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CMT 1 Course > Enviroment Health > Flashcards

Enviroment Health Flashcards

0
Q

Identify the population at risk?

A

-Own Troop
-Friendly Forces
-Locally Employed Civilians LEC
-Civilian Population
Prisoners Of War - POW

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1
Q

Who is responsible for health within the unit??

A

The Commanding Officer

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2
Q

What are the roles of CHA - Combat Health Adviser??

A
  • Identifying the hazards (in the area of responsibility )
  • threat assessment/hazard recognition
  • health protection measures
  • Advise the CoC (on the measures necessary to manage/mitigate NSK)
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3
Q

What are the main roles and functions of EH?

WOOFEC

A

W-water quality, monitoring and analysis
O-Operational Field sanitation and waste disposal
O-Occupational health and safety
F- Food hygiene and safety
V-vector control
E- Environmental monitoring and EIH
C- Communicable disease prevention and control

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4
Q

What are the roles and responsibilities of CMT?

A

Policy and Procedure -
Water, Food, Climate, Equipment, Vaccination

Advice and Training -
Health briefs, Information, Instruction to CoC, line manager and patients

Monitoring and Investigation -
Heat Stress Index, Fmed 85, EpiNato, Disease outbreak control, Implement force protection measure

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5
Q

What is the definition of a DNBI?

A

A person who is not a battle casualty, but who is lost to the organisation by reason of disease or injury.

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6
Q

What does DNBI stand for?

A

Disease Non Battle Injury

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7
Q

State 3 categories of Medical Protection Hazards?

A
  • Chemical Hazards
  • Physical Hazards
  • Biological Hazards
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8
Q

State two categories of DNBI threat?

A
  • Internal

- External

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9
Q

What is the external threat when dealing with DNBI?

A
  • Climate
  • Disease
  • Flora & Fauna
  • EIH (Environment Industrial Hazards)
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10
Q

State the definition of Health Risk Management?

A

The application of Prevention and Control to reduce risk

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11
Q

State the 5 sources of disease??

A
  • Case
  • Contact
  • Corpse
  • Carrier
  • Convalescent
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12
Q

What is the Chain of Infection?

A

Source

to

Route

to

Target

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13
Q

Define what health is?

A

A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of a disease

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14
Q

Define what Disease is?

A

Any state that is departure from positive health whether that is departure of physical health

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15
Q

Why can disease be a major impact to the forces?

A
  • Manpower wastage
  • Unit mission failure
  • wastes limited unit resources
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16
Q

How are communicable disease caused?

A
  • Virus
  • Bactria
  • Parasites
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17
Q

What are the Force Protection & Joint Op principles?

A
  • Measure assessment of the threat
  • Joint and Multinational Concept
  • Prioritisation
  • Flexibility
  • Risk Management
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18
Q

What are the 5 steps of Risk Management?

A 
step 1 - identify the hazard
step 2 - identify the population at risk
step 3 - risk assessment
step 4 - risk management
step 5 - monitoring activity
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19
Q

In step 5 of risk management, what do you monitor?

A
  • threat and hazards
  • implement & effectiveness of control measures
  • general control
  • information, training and policy
  • medical countermeasures and treatment
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20
Q

How do you monitor and record risk assessments?

A
  • Lab Report
  • Fmed 85
  • Specific Monitoring
  • Local med Int
  • EHT Audit
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21
Q

Who is the 1st line EH support??

A

CMT - Combat Medical Technician
CHD - Combat Health Duties
CHA - Combat Health Adviser

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22
Q

Who is 2nd in line EH support?

A

Uk Med Group EH Team

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23
Q

Who is 3rd in line EH support?

A

Environment Health Team

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24
Q

Who is the 4th line EH support?

A

AMD - Army Medical Directive
RAF CAM - Centre of aviation medicine
INM - Institute of naval medicine
DMS(w) - DMS Whittiongton

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25
Q

State the responsibility of the CHD?

A
  • Sanitation Measure
  • Safety control of disease, vector and pests
  • Water supply
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26
Q

State two constraints of CHD personnel?

A
  • Lack of space
  • Proximity to sleep / eating area
  • Logistics
  • High tempo of activity
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27
Q

State three benefits of CHD personnel?

A
  • Self-sufficient
  • Proactive pest control
  • improve sanitation
  • Water safety
  • Lower DNBI
  • Maintain operational effectiveness
  • Intelligent tasking of EH Team
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28
Q

Name the potential routes of disease?

A
  • Ingestion
  • Airborne
  • Vector
  • Contact
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29
Q

State how to control the source for ingestion disease?

