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CMT 1 Course > General Med > Flashcards

General Med Flashcards

0
Q

Who is the guidance for The Medicines Act 1968?

A

BMA - British Medical Association

GMC - General Medical Council

Department of Health

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1
Q

What does PSD stand for?

A

Patient Specific Direction

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2
Q

Definition of Patient Specific Directions (PSD)?

A

A written instruction from a Doctor or Dentist, for a medicine to be supplied or administered to a named patient.

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3
Q

Who can authorise a PSD?

A
  • Dentist
  • Doctor
  • Independent Practitioner
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4
Q

Who can supply / administer a medicine on a PSD?

A

No legal restriction

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5
Q

State the Process of using a PSD?

A
  • Identify the Medicine/patient
  • Complete PSD form
  • Practitioner to conduct Clinical checks and sign
  • Practitioner are to brief Medical Staff and suitably trained
  • Practitioner ensure patients are briefed
  • ## Patients are called forward
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6
Q

State the forms used to demand stock?

A

P2P

Fmed 573

Medicines for deployed troops - Unit QM Department

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7
Q

State the prescribers responsibility?

A
  • Complete clinical checks
  • Sign & authorises PSD
  • Ensure Healthcare Practitioner (HCP)are suitably trained/competent
  • Brief HCP on process
  • Audits
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8
Q

What are the Healthcare Practioner Responsibilities?

A
  • Carry out correct procedures
  • Comply with instruction
  • Refer any personal to prescriber
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9
Q

State the Practise manager Responsibilities?

A
  • All working in scope practise
  • Records are updated
  • All records are kept for limited period
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10
Q

What is manual handling ?

A

Anything that includes the application of bodily force to move an object

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11
Q

Why do we bother with Manual Handling?

A
  • Provide safer working situations
  • Reduce cost
  • Decrease back pain / Musculo-Skeletal Disorder
  • The law
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12
Q

State the parts of the spine and number of vertebrae?

A 
Cervical Cavity - 7
Thoracic Cavity - 12
Lumbar Cavity - 5
Sacrum - 5
Coccyx - 4
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13
Q

State the principles of safe manual handling?

A
  • Avoid
  • Assess
  • Plan
  • Prepare
  • Perform
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14
Q

What does TILE Mean??

A

T- Task (whats task is involved?)
I- Individual (person/ people doing the movement?)
L- Load (person/ object being moved?)
E- Environment (including equipment)

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15
Q

In emergency child birth, how do you take a quick history?

A
  • Duration
  • Age
  • Number of previous children
  • Previous complications
  • Any illnesses through pregnancy
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16
Q

How many stages in Child Birth?

A

Three

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17
Q

Describe the first stage of labour?

A

From the onset of regular and painful contractions to full dilation of the cervix

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18
Q

Describe the second stage of labour?

A

From full dilation of the cervix to complete delivery of the baby

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19
Q

Describe the third stage of labour?

A

From delivering the baby to the complete removal of the placenta and membranes

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20
Q

What are the treatment aims when looking after the mother, once the baby is born?

A
  • Prevent Infection
  • Prevent further trauma
  • Pain relief
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21
Q

What are the treatment aims when looking after the baby, once the baby is born?

A
  • Maintain body heat
  • Resuscitate
  • Prevent trauma
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22
Q

State the definition of a CBRN Chemical Agent?

A

A Chemical substance which is used on Military operations to Kill, seriously injure or incapacitate man through physiological effects

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23
Q

State the routes of entry for a Chemical Agent?

A
  • Inhalation
  • Ingestion
  • Absorbtion
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24
Q

State the three categories in Chemical Agents?

A
  • Persistent
  • Semi- persistent
  • Non-persistent
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25
Q

State the means of delivery for a chemical agent?

A
  • Air delivery
  • Bursting Munitions
  • Contamination
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26
Q

State the definition for a Blister Agent?

A

A liquid that damages cell DNA, resulting in death to exposure of tissue

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27
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Blister Agents?

A
  • Eye contamination
  • Skin contamination
  • Respiratory tract contamination
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28
Q

State the definition of a Choking Agent?

