General Med Flashcards
0
Q
Who is the guidance for The Medicines Act 1968?
A
BMA - British Medical Association
GMC - General Medical Council
Department of Health
1
Q
What does PSD stand for?
A
Patient Specific Direction
2
Q
Definition of Patient Specific Directions (PSD)?
A
A written instruction from a Doctor or Dentist, for a medicine to be supplied or administered to a named patient.
3
Q
Who can authorise a PSD?
A
- Dentist
- Doctor
- Independent Practitioner
4
Q
Who can supply / administer a medicine on a PSD?
A
No legal restriction
5
Q
State the Process of using a PSD?
A
- Identify the Medicine/patient
- Complete PSD form
- Practitioner to conduct Clinical checks and sign
- Practitioner are to brief Medical Staff and suitably trained
- Practitioner ensure patients are briefed
- ## Patients are called forward
6
Q
State the forms used to demand stock?
A
P2P
Fmed 573
Medicines for deployed troops - Unit QM Department
7
Q
State the prescribers responsibility?
A
- Complete clinical checks
- Sign & authorises PSD
- Ensure Healthcare Practitioner (HCP)are suitably trained/competent
- Brief HCP on process
- Audits
8
Q
What are the Healthcare Practioner Responsibilities?
A
- Carry out correct procedures
- Comply with instruction
- Refer any personal to prescriber
9
Q
State the Practise manager Responsibilities?
A
- All working in scope practise
- Records are updated
- All records are kept for limited period
10
Q
What is manual handling ?
A
Anything that includes the application of bodily force to move an object
11
Q
Why do we bother with Manual Handling?
A
- Provide safer working situations
- Reduce cost
- Decrease back pain / Musculo-Skeletal Disorder
- The law
12
Q
State the parts of the spine and number of vertebrae?
A
Cervical Cavity - 7 Thoracic Cavity - 12 Lumbar Cavity - 5 Sacrum - 5 Coccyx - 4
13
Q
State the principles of safe manual handling?
A
- Avoid
- Assess
- Plan
- Prepare
- Perform
14
Q
What does TILE Mean??
A
T- Task (whats task is involved?)
I- Individual (person/ people doing the movement?)
L- Load (person/ object being moved?)
E- Environment (including equipment)
15
Q
In emergency child birth, how do you take a quick history?
A
- Duration
- Age
- Number of previous children
- Previous complications
- Any illnesses through pregnancy
16
Q
How many stages in Child Birth?
A
Three
17
Q
Describe the first stage of labour?
A
From the onset of regular and painful contractions to full dilation of the cervix
18
Q
Describe the second stage of labour?
A
From full dilation of the cervix to complete delivery of the baby
19
Q
Describe the third stage of labour?
A
From delivering the baby to the complete removal of the placenta and membranes
20
Q
What are the treatment aims when looking after the mother, once the baby is born?
A
- Prevent Infection
- Prevent further trauma
- Pain relief
21
Q
What are the treatment aims when looking after the baby, once the baby is born?
A
- Maintain body heat
- Resuscitate
- Prevent trauma
22
Q
State the definition of a CBRN Chemical Agent?
A
A Chemical substance which is used on Military operations to Kill, seriously injure or incapacitate man through physiological effects
23
Q
State the routes of entry for a Chemical Agent?
A
- Inhalation
- Ingestion
- Absorbtion
24
State the three categories in Chemical Agents?
- Persistent
- Semi- persistent
- Non-persistent
25
State the means of delivery for a chemical agent?
- Air delivery
- Bursting Munitions
- Contamination
26
State the definition for a Blister Agent?
A liquid that damages cell DNA, resulting in death to exposure of tissue
27
What are the signs and symptoms of Blister Agents?
- Eye contamination
- Skin contamination
- Respiratory tract contamination
28
State the definition of a Choking Agent?
Called a Pulmonary Agent cuz it damages the cell membranes in the respiratory tract
29
Give two examples of Choking Agents?
- Chlorine
| - Phosgene
30
State the definition of a Blood Agent?
A non - persistent agent, that is inhaled and prevents the uptake of oxygen at cellular level
31
State the definition of a Nerve Agent?
