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Medicine Year 3 > General Medicine - Haematology > Flashcards

General Medicine - Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

Itching after shower. Think?

A

Polycythaemia Vera

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2
Q

Osteolytic lesions on CXR. Think?

A

Multiple Myeloma

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3
Q

Multiple myeloma CXR finding?

A

Osteolytic lesions

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4
Q

Hyposplenism blood film?

A

Howell Jolly Bodies and schistocytes

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5
Q

Lead poisoning blood film?

A

Basophilic stipling and cabot rings

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6
Q

Hemolytic anaemia blood film?

A

Schistocytes

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7
Q

Roleaux formation found in?

A

Myeloma and chronic inflammation

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8
Q

Myeloma blood film?

A

Rouleux formation

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9
Q

Type of anaemia in copresentation of IDA and B12 deficiency?

A

Normocytic anaemia

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10
Q

CRAB pneumonic? Which condition?

A 
Multiple Myeloma
C Hypercalcaemia
R Renal Failure
A Anaemia
B Bone fractures/lytic lesions
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11
Q

DIC investigation findings - platelets and coagulation studies

A

low platelet count
prolonged PT, APTT, bleeding time
also raised platelet degradation products (PDP)

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12
Q

5HIAA urinary test indicated to investigate which condition?

A

Carcinoid Syndrome

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13
Q

Pharma treatment for Wilson’s Disease?

A

Penicillamine - chelating agent

Trientine - if intolerant to Penicillamine

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14
Q

Appearance of Burkitt’s Lymphoma biopsy?

A

Starry sky appearance

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15
Q

How does GORD cause anaemia?

A

Bleeding from long term oesophagitis.

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16
Q

Poikilocytes on blood film associated with which condition?

A

Myelofibrosis

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17
Q

Which factor deficient in Haemophilia A?

A

Factor 8

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18
Q

Which factor deficient in Haemophilia B?

A

Factor 9

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19
Q

Haemarthrosis is associated with which clotting disorders?

A

Haemophilia A and B

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20
Q

Myasthenia Gravis is associated with which kind of tumor?

A

Thymoma

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21
Q

Coagulation test changes in vWillebrand’s Disease?

A

Bleeding time - prolonged
APTT - prolonged
Platelet count - normal

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22
Q

Acute chest syndrome is a risk factor of which haematological condition?

A

Sickle Cell Disease

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23
Q

How does acute chest syndrome present?

A
  1. Dyspnoea
  2. Chest pain
  3. Cough
  4. Pulmonary infiltrates on CXR
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24
Q

Findings in Rotor Syndrome

A

Hyperbilirubinaemia , both conjugated and unconjugated

25
Q

Risk of Tamoxifen therapy?

A

Increased risk of VTE

26
Q

Pharma treatment for neutopenia?

A

Filgrastim

27
Q

Filgrastim use?

A

Granulocyte Colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) for neutropenia

28
Q

ABVD chemotherapy drugs?

A

A - Adriamycin
B - Bleomycin
V - Vinblastine
D- Dacarbazine

29
Q

Inheritance pattern of Haemochromatosis?

A

Autosomal recessive

30
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome presentaion?

A
  1. Increase serum creatinine
  2. Cardiac arhythmmias
  3. Seizure
31
Q

Which drug for malaria prophylaxis can trigger G6PD deficiency?

A

Primaquine

32
Q

Risk factor of Primaquine?

A

Can trigger G6PD deficiency

33
Q

Use of Primaquine?

A

Malaria prophylaxis

34
Q

Effect on TIBC in Anaemia of Chronic Disease?

A

Low or normal

35
Q

Effect on TIBC in IDA

A

Increased

36
Q

Use of direct coomb’s test?

A

To confirm autoimmune/ haemolytic anaemia

37
Q

Use of indirect coomb’s test?

A

To check for rhesus hemolytic disease of the newborn

38
Q

British Journal of Haematology Guidelines for patients on Warfarin having major surgery?

A
  1. If surgery can wait 4-8 hours, 5mg of Vit. K iv

2. If surgery cannot wait - Four factor prothrombin complex concentrate

39
Q

Factors found in 4 factor prothrombin complex

A

2,7,9,10

40
Q

Use of irradiated blood products?

A

Depletes T-lymphocytes to reduce risk of transfusion graft vs host disease. Usually used when immune system compromised

41
Q

Haemochromatosis iron study findings?

A

Transferrin saturation - increased
Ferritin - increased
TIBC - reduced

42
Q

What is TIBC a measure of?

A

Measure available binding sites on transferrin.

43
Q

Which condition has Reed - Sternburg cells?

A

Hodgekin’s Lymphoma

44
Q

Mirror image nuclei also called?

A

Reed Sternburg Cells

45
Q

Genetic mutation in Burkitt’s lymphoma?

A

C-myc gene translocation

46
Q

Bleeding gums. Think?

A

Scurvy - Vitamin C deficiency

47
Q

Most common type of Lymphoma in the UK?

A

Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

48
Q

Antiphospholipid syndrome / Hughes Syndrome risk?

A

Immune system disorder that increases the risk of blood clots - increased risk of DVT

49
Q

4 types of Hodgekin’s Lymphoma

A
  1. Nodular Sclerosing
  2. Mixed Cellularity
  3. Lymphocyte rich
  4. Lymphocyte delpleted
50
Q

Effect on caeruloplasmin levels in Wilson’s disease?

A

Reduced

51
Q

Role of caeruloplasmin?

A

Major carrying protein in the blood. Plays a role in iron metabolism.

52
Q

What is a cystic hygroma?

A

Fluid filled sac that results from a blockage in the lymphatic system

53
Q

Lemon tinge to the skin associated with with condition

A

Pernicious anaemia. Yellow due to anaemia and mild jaundice. Patients also have reduced vibration sensation, reflex loss and weakness due to reduced B12

54
Q

If treating B12 and folate deficiency, which should be treated first and why?

A

B12 deficiency treated first to prevent subacute combined degradation of the cord (Lichtheim’s Disease)

55
Q

Platelets have risk of infection by what kind of bacteria? What temp. are they stored at ?

A

Gram + . Stored at room temperature. Risk of iatrogenic septicaemia.

56
Q

Packed red cells have risk of infection by what kind of bacteria? What temp are they stored at

A

Gram negative. Stored at 4 degrees.

57
Q

Which factors are reduced by Warfarin?

A

2,7,9,10

58
Q

How to treat major bleeding in patient on Warfarin Therapy?

A

Prothrombin complex concentrate (25-50 U/kg) + Vit. K(5mg iv) + stop Warfarin

Medicine Year 3 (4 decks)

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