use of force. This could be the result of a crime, domestic problem, or other incident.
Hostage Situation
___- A person who takes a position of concealment to avoid apprehension. The use of force to resist apprehension shall have been displayed through action or words, and the officer shall have reason to believe that the suspect will use deadly force to avoid apprehension.
Barricaded Subject
___- Any situation (such as the serving of a search or arrest warrant, under hazardous circumstances; information or evidence there will be armed resistance; etc.), not described above, that an officer determines falls within the definition of a high-risk situation, and that a response by the SWAT Unit is warranted.
Other
___- The Special Investigations Division Commander shall serve as the ___ for all Special Threat Situations. The ___ shall have overall control and responsibility for the SWAT Unit and the CNT and, upon his arrival at high-risk situations, will direct the overall operation. The ___ shall report to the Assistant Chief of Police / Investigative & Support Bureau.
Incident Commander
___- A unit comprised of specially trained and equipped officers who respond to high-risk situations.
Special Weapons and Tactics (SWAT) Unit
___- A Lieutenant responsible for coordinating training, operational use, and administrative affairs of the Unit, as well as the day-to-day supervision of the SWAT Unit. The SWAT Unit Commander shall report directly to the Incident Commander.
SWAT Unit Commander
___- Sergeant, who supervises the operations of a specific SWAT team and reports to the SWAT Unit Commander.
SWAT Unit Team Leader
___- Sworn member of the SWAT Unit, who assists the Team Leader in the supervision of a specific SWAT team and reports directly to the SWAT Team Leader.
Assistant Team Leader
___- Members of the unit advised to meet in a designated location, with all necessary supplies and equipment.
SWAT Unit Call Out
___- Field headquarters located in a safe and secure area, not subject to gunfire from the scene, from which the Incident Commander will control the operation. The ___ shall be comprised of the Tactical Operations Center (TOC) and the Crisis Negotiators Operations Center (CNOC).
Command Post (CP)
___- The SWAT Van or other designated vehicle or area, where all tactically significant information to support the SWAT mission is gathered for use by the SWAT Unit Commander.
Tactical Operations Center (TOC)
___- A sworn member, designated by the SWAT Unit Commander, to oversee the functioning of the Tactical Operations Center.
Tactical Operations Center Coordinator
___- An element of the SWAT Unit charged with providing cover and control of the inner perimeter and conducting entry operations.
Immediate Action/Deliberate Action Team
___- The immediate area of containment. This area is initially manned by patrol personnel, until relieved by members of the SWAT Unit.
inner Perimeter
___- Controlled area, manned by patrol officers, which is set up outside the inner perimeter to keep vehicular and pedestrian traffic out of the incident area.
Outer Perimeter
___- Overall plan, prepared by the Incident Commander, which outlines the course of action which will be utilized to resolve the situation. The SWAT Unit Commander will prepare the Operation Order for routine Warrant Service.
Operation Order
___- A maneuver by an element of the SWAT Unit to resolve a situation.
Tactical Assault
___- A memorandum, outlining comments and actions taken regarding the conduct of the operation, with regard to issues relating to training, operational and administrative procedures, and equipment needs
After Action Memorandum
___- A unit comprised of personnel specially trained and equipped for negotiations.
Crisis Negotiations Team (CNT)
___- A Lieutenant responsible for the training, operational use, and administrative affairs of the Unit. The CNT Commander reports directly to the Incident Commander.
CNT Commander
___- A Sergeant responsible for overseeing different functions within the CNT (Negotiations, Operations, and Logistics/Support).
CNT Supervisor
___- A law enforcement officer or civilian member who is specially trained to perform negotiation functions. Negotiators report directly to the CNT Commander.
Negotiator
___- The City of Little Rock Emergency Command Vehicle or other designated vehicle or area, where all significant information and intelligence are gathered and the Crisis Negotiations Unit conducts negotiations.
Crisis Negotiations Operations Center (CNOC)
___- A Lieutenant who will direct the activity of all mission essential functions that fall outside of the scope of the SWAT Unit Commander and the CNT Commanders.
Logistical Commander
___- Law enforcement, fire department, ambulance company, and governmental and private industry components, with resources that may provide support in high-risk situations.
Logistics Support
___- Physicians and emergency medical technicians specially trained and equipped to provide medical support in high-risk situations.
Tactical Emergency Medical Support (TEMS)
The ___ will assess ongoing needs for training, equipment, and policy regarding the understanding of mental illness and working with those subjects that have a mental illness.