Potentially lethal agent which interferes with transmission of nerve impulses, to prevent breathing and muscle co-ordination
32
What are the early signs and symptoms for in a Nerve Agent?
D- Dimness of vision
R- Runny nose
P- Pinpoint pupils
T- Tightness of chest
33
What are the late signs and symptoms for in a Nerve Agent?
H- Headache
I- Increased Saliva & dry mouth
D- Dizziness & generally weak
E- Excessive sweating
34
What are the danger signs and symptoms for in a Nerve Agent?
N- Nausea
I- Involuntary deification / urination
M- Muscle spasm & twitching
S- Stoppage of breathing
35
What does NAPS stand for in CBRN?
Nerve Agent Pre-treatment Set
36
In CBRN, how many NAPS tablets in a packet and what is the dose?
21 Tablets
1 Tab every 8 hrs
37
In CBRN, how many compo pens can a medic give??
1 every 2 mins,
max of 3 combo pens
38
State the signs and symptoms of an Atropine overdose?
H- Hot, dry skin
A- A dry mouth
R- Rapid pulse
E- Enlarged pupils
39
State the definition of a Biological Agent?
A micro-organism that causes diseases in man, plants or animals
40
State the types of Biological agents?
- Live Agent
| - Toxin
41
State the key things to consider when sitting a decontamination area in an event of a CBRN attack?
```
S- site, safety, space, security
A- access, availability
D-dispersion, drainage
C-command & comms, camouflage & cover
H- hard standing, HLS, health hazards
A- accommodation, alternative site
P- protection, publicity, prevailing wind
S- stores & supply
```
42
In CBRN, What are the possible agents?
```
Biological Agents
Blood Agents
Blister Agents
Chemical Agents
Choking Agents
Nerve Agents
```
43
State the three types of consent?
- Competency
- Information
- Voluntariness
44
What are the two ways that consent can be given?
- Implied
| - Explicit
45
When should you wash you hands?
- before and after contact with a patient
- before and after handling food
- on arrive to a scene
- after leaving a scene
- after contact with bodily fluids
- after removing gloves
- after going to the toilet
- when hands are visibly dirty
46
Decontamination of equipment is a combination of what three things?
- cleaning
- disinfection
- sterilisation
47
What to do after getting a needle stick injury?
- immediately stop what you are doing
- encourage bleeding
- wash under running water
- report immediately
48
What does ODP stand for?
Operations During Peace time
49
What does OOTW stand for?
Operations Other Than War
50
State the Hazard Spectrum?
- Trauma / burns
- Medical and toxicological
- Environment
51
State the civilian approach to incident management?
Bronze - Operational command (immediate area/ inner cordon)
Silver - Tactical command (entire area / outer cordon )
Gold - Strategic command (Highest command level/ away from scene)
52
What does ATMIST stand for and what is it?
Medical handover
```
A- Age
T- Time of incident
M- Mechanism of injury
I-Injuries sustained
S- Signs - Vital
T- Treatment given/timings of treatment
```
53
What are the zones in the secondary survey?
- Head and Neck
- Chest
- Abdo & Pelvis
- Limbs
54
What does AVPU stand for?
A- Alert
V- Voice
P- Pain
U- Unresponsive
55
What does METHANE stand for and what is it used for?
Evaculation/ Equipment Request
```
M- My call sign
E- Exact location
T- Type of incident
H- Hazards
A- Access
N- Number / nature of casualties
E- Emergency services
```
56
In scene management what does CSCATTT mean?
```
C- Command and control
S -Safety
C- Communication
A- Assessment
T- Triage
T- Treatment
T- Transport
```
57
When conducting a scene assessment what do you do?
Safe Approach
S- Shout, sen, signal for help
A- Assess for danger
F- Find and free the casualty
E- Evaluate
58
How long should Celox be held in place?
3 - 5 mins
59
What happens to the pupils after taking an atropine overdose?
The pupils enlarge
60
What does dys mean?
Difficulty
61
state the contra indications for an abdominal thrust??
- Children
- Pregnant women
- Obese people
62
How many cervical vertebrae are there?
7
63
What are the contra indications for a OPA?
- Conscious
- Jaw lock
- Facial Trauma
64
What are the Oxygen cylinder sizes?
D - 340ltrs
E- 680ltrs
F- 1360ltrs
65
What is Anaphylaxis?
