General Operational Subjects (GOS) Study Questions Flashcards
Exemption 10248 allows us to:
Operate temporarily without the certificates of registration or airworthiness on board.
CPZ is authorized to conduct what type of operation(s):
Domestic and Flag Operations (NOT supplemental)
You can fly off airways provided that you: (three things)
Stay within the operational service volume of the facilities used, stay within standard route width and MEA criteria, and have adequate navigational facilities, and are cleared by ATC.
What are the requirements to cancel IFR when landing at an uncontrolled airport:
Reported ceiling must be 1,000 feet or greater, must be able to maintain base cloud clearance (91.155), ceiling and cloud clearance must allow minimum safe altitudes. In addition for uncontrolled: air/ground communication facility for traffic, flight is operated within 10nm of destination or visual reference with landing surface is established and can be maintained throughout the approach and landing.
You are landing at a controlled airport and want to cancel IFR, in addition to appropriate weather, what are the three other requirements?
Operation within Class B, C, or D airspace, be operating within 10nm of the destination, use radar-monitored traffic advisories and be in direct communication with ATC.
The visibility for takeoff is 1,600 RVR. What is necessary for you to takeoff?
HIRL, or CL, or RCLM
The visibility for takeoff is 1,200 RVR. What is necessary for you to takeoff?
A minimum of two RVR reports, excluding the “Far End” RVR
HIRL, CL, or RCLM during the daytime; CL or HIRL at night.
BOTH OF THE ABOVE STATEMENTS ARE REQUIRED.
If TDZ RVR and rollout RVR are 1,000’ (no MID available), you need operative runway CL and RCLM to takeoff. (True or False? If False, state why.)
False. CL, or RCLM+HIRL.
If the TDZ, MID and Rollout RVRs are all 600’ you need:
You need runway HIRL and CL to takeoff
CPZ may never use an airport in class G airspace for an alternate. T/F? And explain.
False, CPZ may use a class G airport as an alternate. Requirements: Approved IAP, approved source of weather, and air/ground communications for traffic.
An aircraft has been involved in an accident and you have been assigned to ferry it to KIAD. What must be accomplished prior to flight?
The NTSB must first release it, and the local FSDO must be notified.
As long as the FSDO is notified within 24 hours a category C or D DMI may have it’s time extended. T/F?
False. Only B or C DMI’s may be deferred. (Not sure of the notification period?)
To determine takeoff minimums, CPZ uses:
The takeoff minimums published in the Jepps, but never less than 500/500/500 RVR
At airports that do not have operating ATC facilities and where it is not otherwise possible for the flight crew to obtain an IFR clearance, a flight may take off and depart under VFR, provided (3 conditions):
- The flight crew obtains an IFR clearance as soon as practical after takeoff, but under no circumstances farther than 50 NM from the departure airport
- Visibility is >=1sm during the day, and >=2sm at night.
- The flight remains in VMC at all times while operating under VFR
Which type of instrument approach is approved by the Operations Specifications? Also, name three types that are prohibited:
Permitted: RNAV, ILS, LOC, VOR
Prohibited: PAR, ASR, SDF
To conduct IFR terminal operations in class G airspace (3 conditions):
- The airport must be served by an authorized instrument approach
- The airport must have an approved source of weather
- The PIC must be able to obtain traffic advisories and the status of airport services and facilities
What is required to accept a visual approach? (3 conditions)
- The flight must be in B, C or D airspace, or within 35 miles of the airport in class E airspace
- Adherence to cloud clearance requirements under FAR 91.155
- The flight must keep in visual contact with either the airport or the aircraft to be followed, as directed by ATC
According to the Operation Specifications, when can an aircraft use a single FMS as the sole means of en route navigation?
- Redundant airborne equipment is both installed and operational
- The capability exists at any point along the planned route of flight to safely return to an airway
- Any flight operated over off-airway routing is operated under ATC radar control
What is the approved procedure used to derive alternate weather minimums by CPZ?