A
  • Notification/Investigation
  • Treatment of cases
  • Isolation
  • Disinfection of patients discharges, bedding etc
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30
Q

State how to you control the route in Ingestion diseases?

A
  • Treatment protection of water
  • Good waste disposal
  • Good food preparation
  • Cleanliness of premises
  • Good personal Hygiene
  • Medical screening of catering staff
  • Insect, rodent control
  • Camp sitting
  • Field sanitation / hygiene
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31
Q

State how to control the target of ingestion disease?

A
  • Health Education
  • vaccinations
  • Prevention of exposure
  • Person hygiene
  • Approved source
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32
Q

Name 5 Ingestion Related Diseases?

A 
(WILDCATS)
Worms-
Infective Hepatitis-
Leptospirosis
Dysentery
Cholera-
Amoebic Dysentery
Typhoid-
Schistosomiasis
Gastroenteritis
Polio-
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33
Q

Name two routes of transmission in Airborne Disease?

A
  • Sneezing
  • Coughing
  • Talking
  • Laughing
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34
Q

State five examples of Airborne disease?

A 
Influenza
Common Cold
TB
Small Pox
Chicken Pox
MMR
Scarlet Fever
Diphtheria
Pertussis
Anthrax
Legionella
Meningitis
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35
Q

State how to control the source of Airborne Disease?

A
  • Treat infected person
  • isolated infection person
  • Protect medical staff
  • Dispose of corpes/caresses
  • Screen carrier / cases
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36
Q

State how to control the route of Airborne Disease?

A
  • Damp Dusting
  • Barriers (face make, tissues)
  • Concurrent disinfection
  • Avoid overcrowding
  • Bed spacing
  • Personal and communal hygiene
  • Adequate lighting, heating, ventilation
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37
Q

State how to control the target of Airborne Disease?

A
  • Personal Hygiene
  • Health Education
  • Vaccination
  • Avoidance of infected person/ place
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38
Q

What are the two ways of transmission for Arthropod Borne Diseases?

A 
Biological Transmission (inside the body)
Mechanical Transmission (outside the body)
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39
Q

State four examples of Vector Disease?

A 
Malaria
Yellow Fever
Plague
Leishmaniasis
Epidemic Typhus
Murine Typhus
Scrub Typhus
Tryponosomiasis
Encephalitis
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40
Q

State how to control the source of Arthropod Disease?

A
  • Disinfection
  • Medical Treatment
  • Isolate
  • Health and Education
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41
Q

State how to control the route of Vector Diseases?

A
  • Physical Control
  • Chemical Control
  • Biological Control
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42
Q

Give two examples of Physical control, to prevent vector disease?

A
  • Modify the Environment

- Proofing of buildings

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43
Q

Give two examples of chemical control?

A
  • Residual

- Knockdown

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44
Q

State how to control the target of Vector Disease?

A
  • Vaccinations
  • Clothing
  • Repellents
  • Barriers
  • Good Personal Hygiene
  • Good Camp Hygiene
  • Health Education
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45
Q

State two ways that Contact disease is split?

A

Indirect

Direct

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46
Q

Give the definition of direct contact??

A

direct contact with a person or animal

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47
Q

Give an example of a indirect contact?

A

inanimate object capible of spreading disease -

Toothbrush

Toilet

Razor

Water Bottle

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48
Q

Name two examples of direct contact diseases?

A

STI’s

Scabies

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49
Q

Name two examples of indirect contact diseases?

A

Impetigo
Veruca
Gingivitis
Fungal Skin Infections

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50
Q

State how to control the source of Contact Disease?

A
  • Isolate & treat cases
  • Trace carriers
  • Cleaning & Disinfection
  • Health Education
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51
Q

State how to control the route of Contact Disease-

Direct?

Indirect?

A

Direct- Abstinence
Monogamy
Avoid Prostitutes
Use protection

Indirect- Disinfect abulions
Launder Bedding & Clothing
Disinfect communal areas
Keep personal items personal

52
Q

State how to control the target of Contact Disease?

A
  • Health Education
  • Clothing
  • Barriers
53
Q

What is the name of the Chemical used to disinfect water supply?

A

Calcium Hypochlorite (puri-tabs)

54
Q

List two occasions when the contact period changes to 30 minutes?

A
  • No test kit available

- The water is too cold <5 degrees

55
Q

What does WBGT stand for?

A

Wet, Bulb, Globe, Temperature

56
Q

What is WBGT used for?

A

To measure the enviroment

57
Q

Name four individual risk factors that can increase the risk of a Climate Risk?