In-Service Training Sergeant
___- refers to a substantial impairment of emotional processes, or of the ability to exercise conscious control of ones actions, or the ability to perceive reality or to reason, when the impairment is manifested by instances of extremely abnormal behavior or extremely faulty perceptions. It does not include impairment solely caused by epilepsy, mental retardation, continuous or non-continuous periods of intoxication, caused by substances such as alcohol or drugs, or dependence upon or addiction to any substance, such as alcohol or drugs.
Mental Illness
___- Any person, who believes himself to have a mental disease or disorder, may apply to a mental health receiving facility for admission. If the screener at a receiving facility shall be satisfied, after examination of the applicant, that he is in need of mental health treatment and will be benefited thereby, he may receive and care for the person in the receiving facility, for such time as he shall deem necessary for the recovery and improvement of said person, provided that said person agrees at all times to remain in the facility.
Voluntary Admission
___- A person shall be eligible for involuntary admission if he is in such mental condition, as a result of mental illness disease or disorder, that he poses a clear and present danger to himself or others.
Involuntary Admission
___- Physical harm, bodily injury, assault, or the infliction of fear of imminent physical harm, bodily injury or assault, between family or household members, or, Any sexual conduct between family or household members whether minors or adults, which constitutes a crime under the laws of this state
Domestic Abuse
___- means spouses, former spouses, parents and children, persons related by blood, within the fourth degree of consanguinity, persons related by marriage within the second degree of consanguinity, any child residing in the household, persons who presently or in the past have resided or cohabitated together, persons who have or have had a child in common and persons who are presently or in the past have been in a dating relationship together
Family or household member
“___” means a romantic or intimate social relationship between two (2) individuals which shall be determined by examining the following factors;
- The length of the relationship,
- The type of relationship, and,
- The frequency of interaction between the two (2) individuals involved in the relationship.
“___” shall not include a casual relationship or ordinary fraternization between two (2) individuals in a business or social context.
Dating relationship
___- means lineage or origin by blood relationship. This relationship in domestic abuse violations extends to the fourth degree and includes Great, Great Grandparents and children, GreatGrand Uncles and Aunts, and Great-Grand Nephews and Nieces
Consanguinity
___- means an order, issued by a Circuit Court, which prohibits a person from engaging in certain conduct or contact with another person.
Order of Protection
___- means an order issued to a person arrested for a domestic abuse violation, upon their first appearance in District Court. This order limits or prohibits contact with the victim, by the suspect, until the case is disposed of.
No Contact Order
___- means the combination of facts which gives the officer reasonable grounds to believe that a crime has been committed, and that the person to be arrested committed the crime.
Probable Cause
___- means temporary orders issued by a Circuit Court, which prohibit a person from engaging in certain conduct or contact with another person.
Ex-Parte Orders
___- means the person alleging abuse in a petition for an Order of Protection.
Petitioner
___- means the person alleged to have abused another in a petition or Order of Protection.
Respondent
___- means the person involved in a domestic abuse incident who, when all pertinent factors are considered, is determined to be the party perpetrating the preponderance of the aggression.
Predominant Aggressor
___- means law enforcement officers shall arrest a person committing domestic abuse unless there is a clear and compelling reason not to arrest.
Preferred Response
___- means any firearm, explosive, metal knuckles, knife, or other device employed as an instrument of crime subjecting another to physical harm or fear of physical harm.
Weapon
When responding to a domestic violence call, officers may enter a premises or vehicle without consent or warrant, when there is probable cause to believe that individuals therein are in imminent danger of death or ___.
serious bodily harm
Orders of protection are issued by the Circuit Court. Temporary orders may provide relief for up to ___ days, and final orders may provide relief for a period ranging from ninety days up to ___ years. In order to get a final (sometimes called “permanent”) order of protection, a petition must be completed and an ex-parte hearing first held to determine if there is good cause to issue a temporary order of protection prior to the hearing date (which must be scheduled within ___ days). Once a temporary order is granted, a copy of the temporary order must be personally serviced on the respondent advising of the hearing date for the final order of protection.
thirty, ten (10), 30
New officers must complete ___ hours of training in handling domestic violence and child abuse cases.
twenty (20)
Employees will receive training on the topic of domestic violence on at least ___ basis. This training may be scheduled during the employee’s forty (40) hour in-service training.
an annual
___ are generally responsible for taking Driving Without Owner’s Consent (DWOC) reports.
Communications Center Personnel
Advise the owner/complainant to contact the appropriate Special Assignments Detective Unit, if the vehicle is not returned within ___ hours, to upgrade the vehicle as stolen.
72
A ___ is defined as any person under the age of eighteen who, “has absented himself from his home without sufficient cause, permission, or justification.”
juvenile runaway
Pursuant to the National Child Search Assistance Act of 1990, the Department is required to verify and update all records, including medical and dental records of Missing and or Runaway juveniles within ___ days from the original date of entry into NCIC.