Option 1 / Option 2 (C055, 400-1 & 200-1/2)
Where is the furthest point from an uncontrolled field where a CPS aircraft can cancel an IFR flight plan and land under VFR?
There is no distance requirement if the crew can maintain visual reference with the landing surface
What are the CPS-authorized areas of operations?
The 48 contiguous United States, the District of Columbia, Canada (not including MNPS airspace) and Mexico (excluding the Gulf of Mexico)
Your flight was scheduled to arrive at an airport that is class D, but because of mechanical, weather, or ___ delays, you may arrive when the airspace is class G or untowered class E?
ATC
You have departed the gate at Minneapolis and are going to KEVV (Evansville), which is in Class D airspace, but reverts to Class G at night. Before takeoff, System Control calls you back to the gate to pick up a revenue passenger. You then notice that, with the delay taken into account, you will arrive at KEVV after it becomes Class G airspace. Can you depart?
No. You cannot depart per Ops Spec C080. (KEVV is not on the list.)
You have departed the gate at Minneapolis and are going to KHDN, which is in Class E airspace, but reverts to Class G at night. Before takeoff, System Control calls you back to the gate to pick up a revenue passenger. You then notice that, with the delay taken into account, you will arrive at KHDN after it becomes Class G airspace. Can you depart?
Yes. The Ops Specs specifically allow us to land at KHDN at any time.
You wish to use an airport for an alternate that has four approaches with the following approach minimums: ILS 30 – 200’ – ½, VOR 30 – 600’ – 2, VOR 12 – 400’ – ¾, NDB 12 – 600’ – 2. The wind is 21010G16. According to the operations specifications, what is the LOWEST ceiling and visibility you could use for alternate minimums?
600’ – 1 ¼
Immediately before you are cleared for takeoff, Minneapolis tower says, “Attention all aircraft, ATIS Delta now current, altimeter 29.99. Runway 30R in use, MID RVR 500, ROLLOUT RVR600, TDZ RVR OTS”. Published minimums for takeoff from 30R are 500/500/500. Can you depart if the other required visual aids are operational?
Yes. One transmissometer can fail, but if the other two are at or above 500 RVR the flight may depart.
According to the Operations Specifications, which is/are the controlling RVR report(s) for landing?
Touchdown
While doing Option 2, you used two Cat 1 approaches and derived minimums to be 400’ & 1sm. For this to be a legal alternate airport, the forecast weather would have to be at or above what at the alternate ETA?
400’ & 1sm
To conduct terminal arrival VFR operations at a class C airport, what is lowest ceiling authorized as prescribed under FAR 91.155 to maintain the basic cloud clearance (assume pattern altitude of 1500’ for transport category aircraft)?
2000’
Which of the following is not an approved alternate source of weather?
FISDL
Meteorlogix, ASOS, FAA FSS are approved.
Unless a pilot calls 1-866-460-0150 to initiate an ASAP report, all ASAP Reports must be submitted within 24 hours for a domestic flight, or 48 hours for an International Flight.
True. If you’re unable to submit a written report, you may call the hotline (24/48 hours) and then follow up with formal written report within 24 hours of the phone call.
Under which of the following situations should a pilot submit an ASAP Report?
Possible FAR Violations, Possible SOP Violations, Significant Safety Issues
The following are valid acceptance criteria for ASAP reporting, except: (how many hours to submit the ASAP report and what are 3 accepting qualifications)
The ASAP Report must be submitted within 72 hours
The alleged violation must be inadvertent, the alleged violation must not involve criminal activity, including alcohol or substance abuse, there must be no issues involving pilot medical qualifications
An Emergency / Irregularity (Crew) Report must be submitted for each occurrence of:
Interruption of a flight caused by a known or suspected mechanical problem, anytime an emergency has been declared, a situation that may bring attention to Company operations or prompt an FAA investigation
When an armed Law Enforcement Officer (LEO) travels on a CPS flight what difference will be seen on their boarding pass?
TWW. Traveling With Weapon!