A
  • Reduced Water and food intake
  • Illness
  • Alcohol intake
  • Dehydration
  • Low fitness
  • Over weight
58
Q

How long would you expect to stay in a Semi-perm Camp?

A

7 days to 6 months

59
Q

Name four types of camp and durations?

A

Short Halt - 24hrs

Temp - 24hrs to 7days

Semi-perm - 7days to 6months

Permanent - 6 months plus

60
Q

How long would you expect to stay in a temp camp?

A

24hrs to 7 days

61
Q

How long would you expect to stay in a Short Halt camp?

A

24hrs

62
Q

How long would you expect to stay in a permeant camp?

A

6months plus

63
Q

Name one method used to clarify water?

A
  • Filtration

- Sedimentation

64
Q

In clarification what does filtration mean?

A

Where water is able to pass through a medium, to filter large particles

65
Q

In clarification what does Sedimentation mean?

A

where solids are removed by gravity

66
Q

List three Airborne Disease?

A
  • Common cold
  • Influenza
  • Small Pox
  • Chicken Pox
67
Q

Name three precautions to adhere to when handling clinical waste?

A

Wear PPE
Good Personal Hygiene
Good Health Education

68
Q

When carrying out a Recce, what would you do when finding water?

A

Go 2km up stream

69
Q

From which JSP would you get the disease control policy?

A

JSP 950

70
Q

What is the form used to notify Infectious Diseases?

A

Fmed 85

71
Q

Who would you send a copy of the Infectious Disease form to?

A
  • Proper Officer/ CCDC
  • Single Service Focus Point
  • Retain a copy
72
Q

Who has overall responsibility of health within the unit?

A

The Commanding Officer

73
Q

How long would the average person take to acclimatise?

A

10 - 14 days

74
Q

List three Climatic injuries in a hot climate?

A
  • Sunburn
  • Prickly Heat
  • Muscle Cramps
  • Fainting
  • Hyperthermia
75
Q

Why do we need to control disease?

A
  • Operational Effectiveness

- Manpower

76
Q

Why are armed forces most at risk to climatic injuries?

A

Due to the nature of the job and countries we work in with climatic extremes

77
Q

What is the importance of Climatic prevention to the military?

A
  • Loss of Operational Effectiveness
  • Mission Failure
  • Waste of limited resources
  • Can kill
78
Q

Define what heat illness is?

A

‘A raise in core body temperature above 38 degrees’

79
Q

What is the publication in the Military of communicable disease?

A

JSP 950

80
Q

Who are the key personalities and responsibilities held with?

A
  • Surgeon General
  • Unit Medical Staff
  • Single Service Focus Point
  • Environment Health Team
81
Q

Climatic illness/ injuries can be split into two categories, what are they?

A
  • Heat Illness

- Cold injury/illness

82
Q

Cold injuries/illness can be split in to three sub headings, what are they??

A
  • Freezing cold injuries
  • non-freezing cold injuries
  • Other cold injuries
83
Q

Name three freezing cold injuries?

A
  • Hypothermia
  • Frost Nip
  • Frost Bite
84
Q

Name two non-freezing cold injuries?

A
  • Trench Foot

- Windburn

85
Q

Name one other cold injury?

A
  • Snow Blindness
  • Contact Injuries
  • Carbon monoxide poisoning
86
Q

What temperture does Hypothermia kick in?

A

Core temperature below 35 degree

87
Q

What does USSR stand for?

A

U- Urine
S- Soil
S- Sullage
R- Refuse

88
Q

What does the R stand for in USSR?

A

Refuse

89
Q

What is the preliminary phase for CMTs, in the event of a disease outbreak?

A
  • Identify common factors
  • Collect Specimens
  • Conduct Camp inspection
  • Conduct interviews with cases
  • Contact Public Health
  • Immediate control measures
  • Make preliminary decision on outbreak source
90
Q

What ways can you implement to control the spread of disease?

A

Source control

Route control

Target Control

91
Q

What does an initial investigation consist of?

A
  • Prelim Phase
  • Communication
  • Confirm Notification
  • Control Measures
92
Q

What does ‘outbreak’ mean?

A

Two or more cases of communicable disease, at the same time and place, which is outside ‘the normal’ for the location

93
Q

What does Notifiable Disease mean?

A

A disease that must be reported by law to the public health authorities

94
Q

How long will a Shallow Trench Urinal Last for 250 men?

A

24hrs

95
Q

How long will a Shallow Trench Latrine last for 100 men?

A

3 days or 3/4 full

96
Q

How many shallow trench latrines be needed for 100men and the how many if an additional 100 men?