A

Called a Pulmonary Agent cuz it damages the cell membranes in the respiratory tract

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29
Q

Give two examples of Choking Agents?

A
  • Chlorine

- Phosgene

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30
Q

State the definition of a Blood Agent?

A

A non - persistent agent, that is inhaled and prevents the uptake of oxygen at cellular level

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31
Q

State the definition of a Nerve Agent?

A

Potentially lethal agent which interferes with transmission of nerve impulses, to prevent breathing and muscle co-ordination

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32
Q

What are the early signs and symptoms for in a Nerve Agent?

A

D- Dimness of vision
R- Runny nose
P- Pinpoint pupils
T- Tightness of chest

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33
Q

What are the late signs and symptoms for in a Nerve Agent?

A

H- Headache
I- Increased Saliva & dry mouth
D- Dizziness & generally weak
E- Excessive sweating

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34
Q

What are the danger signs and symptoms for in a Nerve Agent?

A

N- Nausea
I- Involuntary deification / urination
M- Muscle spasm & twitching
S- Stoppage of breathing

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35
Q

What does NAPS stand for in CBRN?

A

Nerve Agent Pre-treatment Set

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36
Q

In CBRN, how many NAPS tablets in a packet and what is the dose?

A

21 Tablets

1 Tab every 8 hrs

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37
Q

In CBRN, how many compo pens can a medic give??

A

1 every 2 mins,

max of 3 combo pens

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38
Q

State the signs and symptoms of an Atropine overdose?

A

H- Hot, dry skin
A- A dry mouth
R- Rapid pulse
E- Enlarged pupils

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39
Q

State the definition of a Biological Agent?

A

A micro-organism that causes diseases in man, plants or animals

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40
Q

State the types of Biological agents?

A
  • Live Agent

- Toxin

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41
Q

State the key things to consider when sitting a decontamination area in an event of a CBRN attack?

A 
S- site, safety, space, security 
A- access, availability
D-dispersion, drainage
C-command & comms, camouflage & cover
H- hard standing, HLS, health hazards
A- accommodation, alternative site
P- protection, publicity, prevailing wind
S- stores & supply
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42
Q

In CBRN, What are the possible agents?

A 
Biological Agents
Blood Agents
Blister Agents
Chemical Agents
Choking Agents
Nerve Agents
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43
Q

State the three types of consent?

A
  • Competency
  • Information
  • Voluntariness
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44
Q

What are the two ways that consent can be given?

A
  • Implied

- Explicit

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45
Q

When should you wash you hands?

A
  • before and after contact with a patient
  • before and after handling food
  • on arrive to a scene
  • after leaving a scene
  • after contact with bodily fluids
  • after removing gloves
  • after going to the toilet
  • when hands are visibly dirty
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46
Q

Decontamination of equipment is a combination of what three things?

A
  • cleaning
  • disinfection
  • sterilisation
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47
Q

What to do after getting a needle stick injury?

A
  • immediately stop what you are doing
  • encourage bleeding
  • wash under running water
  • report immediately
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48
Q

What does ODP stand for?

A

Operations During Peace time

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49
Q

What does OOTW stand for?

A

Operations Other Than War

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50
Q

State the Hazard Spectrum?

A
  • Trauma / burns
  • Medical and toxicological
  • Environment
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51
Q

State the civilian approach to incident management?

A

Bronze - Operational command (immediate area/ inner cordon)

Silver - Tactical command (entire area / outer cordon )

Gold - Strategic command (Highest command level/ away from scene)

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52
Q

What does ATMIST stand for and what is it?

A

Medical handover

A- Age
T- Time of incident
M- Mechanism of injury
I-Injuries sustained 
S- Signs - Vital 
T- Treatment given/timings of treatment
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53
Q

What are the zones in the secondary survey?

A
  • Head and Neck
  • Chest
  • Abdo & Pelvis
  • Limbs
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54
Q

What does AVPU stand for?

A

A- Alert
V- Voice
P- Pain
U- Unresponsive

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55
Q

What does METHANE stand for and what is it used for?

