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Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral > General Knowledge > Flashcards

General Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

Define V1 speed

A

Takeoff decision speed for jets, turboprops or Transport category aircraft

Below V1: abort
V1 and above: continue

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2
Q

Define V2MIN speed

A

Minimum takeoff safety speed

1.2 x stall speed in takeoff configuration

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3
Q

Define VA speed

A

Design Maneuvering speed.

The highest speed for abrupt control deflection – does not allow for multiple large control inputs.

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4
Q

What is VSB (sometimes shown as VABO)?

A

Maximum speed for Speedbrake (Air-Brake) operation

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5
Q

What is VAC?

A

Missed Approach Climb speed for flap configuration with critical engine inop (2.1% climb gradiant)

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6
Q

What is VAP?

A

Approach target speed

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7
Q

What is VB?

A

Transport category aircraft design speed for maximum gust intensity.

Part 25: Turbulent-air-penetration speed – will protect up to 66 fps gusts

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8
Q

What is VC?

A

Design Cruising speed

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9
Q

What is VD?

A

Design Diving Speed

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10
Q

What is VDEC?

A

Accelerate/Stop Decision Speed for Multiengine Piston/Turboprops

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11
Q

What is VDF or MDF?

A

Demonstrated Flight Diving Speed in knots or Mach

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12
Q

What is VEF?

A

Critical engine failure speed used during certification testing

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13
Q

What is VENR?

A

Enroute climb speed with critical engine inop.

Accelerate to VENR above 1,500 feet AGL

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14
Q

What is VF?

A

Design Flap Speed…

Should be the same as VFE

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15
Q

What is VFC or MFC?

A

Maximum speed for undesirable Flight Characteristics – knots and Mach

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16
Q

What is VFE?

A

Maximum Flap-Extended speed

Top of the “white arc”

Highest speed permissible with flaps at a perscribed position

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17
Q

What is VFR?

A

Flap Retraction Speed – minimum speed required for flap retraction after takeoff.

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18
Q

What is VFS?

A

Final Segment speed (take off) with critical engine inop.

Accellerate to VFS at 400 ft AGL.

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19
Q

What is VFTO?

A

Final Take Off Speed.

End of the takeoff path, enroute configuration with one engine inop.

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20
Q

What is VH?

A

Maximum speed in level flight with maximum continuous power.

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21
Q

What is VLE?

A

Maximum Landing Gear Extended speed

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22
Q

What is VLLE?

A

Maximum Landing Light Extended speed.

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23
Q

What is VLLO?

A

Maximum Landing Light Operating speed.

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24
Q

What is VLO?

A

Maximum Landing gear Operating Speed

Maximum speed where landing gear can be extended or retracted.

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25
Q

What is VLOF?

A

Lift-Off Speed

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26
Q

What is VMCA or VMC?

A

Minimum Control speed with the most critical engine inoperative and out of ground effect.

“Red Line”

With airspeed below VMC full rudder will not prevent yaw toward dead engine.

Not constant – changes with CG and power.

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27
Q

What is VMCG?

A

Minimum speed to maintain directional control following an engine failure during takeoff – still on the ground.

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28
Q

What is VMO/MMO?

A

Maximum Operation limit speed (turbine/jets)

VMO – lower altitude and in Knots

MMO – higher altitudes and in Mach

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29
Q

What is VMU?

A

Minimum Unstick speed. Slowest speed at which an aircraft will become airborne.

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30
Q

What is VNE?

A

Never Exceed speed – redline (piston)

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31
Q

What is VNO?

A

Maximum structural cruising speed – begining of yellow arc

Aircraft designed and tested to withstand 50 fps gust at this speed

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32
Q

What is VR?

A

Rotation speed

Backpressure at VR, then liftoff at VLOF.

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33
Q

What is VREF?

A

Reference speed for final approach/final approach speed.

Usually, 1.3 x VSO

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34
Q

What is VS?

A

Stall speed / minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable.

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35
Q

What is VS1?

A

Stall Speed / minimum steady flight speed in a specific configuration.

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36
Q

What is VSSE?