An acute allergic reaction
66
What medication would you give someone who is anaphylactic?
Adrenaline 1;1000 IM
67
What are the three stages of Asthma?
- Mild
- Severe
- Life Threatening
68
What is the drug given to asthmatics?
Salbutamol inhaler
Nebuliser
69
What are the possible chest injuries?
```
Flail Segment
Open Pneumothorax
Tension Pneumothorax
Spontaneous Pneumothorax
Haemothorax
```
70
What does TWELVE LAPP stand for?
```
Trachea
Wounds
Emphysema
Larynx
Veins
Expose
```
Look
Auscaltate
Percuss
Palpate
71
What are the five types of drowning?
```
Near
Dry
Fresh
Salt water
Secondary
```
72
What are the layers of the heart?
Pericardium - Outer
Myocardium - middle
Endocardium - inner
73
What is the chain of survival in cardiac arrest??
Early recognition
Early CPR
Early Defib
Post Resus care
74
What is the definition of Triage?
The sorting of casualties in priority of treatment and evacuation
75
What are the categories of priority in triage?
```
T1 - Immediate life saving treatment needed
T2 - Urgent treated needed
T3 - Delayed treatment / walking wounded
T4 - Expectant treatment
DEAD
```
76
What are the timings for death??
Instantaneous- 0-10mins
Early- up to 2 hours
Late - can be days after
77
What is the definition for mechanism of injury??
Having an understanding on different mechanisms can predict possible injuries caused.
78
State the definition of the hazard spectrum?
Something that has potential to cause harm
79
What does MIMMS stand for?
Major Incident Major Management Support
80
State the three types of SHOCK?
- Neurogenic
- Cardiogenic
- Hypovolaemic
- Anaphylactic
81
What are the skin layers?
Dermis
Epidermis
82
State the three categories of burns?
Superficial
Partial Thickness
Full Thickness
83
```
Using the Wallace Rules of Nines, state the percentages for;
Head and neck?
Chest and abdo?
Back?
Arms and hands?
Whole leg and foot?
Gential Region?
```
```
Head and neck 9%
Chest and abdo 18%
Back 18%
Arms and hands 9%
Whole leg and foot 18%
Gential Region 1%
```
84
In CBRN what medication is in a compo pen?
Atropine
Diazepam
Pralidoxime
85
In each stage of shock, what are the percentage of blood loss?
Stage 1: 0-15%
Stage 2: 15- 30%
Stage 3: 30 - 40 %
Stage 4: Above 40%
86
What does CUF stand for?
Care Under Fire
87
What does TFC stand for?
Tactical Field Care
88
What is the aims in CUF?
```
Win the fire fight
Patient self aid
Extract to cover
Apply Tourniquets
Position for airway support
```
89
State the treatment given in CUF?
Apply tourniquet/control bleed
| Maintain airway - postural drainage
90
Once in a semi permissive area, what treatment acronym would you use?
Tactical Rapid and Primary Survey
91
What does RIBS mean??
R- Rate
I- Injuries
B- Back
S- Sides
92
state the normal pulse rates for femoral, radial, carotid?
Radial - 80-90 mmHg
Femoral- 70-80 mmHg
Carotid - 60-80mmHg
93
What does PEARL stand for?
Pupils Equal And Reactive to Light
94
What does AVPU stand for and what does it test?
Alert
Voice
Pain
Unresponsive
Brain function
95
State the different types of cuts?
- Laceration
- Puncture
- Contusion
- Gun shot
- Incision
- Abrasion
96
State two types of bleeding?
- Internal
| - External
97
How many spinal nerves are there?
31
98
How many cranial nerves are there?
12
99
The nervous system is split into two, what are they?
- Central
| - Peripheral
100
State what the Central nervous system consists of?
- Brain
| - Spinal cord
101
State what the Peripheral nervous system consists of?
- 31 pairs spinal nerves
- 12 cranial nerves
- Autonomic nervous system
102
State the three ares of the brain?
- Cerebrum - top part - controls higher intelligence/ skeleton muscle control
- Cerebellum - baby brain at the back- muscle tone, coordination and balance
- Brain stem
103
State what the brain stem consists of?