A

Evaculation/ Equipment Request

M- My call sign
E- Exact location
T- Type of incident
H- Hazards
A- Access
N- Number / nature of casualties
E- Emergency services
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56
Q

In scene management what does CSCATTT mean?

A 
C- Command and control
S -Safety
C- Communication
A- Assessment
T- Triage
T- Treatment
T- Transport
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57
Q

When conducting a scene assessment what do you do?

A

Safe Approach

S- Shout, sen, signal for help
A- Assess for danger
F- Find and free the casualty
E- Evaluate

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58
Q

How long should Celox be held in place?

A

3 - 5 mins

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59
Q

What happens to the pupils after taking an atropine overdose?

A

The pupils enlarge

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60
Q

What does dys mean?

A

Difficulty

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61
Q

state the contra indications for an abdominal thrust??

A
  • Children
  • Pregnant women
  • Obese people
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62
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A

7

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63
Q

What are the contra indications for a OPA?

A
  • Conscious
  • Jaw lock
  • Facial Trauma
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64
Q

What are the Oxygen cylinder sizes?

A

D - 340ltrs

E- 680ltrs

F- 1360ltrs

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65
Q

What is Anaphylaxis?

A

An acute allergic reaction

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66
Q

What medication would you give someone who is anaphylactic?

A

Adrenaline 1;1000 IM

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67
Q

What are the three stages of Asthma?

A
  • Mild
  • Severe
  • Life Threatening
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68
Q

What is the drug given to asthmatics?

A

Salbutamol inhaler

Nebuliser

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69
Q

What are the possible chest injuries?

A 
Flail Segment
Open Pneumothorax
Tension Pneumothorax
Spontaneous Pneumothorax
Haemothorax
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70
Q

What does TWELVE LAPP stand for?

A 
Trachea 
Wounds
Emphysema
Larynx
Veins
Expose

Look
Auscaltate
Percuss
Palpate

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71
Q

What are the five types of drowning?

A 
Near 
Dry 
Fresh
Salt water
Secondary
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72
Q

What are the layers of the heart?

A

Pericardium - Outer

Myocardium - middle

Endocardium - inner

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73
Q

What is the chain of survival in cardiac arrest??

A

Early recognition
Early CPR
Early Defib
Post Resus care

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74
Q

What is the definition of Triage?

A

The sorting of casualties in priority of treatment and evacuation

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75
Q

What are the categories of priority in triage?

A 
T1 - Immediate life saving treatment needed 
T2 - Urgent treated needed 
T3 - Delayed treatment / walking wounded
T4 - Expectant treatment
DEAD
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76
Q

What are the timings for death??

A

Instantaneous- 0-10mins

Early- up to 2 hours

Late - can be days after

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77
Q

What is the definition for mechanism of injury??

A

Having an understanding on different mechanisms can predict possible injuries caused.

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78
Q

State the definition of the hazard spectrum?

A

Something that has potential to cause harm

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79
Q

What does MIMMS stand for?

A

Major Incident Major Management Support

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80
Q

State the three types of SHOCK?

A
  • Neurogenic
  • Cardiogenic
  • Hypovolaemic
  • Anaphylactic
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81
Q

What are the skin layers?

A

Dermis

Epidermis

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82
Q

State the three categories of burns?

A

Superficial

Partial Thickness

Full Thickness

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83
Q 
Using the Wallace Rules of Nines, state the percentages for;
Head and neck?
Chest and abdo?
Back?
Arms and hands?
Whole leg and foot?
Gential Region?
A 
Head and neck 9%
Chest and abdo 18%
Back 18% 
Arms and hands 9%
Whole leg and foot 18%
Gential Region 1%
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84
Q

In CBRN what medication is in a compo pen?

A

Atropine
Diazepam
Pralidoxime

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85
Q

In each stage of shock, what are the percentage of blood loss?

A

Stage 1: 0-15%
Stage 2: 15- 30%
Stage 3: 30 - 40 %
Stage 4: Above 40%

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86
Q

What does CUF stand for?

A

Care Under Fire

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87
Q

What does TFC stand for?

A

Tactical Field Care

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88
Q

What is the aims in CUF?