A

Minimum Safe Single Engine speed

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37
Q

What is VWWO?

A

Maximum Windshield Wiper Operating speed

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38
Q

What is VX?

A

Best angle of climb

Greatest gain in altitude in the shortest horizontal distance.

Increases with altitude (~1/2 knot per 1000 feet) and decreases with weight

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39
Q

What is VXSE?

A

Best Single Engine angle of climb speed

Multiengine aircraft less than 12,500 lbs GW

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40
Q

What is VY?

A

Best rate of climb

Greatest gain in altitude in the shortest possible time

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41
Q

What is VYSE?

A

Best single engine rate of climb (“Blue” line)

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42
Q

What is position error in Airspeed?

A

Caused by errors in static pressure – slipstream pressure changes

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43
Q

What is density error in Airspeed indicators?

A

Airspeed indicators do not correct for changes in density altitude (altitude and temperature) – it’s the difference between Indicated and True airspeed

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44
Q

What is Compressibility Error?

A

Due to compression of the airmass inside the pitot tube at higher airspeeds

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45
Q

What is Indicated Airspeed?

A

Uncorrected airspeed read from the the cockpit airspeed indicator.

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46
Q

What is Calibrated Airspeed?

A

IAS corrected for instrument and position errors.

Correction tables found in the Flight Manual (FM) or Pilot’s Operating Handbook (POH)

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47
Q

What is Equivalent Airspeed?

A

CAS corrected for compressability – corrects for compressibility error.

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48
Q

What is True Airspeed (TAS)?

A

CAS, or EAS, corrected for non-standard temperature and pressure.

TAS = CAS at Sea Level on a Standard Day

ROT: Increases ~2% for every 1,000 feet of density altitude

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49
Q

What is Ground Speed (GS)?

A

TAS corrected for wind – speed across the ground.

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50
Q

What is the Speed of Sound?

A

Changes with temperature:

661.7 KTAS at 150C

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51
Q

What are the four (4) sonic flight regimes?

A
  1. Subsonic – < 0.75M
  2. Transonic – 0.75 - 1.2M
  3. Supersonic – 1.2 - 5.0M
  4. Hypersonic – >5.0M
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52
Q

What is Pressure Altitude?

A

True Altitude corrected for non-standard pressure

29.92 on Altimeter

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53
Q

What is Density Altitude?

A

Pressure Altitude corrected for non-standard temperature

(OAT - ISA) x 120 + Pressure Altitude = Density Altitude

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54
Q

What is indicated altitude?

A

Altitude read off the altimeter

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55
Q

What is True Altitude?

A

Height above Mean Sea Level (MSL)

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56
Q

What is Absolute Altitude?

A

Height above the ground (AGL)

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57
Q

At night, a white and yellow Airport Beacon indicates _____

A

a lighted water airport

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58
Q

At night, a green, white and yellow Airport Beacon indicates: _____

A

a lighted Heliport

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59
Q

At night, two white flashes and one green flash indicate _____

A

a military airport

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60
Q

At night, a white and green Airport Beacon indicates _____

A

a lighted land airport

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61
Q

Trivia: Do rotating beacons rotate clockwise or counterclockwise?

A

Clockwise at 12 RPM (24-30 flashes per minute)

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62
Q

What are some of the differences between a Part 61 and a Part 141 Flight School?

A
  1. Part 141 schools supply a more structured learning environment with set schedules, dedicated classrooms and are directly supervised by the FAA.
    * The benefit is a certificate in fewer hours
  2. Part 61 allows students and instructors the freedom to arrange training according to the needs of the student.

PRIVATE:

  • 61 = 40 hours, 141 = 35 hours

INSTRUMENT:

  • 61 = 40 hours, 141 = 35 hours

COMMERCIAL:

  • 61 = 250 hours, 141 = 190 hours
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63
Q

What are Airline Transport Pilot Privileges?

A
  1. Same as a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating
  2. Under 135, PIC carrying passengers in a TurboJet, an airplane having 10 or more passenger seats, or multiengine in a commuter operation.
    * For commuter operations, must also have IOE
  3. May instruct other pilots in “air transportation service” in which the ATP is rated and endorse that person’s logbook or training record – as long as he has received 135.338 and 135.340 training, and the training is conducted IAW the certificate holders Training Manual (training program).