You have an hour on the ground between legs and the entire crew wants to leave to get a sandwich. You should:
Secure all the access doors
After getting a sandwich, you arrive back at your unattended airplane. You should:
Do a walk-around security inspection of the flight deck and wheel wells.
When operating above FL250, each flight crewmember must be provided with and continually use an oxygen mask.
False.
A critical phase of flight is:
From engine start through climb out of 10,000’ MSL, and then descent out of 10,000’ MSL through the completion of the shutdown checklist.
While making a turn on the ground, CPS pilots are required to clear the direction of the turn and to verbalize it. When airborne the direction also must either be cleared visually (in VMC) or via TCAS (in IMC), but without verbalization.
True.
Sterile cockpit procedures are in effect when:
Descending through 10,000’ MSL b. Departing cruise altitude, if below 10,000’ MSL
Cell phones may be used:
On the ground when taxiing in, and with the Captain’s permission during irregular operations
Reading materials not related to the actual operation of the flight shall not be read in the cockpit during any operational phase of a flight.
True.
The flight attendant (s) must be on board all CPS aircraft in order to begin boarding.
True.
If all booked passengers are on board, System Control or Station Ops may authorize a CPS aircraft to depart the gate up to ___minutes before scheduled departure time.
10
Who has the highest jumpseat priority of these four people?
A. An CPS dispatcher B. An CPS pilot C. An FAA inspector D. An CPS check airman
C. An FAA inspector.
A station agent may delay a flight without approval from System Control for up to ___ minutes from scheduled departure time?
10
During critical phases of flight, one crewmember may leave his or her station for physiological needs.
False.
Once an aircraft has left the gate but is still on the ground, System Control can recall a flight for everything except:
a. Ticketed revenue passengers b. Non-revenue passengers from other airlines c. CPS Maintenance personnel d. Additional passenger bags
B. Non-revenue passengers from other airlines.
Per the FOM, turns after takeoff are not authorized below:
400’
The critical phase of flight:
Begins with engine start and ends at 10,000’ MSL, or cruise altitude if cruise is less than 10,000’
You are the PIC and disagree with System Control concerning the release. You should:
Ask for a phone patch to the System/Duty Chief Pilot’s office, or if not available then the most appropriate individual authorized to provide operational guidance listed in the FOM.
Even if ACARS is operational, the PNF (PM) shall maintain a listening watch on the appropriate company radio frequency (either station or Delta radio) using VHF 2 at all times unless it is being used to receive ATIS or a clearance.
True.
While holding at runway 24 in IFR conditions at Roanoke, VA, the tower states “Compass Airlines 421, runway 24 cleared for takeoff, cleared on course”. You should:
Follow the published departure procedure.
If your takeoff clearance in visual conditions include the phrase “cleared on course” You should:
Unless it is noted otherwise in the Airport Information Page (10-7), proceed via your own navigation to your first fix when altitude and obstruction clearance permit, and then via your flight plan.
The flight crew should contact Dispatch and the Station of intended landing any time there is an ATC delay or holding beyond 15 minutes.
True.
You are at the de-ice pad. Your holdover time begins:
When final application of the de-ice / anti-ice fluid starts.
CPZ flights must pass at least 5 miles (preferably upwind) from known thunderstorms, and not takeoff and land if a thunderstorm is occurring within the airport boundary (within 5 SM of the airport center).
False.
Alternate fuel computation is based on what altitude and power setting?
A cruise altitude between 5000’ MSL and FL200 at long-range cruise thrust.
Company reserve fuel is defined as:
The fuel that will provide more than 45 minutes of engine operation at long-range cruise power settings at 10,000 MSL
Contingency fuel is:
Designed to accommodate unplanned events, it is not required by regulation, and it’s determined for each flight.
When using the manual weight and balance procedure, the official copy of the Dispatch release must be filed at the crew’s domicile within how long?
7 days.
When using the ACARS weight and balance procedure, the official copy of the Dispatch release must be filed at the crew’s domicile within how long?
Never. It has already been filed by Dispatch electronically.