A 
Win the fire fight
Patient self aid
Extract to cover
Apply Tourniquets
Position for airway support
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89
Q

State the treatment given in CUF?

A

Apply tourniquet/control bleed

Maintain airway - postural drainage

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90
Q

Once in a semi permissive area, what treatment acronym would you use?

A

Tactical Rapid and Primary Survey

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91
Q

What does RIBS mean??

A

R- Rate
I- Injuries
B- Back
S- Sides

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92
Q

state the normal pulse rates for femoral, radial, carotid?

A

Radial - 80-90 mmHg
Femoral- 70-80 mmHg
Carotid - 60-80mmHg

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93
Q

What does PEARL stand for?

A

Pupils Equal And Reactive to Light

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94
Q

What does AVPU stand for and what does it test?

A

Alert
Voice
Pain
Unresponsive

Brain function

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95
Q

State the different types of cuts?

A
  • Laceration
  • Puncture
  • Contusion
  • Gun shot
  • Incision
  • Abrasion
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96
Q

State two types of bleeding?

A
  • Internal

- External

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97
Q

How many spinal nerves are there?

A

31

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98
Q

How many cranial nerves are there?

A

12

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99
Q

The nervous system is split into two, what are they?

A
  • Central

- Peripheral

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100
Q

State what the Central nervous system consists of?

A
  • Brain

- Spinal cord

101
Q

State what the Peripheral nervous system consists of?

A
  • 31 pairs spinal nerves
  • 12 cranial nerves
  • Autonomic nervous system
102
Q

State the three ares of the brain?

A
  • Cerebrum - top part - controls higher intelligence/ skeleton muscle control
  • Cerebellum - baby brain at the back- muscle tone, coordination and balance
  • Brain stem
103
Q

State what the brain stem consists of?

A
  • The mid brain - relay station
  • The pons varolli - Forms a bridge between both hemispheres
  • Medulla Oblongata - Is the cross over point/ reflex centre for vomiting , coughing, sneezing
104
Q

State the layers of the brain?

A
  • Dura Mater - Outer Layer
  • Arachnoid Mater - Middle layer
  • Pia Mater - Inner Layer
105
Q

State the spinal nerves for each section of the spinal?

A 
Cervical - 8
Thoracic - 12 
Lumber - 5
Sacral - 5
coccygeal - 1
106
Q

How would you carry out a neurological assessment?

A

AVPU

Glasgow coma score

107
Q

state the contra indication for a poisoning?

A

DO NOT induce vomiting

108
Q

What is Hyper/Hypoglycaemia?

A

High/ Low blood sugars

109
Q

When testing blood sugars what levels should you aim for?

A

BM - 3- 10

110
Q

At what body temperature does heat stroke happen?

A

41 degrees

111
Q

At what body temperature does heat exhaustion happen?

A

39 - 40

112
Q

At what body temperature does hypothermia happen?

A

below 35 degrees

113
Q

State two types of poisoning?

A
  • Corrosive

- Non - corrosive

114
Q

State the functions of the skin?

A 
Protection
Regulates body temperature
Sensation
Absorption
Excretion
115
Q

How long would you put a burn in running water?

A

10 minutes

116
Q

What is the percentages of the babies body?

A 
Head - 18%
Front/Back - 18%
Arms- 9%
Legs - 14%
Genitals - 1%
117
Q

State the signs and symptoms for smoke inhalation?

A

Hoarse throat
Visual burns
Singed nasal/facial hair
Swelling around mouth/nose

118
Q

How many bones make up the skeleton?

A

200

119
Q

State the functions of the skeleton?

A 
Protection
Support
Movement
Mineral storage
Energy storage
120
Q

How many ribs does a human have?

A

12 pairs

121
Q

State the three classifications of a joint?

A
  • Fixed
  • Slightly movable
  • Freely movable
122
Q

Name the different types of joints?

A
  • Ball & sockets
  • Hinge Joints
  • Gliding Joints
  • Pivot Joints
123
Q

What does PRICE stand for in musculoskeletal injury?

A 
Protect
Rest
Ice
Compression
Elevation
124
Q

State the types of pain relief?

A

Reassurance
Pharmaceuticals
Physiological

125
Q

When should you NOT give morphine?