An ATP may not instruct more than 8 hours in any 24 hour period or more than 36 hours in any 7 day period.

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64
Q

When is the ELT checked?

A

During the annual inspection, or as called out by manufacturers maintenance program, Phase Inspections, AAIP, etc.

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65
Q

How often must the pitot-static system and the transponder be checked?

A

Every 24 months.

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66
Q

Whan is a 100-hour inspection required?

A

“Carrying any person (other than a crewmember) for hire”, or giving flight instruction for hire.

Not required if the aircraft is inspected IAW an approved inspection program under 135 and the aircraft is listed (by registration) in the OPSPEC of the Certificate Holder.

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67
Q

Does a 100-hour inspection count as an annual inspection?

A

No, but an annual inspection counts as a fresh 100-hour inspection.

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68
Q

Who can sign off an annual inspection?

A

Only an IA (Inspection Authorized) mechanic.

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69
Q

What’s a MEL?

A

A Minimum Equipment List.

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70
Q

What is an Equipment List?

A

A list of equipment installed in an airplane from the factory.

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71
Q

Which aircraft do not have a POH?

A

Those certificated before 3/1/78. Instead, they have an “Information Manual”.

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72
Q

What is a Special Flight Permit?

A

It authorizes flight in an airplane that may not currently meet applicable airworthiness requirements. It can be issued for flying aircraft for maintenance, repairs, alteration, or storage.

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73
Q

How do you get a Special Flight Permit?

A

The DOM will contact your PMI. They’ll fax it to you, and then you carry it with you.

Or, you may have the OPSPEC that gives the DOM authority to issue a Special Flight Permit.

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74
Q

What is the definition of service ceiling?

A

The maximum usable altitude of an aircraft.

Specifically, it is the density altitude at which flying in a clean configuration, at the best rate of climb airspeed for that altitude and with all engines operating and producing maximum continuous power, will produce a given rate of climb (a typical value might be 100 ft/min climb, or on the order of 500 ft/min climb for jet aircraft).

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75
Q

When do you need a Mode C Transponder with altitude reporting capability?

A
  • Class A, Class B, Class C
  • Within 30 nautical miles of the primary airport in Class B airspace (from the surface to 10,000 MSL)
  • Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of B and C up to 10,000 MSL
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76
Q

What does a solid red light gun signal mean?

A

Airborne: give way to other traffic and continue circling.

On the ground: Stop

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78
Q

What are the Standard Service Volumes for VOR/DME/TACAN?

A

Terminal:

  • 1,000’ - 12,000’ AGL
  • 25nm

Low:

  • 1,000’ - 18,000’ AGL
  • 40 nm

High:

  • 1,000 - 14,500’ AGL
  • 40 nm
  • 14,500’ - 45,000’ AGL
  • 130 nm
  • 14,500’ - 60,000’ AGL
  • 100 nm
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79
Q

What oxygen is used for aviation?

A

Aviation-grade (low moisture content, so it won’t freeze) – “Aviators Breathing Oxygen.”

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80
Q

What are the symptoms of hypoxia?

A
  • Headache
  • Euphoria
  • Dizziness
  • Lightheadedness
  • Tingling/warm sensation
  • Sweating
  • Poor coordination
  • Impaired judgment
  • Cyanosis
  • Tunnel vision

NOTE: everyone’s symptoms can be different and may present themselves in a different order.

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81
Q

What are the symptoms of CO poisoning?

A
  • Dull headache
  • Weakness
  • Dizziness
  • Nausea or vomiting
  • Shortness of breath
  • Confusion
  • Blurred vision
  • Loss of consciousness
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82
Q

For strong situational awareness, what factors should you be able to state?

A
  • Weather
  • Terrain
  • Traffic
  • ATC situation
  • Fuel status
  • Aircraft status.
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83
Q

What is the DECIDE decision-making model?