A

5 trenches for 100 men

extra 3 per additional 100 men

97
Q

Name the improvised appliances in a temporary camp?

A
  • Shallow Trench Urinal
  • Shallow Trench Latrine
  • Soakage Pit
  • Refuse Pit
98
Q

Name the improvised appliances in a Semi- perm camp?

A
  • Funnel Urine and soakage pit
  • Trough Urinal and soakage pit
  • Female Urinal and soakage pit
  • Deep Trench Latrine
  • Receptacle Latrine (wagbag)
  • Refusal Disposal (incinerator)
  • Hand Wash Devices
99
Q

When selecting a location for a camp, what should you consider?

A
  • Location
  • Terrain
  • Access
100
Q

What are the basic principles when setting up a camp?

A
  • Front of camp should face the wind
  • Accommodation at the front of camp
  • Toilets to the rear of camp
  • Toilets away from water supple and food prep
101
Q

How often should water sampling be done and what tests are carried out?

A
  • Daily - Chlorine Testing
  • Monthly - Bacteriological Testing
  • Quarterly - Chemical Testing
102
Q

Contaminants can be put into two groups, what are they?

A
  • Suspended

- Dissolved

103
Q

Name three suspended contaminants?

A
  • Sediment
  • Disease Organisum
  • Grit
  • Sand
  • Leaves
  • Sewage
104
Q

Name three Dissolved contaminants?

A 
Heavy Metals
Toxic Waste
Pesticides
War agents
Detergents
Salts
105
Q

Water purification is split into 6 stages, what are they?

A 
1st Select the source
2nd Clarification
3rd Disinfection
4th Contact period
5th Test
6th De-test
106
Q

1st Select the source in water purification means?

A
  • Quantity

- Quality

107
Q

2nd clarification in water purification means?

A
  • Filtration

- Sedimentation

108
Q

3rd disinfection in water purification means?

A
  • Chemical

- Physical

109
Q

4th contact period in water purification means?

A

15 mins

30 mins

110
Q

5th test in water purification means?

A

Lovibond Checkit

111
Q

6th de-test in water purification means?

A

Sodium Thoisulphate (removes chlorine)

112
Q

State and outline the two main categories of disease?

A

Communicable - Spread by person, insects or animal

Non-communicable - Not spread by person or animal

113
Q

Using the hypothetical three link chain of infection name four routes of disease?

A
  • Ingestion
  • Airborne
  • Arthropod
  • Contact
114
Q

Who is the target in the hypothetical three link chain of infection?

A

Healthy but susceptible human or animal

115
Q

State the role of the combat Health Advisor (CHA)?

A
  • To advice the CoC and line manager
  • Assess that / Hazard assessment
  • Preserve Combat Power
116
Q

State two gerneral roles of Combat Health Duties (CHD)?

A
  • water supply

- Safety control of disease, pest & insect

117
Q

Name and define four examples of sources of disease?

A

Case- individual suffering from a disease with recognisable with signs & symptoms

Carrier - Health human that carrier disease with no signs & symptoms

Contact - Human/animal exposed to disease and has contracted it

Corpse - when in contact with a Dead human/animal that is infected with a disease

Convalescent - Appears healthy and recovered from disease but still infected

118
Q

State three military impacts of communicable disease?

A
  • Manpower
  • Unit mission failure
  • Operational effectiveness
119
Q

List 5 ways that could contaminate food and water??

A 
Pest Control
Untreated waste 
Waste Disposal
Storage of food
food preparation
120
Q

Describe an appliance used for urine in a Temp Camp and how long its used for?

A

Shallow Trench Urinal 24 for 250 men

121
Q

Describe a shallow trench urine?

A

Rectangle, mud on 3 sides, aiming markers

122
Q

When is water testing done and what test??

A

Daily - Chlorine Test

Monthly - Bacteriological Sampling

Quarterly - Chemical Sampling

123
Q

Describe what EpiNato is and why its used?

A

A health surveillance system use on operation to collect data on injuries / injury to detect trend

124
Q

Give examples of waste disposal in a semi-perm camp?

A

U- Female urinal
S- Deep Trench Latrine
S- Grease Tap & soakage
R- Oil Drum Incinerator

125
Q

Using USSR, Give one example of waste disposal for each, in a temp camp?

A

U- Shallow Trench Urine
S- Shallow Trench Latrine
S- Grease Trap & soakage Pit
R- Ash pit

126
Q

State two possible reporting form for a climate injuries?

A

JSP 539

DMICP Template

127
Q

How often should a EpiNato be recorded?

A

Weekly

128
Q

What else can a Short Halt camp called?

A

Cat Sanitation

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