A
  • P/U in AVPU
  • Breathing under 10
  • Hypotension - no radial pulse
  • Head injuries
126
Q

What is in Entonox?

A

50% of Nitrous Oxide

50% of Oxygen

127
Q

Which Fmed is used for a Field Medical Card?

A

Fmed 826

128
Q

In continual care, how often do you monitor?

A

Every 15 minutes

129
Q

State a haemostatic agent used for stop a catastrophic bleed?

A
  • tourniquet
  • Celox
  • emergency bandage
130
Q

State the types of airway times?

A
  • immediate
  • delayed - minutes to hours after (burns/swelling)
  • insidious - slow deterioration is easily overlooked
131
Q

State the signs and symptoms of mild asthma?

A 
T- talking
R- raised resp rate 
A- and tachycardia above 110bpm
M- medical treatment
P -PEFR

Wheezing
Shortness of breathing

132
Q

State the severe signs and symptoms?

A 
C-can't complete sentences 
R- RR Below 25 
A - tachycardia 
W- wheezing
L - low PEFR
133
Q

State the life threatening signs and symptoms in asthma?

A 
S- silent chest
C- cyanosis 
R- restlessness / confusing 
U- unconscious 
B - bradycardia

Serve wheeze

134
Q

State what makes up the upper airway?

A 
Naso-pharynx
Oro-pharynx
Pharynx
Epiglottis
Larynx
Trachea
Lungs
Diaphragm
135
Q

State the parts of the lungs?

A

Pleura lining - lines the chest cavity and lungs

Bronchi - divides from the trachea into each lung

Bronchioles - smaller divisions of bronchi,

Avioli- gasses exchange

136
Q

State the procedure for breathing?

A

Look - Listen - Feel

Chest examination - RISE N FALL

137
Q

State the definition of respiratory arrest?

A

Cessation of breathing

Stoppage

138
Q

State the percentages of oxygen when using a BVM and O2 high flow?

A

More than 40 %

139
Q

State the percentages of oxygen when using a BVM and O2 high flow with a reservoir bag?

A

More than 90 %

140
Q

State the percentages of oxygen when using a BVM only?

A

21 %

141
Q

State the different types of chest injuries?

A 
Blast lung
Airway obstruction
Tension pneumothorax 
Open pneumothorax
Massive Haemothorax 
Flail segment
Cardiac Tamponade
142
Q

Name the chest seal used for open sucking wound?

A

Russell’s chest seal

143
Q

State the definition of needle decompression?

A

The insertion of a wide bore cannula into the inter-coastal space, mid clavicular line

144
Q

State the parts of the ear?

A 
Outer - the auricle 
            External acoustic meatus 
             Tympanic membrane
Middle- malleus 
           Incus
           Staples 
Inner - vestibules 
           Cochlea 
           Semicircular canals
145
Q

State the definition of endo tracheal intubation?

A

The induction of a tube, through the larynx into the tracheal to maintain a clear protected airway

146
Q

State the definition of intravenous cannulation?

A

The insertion of a cannula, into a vein to take blood or give fluids/drugs

147
Q

State the contraindications for intravenous infusion?

A

Isolate head injury with ICP

Renal trauma

Cardiac failure

148
Q

What can cause anaphylaxis?

A
  • blood transfusion
  • certain drugs
  • foods
  • insect bites/ stings
149
Q

What treatment is given to an opiate over dose?

A

Narcan 400mcg/ml

150
Q

State the definition of a fracture?

A

A chip, crack or break in the continuity of bone

151
Q

State the definition of a closed wound?

A

Blunt trauma to an area causing damage to underlying soft tissue, but not break in the skin

152
Q

State the types of fracture?

A

Closed/ simple fracture

Open/ compound fracture

Complicated fracture

Comminuted fracture

153
Q

What does PRICE stand for?

A 
P- pain relief 
R- rest 
I - ice
C- compression
E- elevation
154
Q

State the pressure points?

A

Subclavical - near clavicle

Brachial- upper arm

Femoral - groin

155
Q

State some potential complication when cannulating?