A
  • Detect changes
  • Estimate the need for counter-measures to handle the changes.
  • Choose a safe outcome.
  • Identify the actions needed in order to achieve the chosen option.
  • Do the necessary actions to achieve change.
  • Evaluate the effects of the action.
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84
Q

What does IMSAFE mean when used in assessing your fitness to fly?

A
  • Illness
  • Medication
  • Stress
  • Alcohol
  • Fatigue
  • Eating/Emotion
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86
Q

What is the 5P checklist, and when is it used?

A

Used at key decision points (preflight, pre-takeoff, hourly/midpoint, pre-descent, before entering pattern).

  • Plan—planning, weather, route, fuel, publications, ATC reroutes/delays.
  • Plane—mechanical status, database currency, automation status, backup systems.
  • Pilot—illness, medication, stress, alcohol, fatigue, eating (IMSAFE).
  • Passengers—pilot or non-pilot, experienced or inexperienced, nervous or calm, etc.
  • Programming—GPS, autopilot, PFD/MFD, possible reroutes requiring reprogramming.
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87
Q

What is the 3P risk management process?

A

Perceive - Process - Perform

  • Perceive: PAVE (Pilot, Aircraft, enVironment, External pressures)
  • Process: CARE (Consequences, Alternatives, Reality, External pressures)
  • Perform: ME (Mitigate risk, Evaluate outcomes)
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88
Q

What is Somatogravic illusion?

A

A strong pitching sensation (up or down) when the body is exposed to abrupt acceleration or deceleration, due to inner ear interpretation.

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89
Q

What is the black hole approach illusion?

A

Black hole approach illusion happens during an approach on a dark night, over water or unlit terrain, to a lighted runway beyond which the horizon is not visible. Because the pilot has no peripheral visual clues to be oriented relative to the earth, there may be the illusion of being upright, and the runway to be tilted and sloping.

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90
Q

When is a type rating required?

A

When the aircraft’s certified MTOW is over 12,500 pounds or turbojet-powered.

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91
Q

What is a complex endorsement?

A

Approval given by a CFI written in your logbook for you to operate an aircraft with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable pitch propeller.

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92
Q

What is a high-performance endorsement?

A

Approval given by a CFI, written in your logbook, for you to operate an with an engine that has more than 200 horsepower.

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93
Q

What personal documents do you need to have readily accessible in the aircraft?

A
  1. Photo ID
  2. Medical
  3. Pilot’s certificate
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94
Q

How long is the aircraft registration valid?

A

3 years.

95
Q

How long is the airworthiness certificate valid?

A

Perpetually, as long as the airworthiness directives are complied with, and the annual inspections have been performed.

96
Q

Is the annual inspection calendar month, or date to date?

A

12 calendar months.

97
Q

What are the required maintenance inspections for aircraft?

A

AVIATE

  • Annual VOR check every 30 days (IFR)
  • I is 1 for 100-hour inspection
  • Altimeter/pitot-static every 24 months (IFR).
  • Transponder every 24 months.
  • ELT every 12 months.
98
Q

When must the ELT batteries be replaced (or recharged if rechargeable)?

A
  • When they’ve been used cumulatively for 1 hour.
  • When half their shelf life has expired.

91.207(c)

99
Q

How do you use a MEL INOP sticker?

A

It’s placed on an instrument/switch/component that is no longer used but is still installed.

Applied IAW with your MEL, GOM, or GMM.

100
Q

What’s the difference between parts 91 and 61 in the FAR?

A
  • 91 is General Operating and Flight Rules
  • 61 is Certification: Pilots and Instructions.
101
Q

What are the rules surrounding safety belts and shoulder harnesses worn by crew members?

A
  • Crewmembers must keep safety belts fastened.
  • During takeoff and landing, crew members must keep shoulder harnesses fastened.
102
Q

What are the rules surrounding safety belts and shoulder harnesses worn by passengers?

A
  • Passengers must be briefed on how to fasten and unfasten seat belts and shoulder harnesses.
  • Passengers must be notified to fasten their seat belts and shoulder harnesses during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
  • Passengers must wear seat belts and shoulder harnesses on taxi, takeoff, and landing.
  • Children under 2 years old may be held by an adult.
  • Children may be in an approved safety seat.
103
Q

What causes a stall?