60
The case detective who checks the validation sheets shall place his/her initials, employee number, date and time of contact on the validation document and shall return the validations within ___ working days from date of receipt to the ACIC/NCIC Records Technician.
10
The ___ shall be responsible for ensuring that all MVR equipment is properly installed and maintained and that appropriate personnel are trained in the operation of the MVR equipment.
Technology and Equipment Section Lieutenant
Video data files will be maintained on a server location in each of the Field Services Divisions for a period of ___ days.
120
To provide guidance to supervisors and personnel in order to maintain order and restore a safe environment. First responders should make every effort to;
- Isolate, distract and neutralize the threat,
- Rescue and evacuate innocent persons, and,
- ___.
Apprehend the suspect(s)
___ is defined as one or more subjects who participate in a random or systematic homicidal spree by demonstrating their intent to continuously harm others. The subject’s overriding objective appears to be mass murder rather than other criminal conduct such as robbery, kidnapping, etc. This definition includes any assault with a deadly weapon capable of causing mass homicide such as explosive devices, a knife, etc.
Active Aggressor
___ is a team of officers whose primary objective is to locate the active aggressor and isolate, distract and neutralize him/her.
Contact Team
___ is a team of secondary responders whose purpose is to locate and assist the casualties of the assault and establish a Casualty Collection Point for responding medical personnel.
Rescue Groups
___- is a room capable of holding all victims with injuries that require medical attention. A series of rooms next to each other may be used if the casualties exceed available space. The CCP is established to assist responding medical personnel with triaging, treating, and transporting injured victims.
Casualty Collection Point (CCP)
Triage Grouping:
1. RED: Immediate lifesaving care is needed. Patients are unable to move under their own power.
2. GREEN: Care can be delayed. Patient can move under their own power and have minor injuries.
BLACK: ___.
Deceased. The patient has a wound incompatible with sustaining life
If the incident turns into a hostage or barricaded suspect situation, the SWAT Unit and ___ will be notified and respond.
Crisis Negotiations Team
The first officer on scene, who is not part of a contact team, shall be the ___, until relieved by higher authority.
Incident Commander
___, or his/her designee, will document an annual review of policy and training needs in regards to Active Aggressor Incidents.
The Homeland Security Advisor
___- Non-birth name that a transgender individual uses in self-reference (this may or may not be the individual’s legal name).
Adopted Name
___- A term that refers to people whose dress is typically associated with the opposite sex.
Cross-Dresser
___- The actual or perceived identity or behavior of a person as being male or female.
Gender Identity or Expression
___- An individual’s biological or anatomical identity as male or female.
Gender
___- A group of conditions where there is a discrepancy between the external genitalia and the internal genitalia (testes and ovaries).
Intersex
___- An individual’s enduring romantic, emotional and/or sexual attraction to individuals of a particular gender.
Sexual Orientation
___- A person whose gender identity differs from his/her assigned gender.
Transgender Individual
___- A person whose personal sense of his/her gender conflicts with his/her anatomical sex at birth.
Transsexual
___- A person who transitions from “female to male,” meaning a person who was assigned female at birth, but identifies and lives as a male. An FTM individual should be addressed using the masculine pronouns (e.g. he, him, his), regardless of surgical status.
Female-to-Male (FTM)
___- A person who transitions from “male to female,” meaning a person who was assigned male at birth, but identifies and lives as a female. An MTF individual should be addressed using the feminine pronouns (e.g. she, her, hers), regardless of surgical status.
Male-to-Female (MTF)
___- A brand name of Naloxone, a medication used to block the effects of opioids, especially in overdose.
Narcan
___- Opium like compounds that bind to opioid receptors of the body. Examples of opioids include but are not limited to: hydrocodone, oxycodone, morphine, codeine, heroin, and fentanyl.
Opioids
___- The ___, herein after referred to as MCP, shall be a designated medical doctor who is licensed to practice medicine in the State of Arkansas. The Department shall maintain an affiliation with the MCP. The Chief of Police or his/her designee shall periodically consult with the MCP to review equipment, procedures, changes to applicable laws and regulations, and/or the review of specific medical cases.
Medical Control Physician
An initial dose of ___ mg will be given to the victim in one nostril. If the victim does not show a positive response within 2 to 3 minutes, an additional dose of ___ mg should be given.
4.0
The maximum dose for each nostril is ___ mg.
4.0
The completed Narcan Use Form will be forwarded to the ___ for the monitoring, evaluation and analysis of Narcan usage.
Special Investigations Division
The ___ will maintain an inventory documenting the quantities and expirations of Narcan replacement supplies, and a log documenting the issuance of replacement units.
Inservice Sergeant