A

Haematoma / bruising
Perforation of veins
Cannulation of artery
Cannula sheer

156
Q

State the types of shock?

A

Hypovolaemic shock

Neurogenic shock

Cardiogenic shock

Septic shock

Anaphylactic shock

157
Q

State some signs and symptoms for shock?

A

Reduced blood pressure

Increased pulse / resp rate

Pale, cold and clammy skin

Poor urine output

Hypoxia

158
Q

State some signs and symptoms of smoke inhalation?

A

Burns/ soot around mouth or nose

Hoarse throat

Stained sputum

Swelling on face

Singed facial hair

159
Q

State the treatment of Hypovolaemic shock?

A

Control bleed

Fluid resuscitation

Give 250ml blouses of crystolloid fluid until feel a radial pulse

160
Q

What’s the medication given for cardiac arrest?

A

Adrenaline 1:10,000

161
Q

What is a Fmed 4?

A

Personal medical folder

162
Q

What is a Fmed 5?

A

Treatment and attendance card

163
Q

State the organs in a digestive system?

A 
Mouth
Pharynx 
Oesophagus
Stomach 
Duodenum 
Small intestines 
Large intestines 
Rectum and anus
164
Q

State the function of the liver?

A

Breakdown of stored fat

Production of heat

Storage of iron and vitamin

Secretion of bile

165
Q

State the main organs in the abdomen and pelvic cavity?

A 
Spleen
Kidneys
Ureters
Bladders
Urethra 
Ovaries 
Uterus
166
Q

State the functions of the pancreas?

A

Produce insulin

Production of pancreatic juice

167
Q

What is the peritoneum?

A

The membrane lining of the abdomen and covers Abdo organs

168
Q

State the definition of nasogastric intubation?

A

The passing of a nasogastric tube via a passage down the oesophagus into the stomach

169
Q

State some routine vaccinations?

A 
Hep A
Typhoid 
MMR 
DTP 
Tb
Yellow fever
170
Q

State some causes of unconscious causalities?

Fish chap

A 
Fainting
Infection
Severe haemorrhage 
Hypothermia/ Hyperthermia
Cardiac arrest 
Head injury 
A Diabetic coma 
Poisoning
171
Q

State the methods used to test neurological problems?

A

AVPU
PEARL
GCS

172
Q

When looking at the eyes, you see bilateral fixed & dilated pupils, what should you suspect?

A

Dead
Hypoxia
Hypovolaemic shock
Use of atropine or ecstasy

173
Q

When looking at the eyes, you see unilateral fixed & dilated pupils, what should you suspect?

A

Brain injury

Stroke

174
Q

When looking at the eyes, you see bilateral pinpointed pupils, what should you suspect?

A

Opiate overdose

175
Q

State the definition of epileptic fitting?

A

An episode relating to a seizure of brain electrical activity

176
Q

State the types of fitting?

A

Partial seizure

Generalised seizure

177
Q

What can cause fitting?

A

Mental illness

Battle shock

Hyperventilation

Hypothermia

178
Q

State the definition of poisoning?

A

Any drug that is taken in sufficient quantity can cause harm

179
Q

What shouldn’t you do if a casualty has been bitten by a snake?

A

feed
Walk around
Elevate limb
Wash limb

180
Q

State the definition for diabetes?

A

A lack of insulin available for carbon metabolism, which can lead to altered blood sugar levels

181
Q

State the definition of hypoglycaemia?

A

Abnormally low blood sugar level

182
Q

State the definition of hyperglycaemia?

A

Abnormally high blood sugar level

183
Q

State some signs and symptoms of hypoglycaemia?

A 
Sweating 
Tachycardia
Dizziness 
Weakness
Tremor
184
Q

State some signs and symptoms for hyperglycaemia?

A 
Excessive thirst 
Rapid, weak pulse
Confusion
Coma
Hypotension
185
Q

What are the two types of diabetes?

A

Hypoglycaemia

Hyperglycaemia

186
Q

Which type is insulin dependant?

A

Type 1- hypoglycaemia

Type 2 hyperglycaemia

187
Q

State the classification of a head injury?