A

Exceeding the critical angle of attack – not necessarily low airspeed.

104
Q

What is a runway incursion?

A

Any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle, or person on the protected area of a surface designated for the landing and take-off of aircraft.

ICAO definition adopted in ‘07.

105
Q

What are three major areas contributing to runway incursions?

A
  1. Communications
  2. Airport Knowledge
  3. Cockpit Procedures
106
Q

What is the main cause of CFIT?

A

The crew’s loss of situational awareness.

107
Q

What are the five hazardous attitudes?

A

I AM IRartional

  1. Impulsivity
  2. Anti-authority
  3. Macho
  4. Invulnerability
  5. Resignation
108
Q

What are three major causes of runway incursions?

A
  1. Failure to comply with ATC instructions
  2. Unfamiliarity with airport
  3. Nonconformance with standard operating procedures
109
Q

What are the characteristics of a forward CG?

A
  • Lower cruise speed
  • Higher fuel burn
110
Q

What are MTRs?

A

Military Training Routes. Use caution when crossing them.

3 digit identifiers mean above 1,500 AGL

4 digits identifiers mean below 1,500 AGL

VR: VFR route

IR: IFR route

111
Q

What is a TRSA?

A

An “other” airspace that offers Class C services. Participation is non-mandatory.

112
Q

What are the two star markings on a chart?

A
  • Star over airport circle is rotating beacon sunset to sunrise.
  • Star in the information box is a non-24 hour control tower.
113
Q

What do the runways outside of a circle mean on a sectional chart?

A

Hard-surface runway length greater than 8,069 feet.

114
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperventilation?

A

Dizziness, rapid breathing, tingling in lips/hands/feet, headache, weakness.

115
Q

What is the Coriolis illusion?

A

An abrupt head movement in a prolonged constant-rate turn that has ceased stimulating the motion sensing system in the inner ear can create the illusion of rotation or movement in an entirely different axis.

116
Q

What are the common signs of dehydration?

A
  • Headache
  • Fatigue
  • Cramps
  • Sleepiness
  • Dizziness

Dry air at altitude can exacerbate dehydration.

117
Q

What is the legal maximum blood alcohol level for flying?

A

0.04

Note: 1/2 the legal limit for driving in the US

118
Q

What definition of night is used for obtaining/maintaining night currency?

A

The period beginning one hour after sunset and ending one hour before sunrise.

119
Q

What’s the difference between CTAF, UNICOM, and MULTICOM?

A
  • CTAF is the voice frequency used to communicate between pilots, at airports with no control tower.
  • UNICOM is a private, licensed ground base station that can communicate with aircraft at airports with no tower or FSS.
  • MULTICOM is 122.9 or 122.95, and is used as a default CTAF.
  • CTAF is most often a UNICOM frequency.
120
Q

What is the difference between few clouds, scattered, broken, and overcast?

A
  • Few = 1-2 eights (octals) of the sky covered with clouds.
  • Scattered = 3-4.
  • Broken = 5-7.
  • Overcast = 8.
121
Q

What is pressure altitude? Density altitude?

A
  • Pressure altitude is the altitude that the altimeter displays when the pressure is set to 29.92.
  • Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. When the temperature is higher than standard, the density altitude is higher than pressure altitude.
122
Q

What are magnetic compass errors?

A

When the aircraft is accelerated or turned to a new heading, the following two rules apply:

  1. ANDS: When on an easterly or westerly heading, in the northern hemisphere, if the aircraft accelerates, it momentarily shows a turn toward the north. If it decelerates, it momentarily shows a turn toward the south.
  2. UNOS: When on a northerly heading and a turn towards the east or west is made, the compass will lag. When on a southerly heading, and turning east or west, the compass will lead the actual heading.
123
Q

What are the entry requirements for A, B, C, and D airspace?

A

Class A: instrument-rated, ATC clearance, mode C transponder, and two-way radio.