- The mid brain - relay station
- The pons varolli - Forms a bridge between both hemispheres
- Medulla Oblongata - Is the cross over point/ reflex centre for vomiting , coughing, sneezing
104
State the layers of the brain?
- Dura Mater - Outer Layer
- Arachnoid Mater - Middle layer
- Pia Mater - Inner Layer
105
State the spinal nerves for each section of the spinal?
```
Cervical - 8
Thoracic - 12
Lumber - 5
Sacral - 5
coccygeal - 1
```
106
How would you carry out a neurological assessment?
AVPU
Glasgow coma score
107
state the contra indication for a poisoning?
DO NOT induce vomiting
108
What is Hyper/Hypoglycaemia?
High/ Low blood sugars
109
When testing blood sugars what levels should you aim for?
BM - 3- 10
110
At what body temperature does heat stroke happen?
41 degrees
111
At what body temperature does heat exhaustion happen?
39 - 40
112
At what body temperature does hypothermia happen?
below 35 degrees
113
State two types of poisoning?
- Corrosive
| - Non - corrosive
114
State the functions of the skin?
```
Protection
Regulates body temperature
Sensation
Absorption
Excretion
```
115
How long would you put a burn in running water?
10 minutes
116
What is the percentages of the babies body?
```
Head - 18%
Front/Back - 18%
Arms- 9%
Legs - 14%
Genitals - 1%
```
117
State the signs and symptoms for smoke inhalation?
Hoarse throat
Visual burns
Singed nasal/facial hair
Swelling around mouth/nose
118
How many bones make up the skeleton?
200
119
State the functions of the skeleton?
```
Protection
Support
Movement
Mineral storage
Energy storage
```
120
How many ribs does a human have?
12 pairs
121
State the three classifications of a joint?
- Fixed
- Slightly movable
- Freely movable
122
Name the different types of joints?
- Ball & sockets
- Hinge Joints
- Gliding Joints
- Pivot Joints
123
What does PRICE stand for in musculoskeletal injury?
```
Protect
Rest
Ice
Compression
Elevation
```
124
State the types of pain relief?
Reassurance
Pharmaceuticals
Physiological
125
When should you NOT give morphine?
- P/U in AVPU
- Breathing under 10
- Hypotension - no radial pulse
- Head injuries
126
What is in Entonox?
50% of Nitrous Oxide
50% of Oxygen
127
Which Fmed is used for a Field Medical Card?
Fmed 826
128
In continual care, how often do you monitor?
Every 15 minutes
129
State a haemostatic agent used for stop a catastrophic bleed?
- tourniquet
- Celox
- emergency bandage
130
State the types of airway times?
- immediate
- delayed - minutes to hours after (burns/swelling)
- insidious - slow deterioration is easily overlooked
131
State the signs and symptoms of mild asthma?
```
T- talking
R- raised resp rate
A- and tachycardia above 110bpm
M- medical treatment
P -PEFR
```
Wheezing
Shortness of breathing
132
State the severe signs and symptoms?
```
C-can't complete sentences
R- RR Below 25
A - tachycardia
W- wheezing
L - low PEFR
```
133
State the life threatening signs and symptoms in asthma?
```
S- silent chest
C- cyanosis
R- restlessness / confusing
U- unconscious
B - bradycardia
```
Serve wheeze
134
State what makes up the upper airway?
```
Naso-pharynx
Oro-pharynx
Pharynx
Epiglottis
Larynx
Trachea
Lungs
Diaphragm
```
135
State the parts of the lungs?
Pleura lining - lines the chest cavity and lungs
Bronchi - divides from the trachea into each lung
Bronchioles - smaller divisions of bronchi,
Avioli- gasses exchange
136
State the procedure for breathing?
Look - Listen - Feel
Chest examination - RISE N FALL
137
State the definition of respiratory arrest?
Cessation of breathing
| Stoppage
138
State the percentages of oxygen when using a BVM and O2 high flow?
More than 40 %
139
State the percentages of oxygen when using a BVM and O2 high flow with a reservoir bag?
More than 90 %
140
State the percentages of oxygen when using a BVM only?
21 %
141
State the different types of chest injuries?
```
Blast lung
Airway obstruction
Tension pneumothorax
Open pneumothorax
Massive Haemothorax
Flail segment
Cardiac Tamponade
```
142
Name the chest seal used for open sucking wound?