If you have been provided with two sources of weather for your destination and you are trying to determine if you are legal to depart, which statement is true?
The least restrictive weather source may be used to determine legality at ETA.
Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true regarding exemption 3585?
The ceiling is not a factor in determining destination legality. Also, at the first alternate, the conditional ceiling AND visibility must be no lower than half that required to designate an alternate.
Which statement is true with regard to holdover times?
Once a holdover time is exceeded, a pre-takeoff contamination check must be completed.
What is a FALSE statement concerning CPS policy regarding weather radar?
a. Radar must be operative during any period when there is positive indication that thunderstorms or potentially dangerous weather detectable by airborne radar exists. b. The radar must be deferred in accordance with the MEL. c. Radar must be operative for all night IMC operations. d. Radar may be inoperative for a flight operation during any period when IFR exists and current weather reports do not indicate dangerous weather will be encountered that the radar would detect.
Radar must be operative for all night IMC operations.
Which of the following is required on the Dispatch release?
a. Minimum fuel b. Planned fuel c. Holding fuel d. Alternate fuel
Minimum fuel.
If braking action is reported as NIL, CPZ pilots may
Not takeoff nor land.
When it comes to windshear:
Flights must not take off nor conduct the final approach segment to a runway where ATC has reported a “Microburst Alert.” b. If ATC issues a “Microburst Alert” for the runway of intended landing, a go around must be executed. c. When windshsear analysis, PIREPS or an analysis of airplane performance indicates that a loss of airspeed will be experienced on an approach (in accordance with the AOM), the approach should not be attempted.
What inoperative equipment is required to be listed on the Dispatch release?
All deferred / MEL’d items except NEFs must be listed on the dispatch release.
If a takeoff alternate airport is required for takeoff, the alternate airport must be within the following conditions:
Within 1 hour from the departure point, at normal cruising speed, in still air, with one engine inoperative
On your Dispatch release, you see that you have 600 lbs. of holding fuel. How is holding fuel computed?
At 10,000’ MSL at holding airspeed
Marginal weather will require a second alternate if the:
Ceiling or visibility at the destination and alternate is forecast to be at its minimum value at their respective ETA’s.
The forecast for your destination states: FM 1000 4SM BR SCT 012 TEMPO 1214 ¼ SM FG. The ETA at the destination is 1500Z. ILS category 1 visibility is ½ SM. In order to depart, regulations require that you dispatch under 3585.
False.
An alternate has been designated on a release. While examining the weather at the alternate, the PIC notices a TAF and a RAMTAF available at the ETA. The TAF indicates a lower ceiling and visibility than the RAMTAF. According to the FOM, which forecast would you use?
TAF. The FOM states the more restrictive (lower) weather must be used to determine if an alternate is legal.
What items are required on a Dispatch release per Compass policy?
Aircraft ID; flight number; departure, intermediate, destination, and alternate airports; type of operation, minimum fuel supply; DMIs, and crewmembers’ names & ID #’s c. Aircraft ID; flight number; departure, intermediate, destination, and alternate
Because CPS flights are always dispatched under IFR, we always need an alternate on the release regardless of the weather.
False.
Icing conditions can exist with indicated OAT as high as ____ degrees C
+10C
SIGMET reports severe turbulence, but all forecasts indicate only moderate turbulence:
You can fly into the affected area unless a legitimate PIREP reports severe turbulence
Revalidation of a Dispatch release for 121 Domestic Operations is necessary if:
The flight departs an originating station after a two-hour delay
At what point on the release must the most restrictive WX source be applied?
At the alternate.
An alternate airport is NOT required for dispatch if the destination weather forecast is for conditions of:
At least 2,000’ ceiling above the airport elevation and at least 3 miles visibility for at least one hour before and one hour after the ETA
Dispatch under 3585 is allowed if, at your ETA:
The CONDITIONAL visibility is no less than ½ that required for the approach at the destination, ½ that required to designate an alternate and at or above alternate designation requirements for the 2nd alternate.
To be legally dispatched under Exemption 3585, the destination’s main bod
False.
