General Medicine - Haematology Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

Itching after shower. Think?

A

Polycythaemia Vera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Osteolytic lesions on CXR. Think?

A

Multiple Myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Multiple myeloma CXR finding?

A

Osteolytic lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hyposplenism blood film?

A

Howell Jolly Bodies and schistocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lead poisoning blood film?

A

Basophilic stipling and cabot rings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hemolytic anaemia blood film?

A

Schistocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Roleaux formation found in?

A

Myeloma and chronic inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Myeloma blood film?

A

Rouleux formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Type of anaemia in copresentation of IDA and B12 deficiency?

A

Normocytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CRAB pneumonic? Which condition?

A
Multiple Myeloma
C Hypercalcaemia
R Renal Failure
A Anaemia
B Bone fractures/lytic lesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

DIC investigation findings - platelets and coagulation studies

A

low platelet count
prolonged PT, APTT, bleeding time
also raised platelet degradation products (PDP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

5HIAA urinary test indicated to investigate which condition?

A

Carcinoid Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pharma treatment for Wilson’s Disease?

A

Penicillamine - chelating agent

Trientine - if intolerant to Penicillamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Appearance of Burkitt’s Lymphoma biopsy?

A

Starry sky appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does GORD cause anaemia?

A

Bleeding from long term oesophagitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Poikilocytes on blood film associated with which condition?

A

Myelofibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which factor deficient in Haemophilia A?

A

Factor 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which factor deficient in Haemophilia B?

A

Factor 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Haemarthrosis is associated with which clotting disorders?

A

Haemophilia A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Myasthenia Gravis is associated with which kind of tumor?

A

Thymoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Coagulation test changes in vWillebrand’s Disease?

A

Bleeding time - prolonged
APTT - prolonged
Platelet count - normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Acute chest syndrome is a risk factor of which haematological condition?

A

Sickle Cell Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does acute chest syndrome present?

A
  1. Dyspnoea
  2. Chest pain
  3. Cough
  4. Pulmonary infiltrates on CXR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Findings in Rotor Syndrome

A

Hyperbilirubinaemia , both conjugated and unconjugated

25
Risk of Tamoxifen therapy?
Increased risk of VTE
26
Pharma treatment for neutopenia?
Filgrastim
27
Filgrastim use?
Granulocyte Colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) for neutropenia
28
ABVD chemotherapy drugs?
A - Adriamycin B - Bleomycin V - Vinblastine D- Dacarbazine
29
Inheritance pattern of Haemochromatosis?
Autosomal recessive
30
Tumor lysis syndrome presentaion?
1. Increase serum creatinine 2. Cardiac arhythmmias 3. Seizure
31
Which drug for malaria prophylaxis can trigger G6PD deficiency?
Primaquine
32
Risk factor of Primaquine?
Can trigger G6PD deficiency
33
Use of Primaquine?
Malaria prophylaxis
34
Effect on TIBC in Anaemia of Chronic Disease?
Low or normal
35
Effect on TIBC in IDA
Increased
36
Use of direct coomb's test?
To confirm autoimmune/ haemolytic anaemia
37
Use of indirect coomb's test?
To check for rhesus hemolytic disease of the newborn
38
British Journal of Haematology Guidelines for patients on Warfarin having major surgery?
1. If surgery can wait 4-8 hours, 5mg of Vit. K iv | 2. If surgery cannot wait - Four factor prothrombin complex concentrate
39
Factors found in 4 factor prothrombin complex
2,7,9,10
40
Use of irradiated blood products?
Depletes T-lymphocytes to reduce risk of transfusion graft vs host disease. Usually used when immune system compromised
41
Haemochromatosis iron study findings?
Transferrin saturation - increased Ferritin - increased TIBC - reduced
42
What is TIBC a measure of?
Measure available binding sites on transferrin.
43
Which condition has Reed - Sternburg cells?
Hodgekin's Lymphoma
44
Mirror image nuclei also called?
Reed Sternburg Cells
45
Genetic mutation in Burkitt's lymphoma?
C-myc gene translocation
46
Bleeding gums. Think?
Scurvy - Vitamin C deficiency
47
Most common type of Lymphoma in the UK?
Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
48
Antiphospholipid syndrome / Hughes Syndrome risk?
Immune system disorder that increases the risk of blood clots - increased risk of DVT
49
4 types of Hodgekin's Lymphoma
1. Nodular Sclerosing 2. Mixed Cellularity 3. Lymphocyte rich 4. Lymphocyte delpleted
50
Effect on caeruloplasmin levels in Wilson's disease?
Reduced
51
Role of caeruloplasmin?
Major carrying protein in the blood. Plays a role in iron metabolism.
52
What is a cystic hygroma?
Fluid filled sac that results from a blockage in the lymphatic system
53
Lemon tinge to the skin associated with with condition
Pernicious anaemia. Yellow due to anaemia and mild jaundice. Patients also have reduced vibration sensation, reflex loss and weakness due to reduced B12
54
If treating B12 and folate deficiency, which should be treated first and why?
B12 deficiency treated first to prevent subacute combined degradation of the cord (Lichtheim's Disease)
55
Platelets have risk of infection by what kind of bacteria? What temp. are they stored at ?
Gram + . Stored at room temperature. Risk of iatrogenic septicaemia.
56
Packed red cells have risk of infection by what kind of bacteria? What temp are they stored at
Gram negative. Stored at 4 degrees.
57
Which factors are reduced by Warfarin?
2,7,9,10
58
How to treat major bleeding in patient on Warfarin Therapy?
Prothrombin complex concentrate (25-50 U/kg) + Vit. K(5mg iv) + stop Warfarin