Russell's chest seal
143
State the definition of needle decompression?
The insertion of a wide bore cannula into the inter-coastal space, mid clavicular line
144
State the parts of the ear?
```
Outer - the auricle
External acoustic meatus
Tympanic membrane
Middle- malleus
Incus
Staples
Inner - vestibules
Cochlea
Semicircular canals
```
145
State the definition of endo tracheal intubation?
The induction of a tube, through the larynx into the tracheal to maintain a clear protected airway
146
State the definition of intravenous cannulation?
The insertion of a cannula, into a vein to take blood or give fluids/drugs
147
State the contraindications for intravenous infusion?
Isolate head injury with ICP
Renal trauma
Cardiac failure
148
What can cause anaphylaxis?
- blood transfusion
- certain drugs
- foods
- insect bites/ stings
149
What treatment is given to an opiate over dose?
Narcan 400mcg/ml
150
State the definition of a fracture?
A chip, crack or break in the continuity of bone
151
State the definition of a closed wound?
Blunt trauma to an area causing damage to underlying soft tissue, but not break in the skin
152
State the types of fracture?
Closed/ simple fracture
Open/ compound fracture
Complicated fracture
Comminuted fracture
153
What does PRICE stand for?
```
P- pain relief
R- rest
I - ice
C- compression
E- elevation
```
154
State the pressure points?
Subclavical - near clavicle
Brachial- upper arm
Femoral - groin
155
State some potential complication when cannulating?
Haematoma / bruising
Perforation of veins
Cannulation of artery
Cannula sheer
156
State the types of shock?
Hypovolaemic shock
Neurogenic shock
Cardiogenic shock
Septic shock
Anaphylactic shock
157
State some signs and symptoms for shock?
Reduced blood pressure
Increased pulse / resp rate
Pale, cold and clammy skin
Poor urine output
Hypoxia
158
State some signs and symptoms of smoke inhalation?
Burns/ soot around mouth or nose
Hoarse throat
Stained sputum
Swelling on face
Singed facial hair
159
State the treatment of Hypovolaemic shock?
Control bleed
Fluid resuscitation
Give 250ml blouses of crystolloid fluid until feel a radial pulse
160
What's the medication given for cardiac arrest?
Adrenaline 1:10,000
161
What is a Fmed 4?
Personal medical folder
162
What is a Fmed 5?
Treatment and attendance card
163
State the organs in a digestive system?
```
Mouth
Pharynx
Oesophagus
Stomach
Duodenum
Small intestines
Large intestines
Rectum and anus
```
164
State the function of the liver?
Breakdown of stored fat
Production of heat
Storage of iron and vitamin
Secretion of bile
165
State the main organs in the abdomen and pelvic cavity?
```
Spleen
Kidneys
Ureters
Bladders
Urethra
Ovaries
Uterus
```
166
State the functions of the pancreas?
Produce insulin
Production of pancreatic juice
167
What is the peritoneum?
The membrane lining of the abdomen and covers Abdo organs
168
State the definition of nasogastric intubation?
The passing of a nasogastric tube via a passage down the oesophagus into the stomach
169
State some routine vaccinations?
```
Hep A
Typhoid
MMR
DTP
Tb
Yellow fever
```
170
State some causes of unconscious causalities?
| Fish chap
```
Fainting
Infection
Severe haemorrhage
Hypothermia/ Hyperthermia
Cardiac arrest
Head injury
A Diabetic coma
Poisoning
```
171
State the methods used to test neurological problems?
AVPU
PEARL
GCS
172
When looking at the eyes, you see bilateral fixed & dilated pupils, what should you suspect?
Dead
Hypoxia
Hypovolaemic shock
Use of atropine or ecstasy
173
When looking at the eyes, you see unilateral fixed & dilated pupils, what should you suspect?
Brain injury
Stroke
174
When looking at the eyes, you see bilateral pinpointed pupils, what should you suspect?
Opiate overdose
175
State the definition of epileptic fitting?
An episode relating to a seizure of brain electrical activity
176
State the types of fitting?
Partial seizure
Generalised seizure
177
What can cause fitting?