Class B: private pilot or student with endorsement, ATC clearance, mode C transponder, and two-way radio.

Class C: radio contact, mode C transponder, two-way radio.

Class D: radio contact, two-way radio.

124
Q

What do all of the light signals mean (ground/flight)?

A

ON GROUND:

  • solid red: stop
  • flashing red: clear the runway
  • flashing white: return to starting position at the airport
  • solid green: cleared for takeoff
  • flashing green: cleared to taxi
  • flashing red and green: exercise extreme caution

IN FLIGHT:

  • solid red: continue circling, give way to other aircraft
  • flashing red: airport unsafe, do not land
  • solid green: cleared to land
  • flashing green: cleared to approach the airport
  • flashing red and green: exercise extreme caution
125
Q

What are the shapes of B, C, and D airspace?

A

Class B can be any shape but is usually an inverted wedding cake.

Class C generally extends to 4,000’ AGL, has a core surface area with a radius of 5 nautical miles, an upper “shelf” area with a radius of 10 nautical miles, and a procedural “outer area” with a radius of 20 nautical miles.

Class D is generally a cylinder extending up to 2,500’ AGL, and an outer radius of 4 nautical miles.

126
Q

What are the basic aviation speed limits?

A
  • Below 10,000’ MSL: 250 knots.
  • At or below 2,500 AGL within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C or D airspace, underlying Class B airspace, and VFR corridor through Class B airspace: 200 knots.
127
Q

To carry passengers, what are landing currency requirements?

A

Day

  • 3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days, in the same category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.

Night

  • 3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days at night, in the same category, class, and type, if a type rating is required, and
  • The landings must be to a full stop and done from 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
128
Q

How are latitude and longitude measured?

A

There are 360 degrees of longitude. Each degree is broken down into 60 minutes, and each minute into 60 seconds. For longitude, Greenwich, England is used as an arbitrary 0-degree point; the prime meridian.

There are 90 degrees of latitude north of the equator, and 90 degrees south.

A minute of latitude is 1 nautical mile.

Degrees of longitude vary in size.

Latitude (N/S) comes first, then longitude (E/W).

129
Q

How do Vx and Vy change with altitude?

A

Vx increases with altitude, and Vy decreases. The altitude at which they are equal is known as the absolute ceiling; that is the altitude at which the plane can no longer climb.

130
Q

What color is a civilian rotating beacon for a land airport? Military? Helicopter?

A
  • Civilian: white and green.
  • Military: white, white, green.
  • Helicopter: white, yellow, green.
131
Q

What are REILs?

A

Runway end identifier lights. A pair of synchronized flashing lights on each side of the runway threshold.

132
Q

In a METAR, how are clear skies encoded?

A
  • Manual METAR: SKC.
  • Automated METAR: CLR.
133
Q

What is PCL?

A

Pilot Controlled Lighting.

The pilot selects the proper radio frequency and clicks the microphone seven times within 5 seconds for max brightness. Five more for medium, and three for low. They stay on for 15 minutes.

134
Q

What illusion does attempting to land on an upsloping runway create?

A

The illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. Downsloping has the opposite effect.

135
Q

What illusion might a pilot experience when attempting to land on a wider-than-usual runway?

A

It can create the illusion that the aircraft is lower than it actually is.

136
Q

At what altitude and distance from an uncontrolled field should you be able to pick up its AWOS/ASOS broadcast?

A

25 NM, under 10,000’ MSL.

137
Q

What are the characteristics of an aft CG?

A
  • Lower fuel burn and better performance
  • Less induced drag
138
Q

If you are flying with an altimeter setting of 29.00, and you enter a new area where the recommended altimeter setting is 28.50, but you don’t adjust the altimeter, what kind of problems would you have?

A

The altimeter would read higher than the actual altitude.

“High to Low, look out below”

139
Q

How does temperature affect the altimeter?

A

When the temperature drops, the altimeter reads higher than actual.

Hot to cold, look out below.

140
Q

Who monitors 121.5?

A

FSS and control towers (and you too).

141
Q

On a runway, what’s the difference between chevrons and arrows?