A

Scalp wound

Skull fracture

Brain injury

188
Q

State the three types of brain injury?

A

Subdural Haematoma

Extradural Haematoma

Subcranoid Haematoma

189
Q

State the definition of inter cranial pressure?

A

A life threatening complication of the brain is raised ICP, due to the compression of the brain from continual haemorrhage

190
Q

What methods are used to give pain relief?

A

Physiological

Pharmaceutical

Physical

191
Q

As a CMT, what are the three types of drugs used?

A

Morphine sulphate

Entonox

Oral analgesia

192
Q

What is the indication to give morphine?

A

Moderate to severe pain

193
Q

What is the dose of morphine given?

A

10 mg/1 ml auto injector every 30 minutes

194
Q

Where can you give morphine using an auto injector?

A

Thigh 90’ degree IM

Buttock 90’ degree IM

Deltoid 45’ degree IM

195
Q

State the contra indication of morphine sulphate?

A

PU in AVPU
resp below 10
No radial pulse
Head injury

196
Q

What in Entonox made up of?

A

50% nitrous oxide

50% oxygen

197
Q

State the contra indications for the use of Entonox?

A 
Chest injury 
Head injury 
First 16 weeks of pregnancy 
In cold conditions - below 6' degrees 
Drug/alcohol intoxication 
Unconscious
198
Q

State three types of oral analgesia?

A

Paracetamol 1mg 4 -6 hourly (max 4gms)

Ibuprofen 400mg 4-6 hourly (max 2.4gms)

Aspirin 300-900mg 4 hourly (max 4gms)

199
Q

State two common contraindications of ibuprofen and aspirin?

A

Asthma

Peptic ulcers

200
Q

State the zones in the secondary survey?

A

Zone 1 - head and neck
Zone 2- chest
Zone 3- Abdo and pelvis
Zone 4 - all long limbs

201
Q

State the purpose of the secondary survey?

A

To identify all non life threatening injuries and treatment

202
Q

State the principle if continual care?

A 
Safe Environment
Communication 
Food and drink 
Toileting 
Wound dressing 
Control body temp 
Pressure area care 
Maintain dignity 
Care of the dying 
Person hygiene
203
Q

State the definition of universal precautions?

A

The use of PPE to prevent the spread of disease by avoiding the contact of infection and contagion

204
Q

State some PPE?

A 
Gloves
Caps
Mask
Eye protection
Aprons 
Overshoes
205
Q

State two shockable cardiac rhythms?

A

VF

PVT

206
Q

State two non shockable cardiac rhythms?

A

PEA

AYSTOLE

207
Q

There are 7 respiratory tact related signs of blister agent trauma, list 4?

A 
Slow onset
Severe resp distress
Rapid shallow breathing 
Runny nose
Pneumothorax
208
Q

What are the three categories of chemical agent?

A

Persistent
Semi persistent
Non persistent

209
Q

Late signs for nerve agent poisoning?

A

Headache
Dizziness
Excessive sweating

210
Q

State indications of bladder catheterisation?

A

Pre/ post surgery

Pelvic / Abdo trauma

211
Q

Contra indications of bladder catheterisation?

A

Severe pelvic trauma

Internal haemorrhage

212
Q

Equipment used for bladder catheterisation?

A 
Catheter 
Tape
10ml syringe 
Numbing lubricant 
Gloves 
Kidney bowl
213
Q

Complications associated with bladder catheterisation?

A

Damaged to urethra

UTI

214
Q

Indications for nasogastric intubation?

A

Pre/post surgery
Abdo surgery
Feeding

215
Q

Complication of nasogastric intubation?

A

Induce vomiting
Basal skull fracture
Sitting in trachea
Bending

216
Q

3 ways in which RTCs causing injury?

A

Car hits outer object

Body hits inside of car

Internal Organs hit body shell

217
Q

Causes of respiratory arrest?

A

Cardiac arrest
Airway obstruction
Trauma
Smoke inhalation

218
Q

state the stages in continual care?

A

Monitoring

reassess

document

care

219
Q

When conducting an internal bleed examination, what do you do??

A 
C- chest
R- rectinalperiteum 
A- abdomen
M- missing long bones
P- pelvis
220
Q

state the types of advances airway techniques?