Mental illness
Battle shock
Hyperventilation
Hypothermia
178
State the definition of poisoning?
Any drug that is taken in sufficient quantity can cause harm
179
What shouldn't you do if a casualty has been bitten by a snake?
feed
Walk around
Elevate limb
Wash limb
180
State the definition for diabetes?
A lack of insulin available for carbon metabolism, which can lead to altered blood sugar levels
181
State the definition of hypoglycaemia?
Abnormally low blood sugar level
182
State the definition of hyperglycaemia?
Abnormally high blood sugar level
183
State some signs and symptoms of hypoglycaemia?
```
Sweating
Tachycardia
Dizziness
Weakness
Tremor
```
184
State some signs and symptoms for hyperglycaemia?
```
Excessive thirst
Rapid, weak pulse
Confusion
Coma
Hypotension
```
185
What are the two types of diabetes?
Hypoglycaemia
Hyperglycaemia
186
Which type is insulin dependant?
Type 1- hypoglycaemia
| Type 2 hyperglycaemia
187
State the classification of a head injury?
Scalp wound
Skull fracture
Brain injury
188
State the three types of brain injury?
Subdural Haematoma
Extradural Haematoma
Subcranoid Haematoma
189
State the definition of inter cranial pressure?
A life threatening complication of the brain is raised ICP, due to the compression of the brain from continual haemorrhage
190
What methods are used to give pain relief?
Physiological
Pharmaceutical
Physical
191
As a CMT, what are the three types of drugs used?
Morphine sulphate
Entonox
Oral analgesia
192
What is the indication to give morphine?
Moderate to severe pain
193
What is the dose of morphine given?
10 mg/1 ml auto injector every 30 minutes
194
Where can you give morphine using an auto injector?
Thigh 90' degree IM
Buttock 90' degree IM
Deltoid 45' degree IM
195
State the contra indication of morphine sulphate?
PU in AVPU
resp below 10
No radial pulse
Head injury
196
What in Entonox made up of?
50% nitrous oxide
50% oxygen
197
State the contra indications for the use of Entonox?
```
Chest injury
Head injury
First 16 weeks of pregnancy
In cold conditions - below 6' degrees
Drug/alcohol intoxication
Unconscious
```
198
State three types of oral analgesia?
Paracetamol 1mg 4 -6 hourly (max 4gms)
Ibuprofen 400mg 4-6 hourly (max 2.4gms)
Aspirin 300-900mg 4 hourly (max 4gms)
199
State two common contraindications of ibuprofen and aspirin?
Asthma
Peptic ulcers
200
State the zones in the secondary survey?
Zone 1 - head and neck
Zone 2- chest
Zone 3- Abdo and pelvis
Zone 4 - all long limbs
201
State the purpose of the secondary survey?
To identify all non life threatening injuries and treatment
202
State the principle if continual care?
```
Safe Environment
Communication
Food and drink
Toileting
Wound dressing
Control body temp
Pressure area care
Maintain dignity
Care of the dying
Person hygiene
```
203
State the definition of universal precautions?
The use of PPE to prevent the spread of disease by avoiding the contact of infection and contagion
204
State some PPE?
```
Gloves
Caps
Mask
Eye protection
Aprons
Overshoes
```
205
State two shockable cardiac rhythms?
VF
| PVT
206
State two non shockable cardiac rhythms?
PEA
AYSTOLE
207
There are 7 respiratory tact related signs of blister agent trauma, list 4?
```
Slow onset
Severe resp distress
Rapid shallow breathing
Runny nose
Pneumothorax
```
208
What are the three categories of chemical agent?
Persistent
Semi persistent
Non persistent
209
Late signs for nerve agent poisoning?
Headache
Dizziness
Excessive sweating
210
State indications of bladder catheterisation?
Pre/ post surgery
| Pelvic / Abdo trauma
211
Contra indications of bladder catheterisation?
Severe pelvic trauma
Internal haemorrhage
212
Equipment used for bladder catheterisation?
```
Catheter
Tape
10ml syringe
Numbing lubricant
Gloves
Kidney bowl
```
213
Complications associated with bladder catheterisation?
Damaged to urethra
UTI
214
Indications for nasogastric intubation?
Pre/post surgery
Abdo surgery
Feeding
215
Complication of nasogastric intubation?
Induce vomiting
Basal skull fracture
Sitting in trachea
Bending
216
3 ways in which RTCs causing injury?
Car hits outer object
Body hits inside of car
Internal Organs hit body shell
217
Causes of respiratory arrest?
Cardiac arrest
Airway obstruction
Trauma
Smoke inhalation
218
state the stages in continual care?
Monitoring
reassess
document
care
219
When conducting an internal bleed examination, what do you do??
```
C- chest
R- rectinalperiteum
A- abdomen
M- missing long bones
P- pelvis
```
220
state the types of advances airway techniques?
Endotracheal tube
surgical cricothyroidotomy
221
state the definition of a endotracheal tube?
the passing of a cuffed endotracheal tube, through the vocal cords and into the trachea.
222
State some indications for the use of endotracheal tube?
deeply unconscious casualty
Pre- surgery
head injury
chest injury
cardiac arrest
223
state the contraindication for the use of a endotracheal tube?
conscious casualty
trismus
difficult intubation - trauma, body shape
224
state some equipment used in the insertion of a endotracheal tube?
```
gloves
Laryngoscope
ET tube , 7, 8, 9
10 ml syringe
o2
catheter mount
ribbon gauze
```
225
state the potential complications when inserting a ET tube?
Hypoxia
damage to mouth or teeth
failed intubation
intubation of right lung only
226
state the definition of a surgical cricothyroidotomy ?
the placement of a small cuffed tracheotomy tube, size 6 into the the trachea via an incision in the cricothyroid membrane
227
state the indications of a cricothyroidotomy?
its the preferred method in the field
facial trauma / burns
total airway obstruction
228
State some equipment used in the insertion of a cric?
```
gloves
BVM
o2
ribbon gauze
scissors
cuffed cricothyroidotomy tube kit
```
229
state the post care for a cric?
monitor casualty
suction if needed
arrange chest physio
administer o2
230
state the potential complication of a cric?
false passage
bleeding
laceration of trachea
laceration of oesophagus
231
state the difficulties in performing a cric?
casualty moving
poop position
poor neck anatomy
232
State the types of advanced breathing??
Needle thoracentesis
Tube thoracentesis
233
state the definition for needle thoracentesis?
insertion of a wide bore cannula into the 2nd inter-coastal space, mid clavicular line to alleviate a life threatening tension pneumothorax
234
state the equipment used in a needle thoracentesis?
```
gloves
wide bore cannula 12g /14g
gauze
10 ml syringe
sharps box
```
235
state the two types of causes for pneumothorax?
Blunt trauma
penetrating trauma
236
state the potential complications of a need thoracentesis??
Haematoma
infection
pneumothorax
237
state the definition of a tube thoracentesis??
the insertion of a chest drain in through the 5th intercoastal space, slightly anterior to the axillary line, to remove air or blood on affected side
238
state the indications for use of a tube thoracentesis?
pneumothorax
Haemothorax
239
state some equipment needed for the insertion of a tube thoracentesis?
```
gloves
sharps box
syringe 5, 10, 20
1 % lignocaine
needle
suture pack
chest drain
```
240
state some potenital complications of tube thoracentesis?
```
damage to thoracic organs
blockage
Haematoma
kinks in chest tube
infection
```
241
what are the classifications of a chemical agent?
incapacitating
damaging
lethal
242
normal breathing rates for adult, child and infant?
adult - 10- 20
child - 24
infant - 40- 60
243
what are the 2 types of Haemothorax?
massive
simple
244
what is the definition of anaphylactic shock??
an acute allergic reaction that can be life threatening
245
what are the 4 main constitutes(parts) of blood?
Red cells
White cells
plasma
platelets
246
what are the three types of defib?
manual
semi - automatic
automated
247
what casualty category can NOT have high volumes of O2??
COPD
248
state the signs and symptoms of a skull fracture ?
bruising to back of ears
bruising to eyes
suspected head trauma
249
state the types of fluids used?
crystoloid - hartmans
colloid- gellifusion
250
s&s of eye contamination from blister agent?
slow onset
conjuntivitis
burning pain
runny eyes
251
state the skin contamination s&s of a blister agent?
slow onset
localised redness
blistering tissue damage