A

Endotracheal tube

surgical cricothyroidotomy

221
Q

state the definition of a endotracheal tube?

A

the passing of a cuffed endotracheal tube, through the vocal cords and into the trachea.

222
Q

State some indications for the use of endotracheal tube?

A

deeply unconscious casualty

Pre- surgery

head injury

chest injury

cardiac arrest

223
Q

state the contraindication for the use of a endotracheal tube?

A

conscious casualty

trismus

difficult intubation - trauma, body shape

224
Q

state some equipment used in the insertion of a endotracheal tube?

A 
gloves
Laryngoscope
ET tube , 7, 8, 9 
10 ml syringe
o2
catheter mount
ribbon gauze
225
Q

state the potential complications when inserting a ET tube?

A

Hypoxia
damage to mouth or teeth
failed intubation
intubation of right lung only

226
Q

state the definition of a surgical cricothyroidotomy ?

A

the placement of a small cuffed tracheotomy tube, size 6 into the the trachea via an incision in the cricothyroid membrane

227
Q

state the indications of a cricothyroidotomy?

A

its the preferred method in the field

facial trauma / burns

total airway obstruction

228
Q

State some equipment used in the insertion of a cric?

A 
gloves
BVM
o2
ribbon gauze
scissors 
cuffed cricothyroidotomy tube kit
229
Q

state the post care for a cric?

A

monitor casualty
suction if needed
arrange chest physio
administer o2

230
Q

state the potential complication of a cric?

A

false passage
bleeding
laceration of trachea
laceration of oesophagus

231
Q

state the difficulties in performing a cric?

A

casualty moving

poop position

poor neck anatomy

232
Q

State the types of advanced breathing??

A

Needle thoracentesis

Tube thoracentesis

233
Q

state the definition for needle thoracentesis?

A

insertion of a wide bore cannula into the 2nd inter-coastal space, mid clavicular line to alleviate a life threatening tension pneumothorax

234
Q

state the equipment used in a needle thoracentesis?

A 
gloves 
wide bore cannula 12g /14g 
gauze
10 ml syringe 
sharps box
235
Q

state the two types of causes for pneumothorax?

A

Blunt trauma

penetrating trauma

236
Q

state the potential complications of a need thoracentesis??

A

Haematoma

infection

pneumothorax

237
Q

state the definition of a tube thoracentesis??

A

the insertion of a chest drain in through the 5th intercoastal space, slightly anterior to the axillary line, to remove air or blood on affected side

238
Q

state the indications for use of a tube thoracentesis?

A

pneumothorax

Haemothorax

239
Q

state some equipment needed for the insertion of a tube thoracentesis?

A 
gloves 
sharps box
syringe 5, 10, 20 
1 % lignocaine 
needle 
suture pack 
chest drain
240
Q

state some potenital complications of tube thoracentesis?

A 
damage to thoracic organs 
blockage
Haematoma 
kinks in chest tube 
infection
241
Q

what are the classifications of a chemical agent?

A

incapacitating

damaging

lethal

242
Q

normal breathing rates for adult, child and infant?

A

adult - 10- 20

child - 24

infant - 40- 60

243
Q

what are the 2 types of Haemothorax?

A

massive

simple

244
Q

what is the definition of anaphylactic shock??

A

an acute allergic reaction that can be life threatening

245
Q

what are the 4 main constitutes(parts) of blood?

A

Red cells

White cells

plasma

platelets

246
Q

what are the three types of defib?

A

manual

semi - automatic

automated

247
Q

what casualty category can NOT have high volumes of O2??

A

COPD

248
Q

state the signs and symptoms of a skull fracture ?

A

bruising to back of ears
bruising to eyes
suspected head trauma

249
Q

state the types of fluids used?

A

crystoloid - hartmans

colloid- gellifusion

250
Q

s&s of eye contamination from blister agent?

A

slow onset
conjuntivitis
burning pain
runny eyes

251
Q

state the skin contamination s&s of a blister agent?

A

slow onset
localised redness
blistering tissue damage

CMT 1 Course (4 decks)

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