A

Arrows indicate that you can taxi and takeoff in that area.

Chevrons are for overrun only.

142
Q

In an airport information box on a chart, what does the “L” mean?

A

Lighting in operation sunset to sunrise. If there’s an asterisk preceding the L, it means that lighting limitations exist (consult AFD for more info).

143
Q

In a NAVAID box on a chart, what does an asterisk mean?

A

That the NAVAID operates less than continuous or on-request.

144
Q

If the PIC deviates from ATC clearance to deal with an emergency, when must ATC be notified?

A

As soon as possible, then obtain an amended clearance.

145
Q

What is an accelerated stall?

A

Any stall above 1 G.

146
Q

What documentation is required after maintenance is completed on an aircraft?

A

An entry must be made in the aircraft’s maintenance record, including:

  • Description of work performed
  • The date the work was done
  • Name, certificate number, and type of certificate of the person performing work
147
Q

What is parasite drag?

A

Parasite drag has three elements:

  • Form drag from the shape of the airplane
  • Skin friction
  • Interference drag from competing airflows flowing around different surfaces of the airplane.
148
Q

What is an airfoil, and what are the different parts of an airfoil?

A

Any part of an aircraft that is designed to produce lift (wing, prop, tail, etc.).

An airfoil has a leading edge, a trailing edge, a chord, and a camber (upper/lower/mean).

149
Q

When on a heading of North, and turning to the South, the magnetic compass will…

A

Undershoot the turn (and/or initially show a turn in the opposite direction).

150
Q

How is the moment computed? How is CG computed?

A

Moment = weight * arm.

CG = total moment / total weight.

151
Q

What is total drag?

A

Induced drag plus parasite drag.

152
Q

What is induced drag?

A

A drag force that occurs whenever a moving object redirects the airflow coming at it. It increases with the angle of attack and is a byproduct of lift.

153
Q

What is Class II navigation?

A

Any en-route flight operation that is not Class I navigation.

Any operation or portion of an en-route operation is Class II if it takes place outside the officially designated operational service volumes of ICAO standard ground-based NAVAIDs, such as VOR, VOR/DME, and NDB.

Class II navigation is dependent on the use of a Long-Range Navigation System (LRNS). The LRNS maybe satellite-based, self-contained or ground stations (LORAN-C)

154
Q

What is Class I navigation?

A

Navigation by direct reference to ICAO standard NAVAIDs and are within the operational service Volume of those NAVAIDs.

155
Q

Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged:

A

Airspeed

156
Q

Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged:

A
  1. Airspeed
  2. Altimeter
  3. Vertical speed.
157
Q

If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?

A
  1. Altimeter
  2. Airspeed indicator
  3. Vertical speed indicator.
158
Q

The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?

A

Airspeed indicator

159
Q

Which V speed represents maneuvering speed?

A

VA

160
Q

What speed would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?

A

VX: Best Angle of climb speed

161
Q

What speed would gain the most altitude in a given period of time?

A

VY: Best Rate of climb

162
Q

What is maneuvering speed?

A

VA: Design Maneuvering Speed

  • Above VA and full control deflection may result in exceeding aircraft structural limits
  • Below VA and control deflections may result in a stall
163
Q

Where does the point of maximum camber occur?

A

Where the distance between the camber line and chord line is greatest.

164
Q

The Coefficient of Lift (CL) is a function of…

A
  • Airfoil camber, and
  • AoA

All other factors (atmosphere, wing area, velocity) being the same.

165
Q

What makes a coupled moment?

A

Two opposite forces separated by a horizontal distance.

166
Q

What is the separation point in aerodynamics?

A

The point where airflow can’t follow the camber of the airfoil.

167
Q

The tendency to overbank in a turn is a result of…

A
  1. The upper wing experiencing greater relative velocity than the lower wing (it’s on the outside of the turn) resulting in more lift on that side.
  2. While rolling into the turn, there is an upward moment on one wing (increasing AOA), and a downward moment on the other wing (decreasing AOA)
168
Q

Name three types of ailerons…

A
  1. Frise ailerons
  2. Differential ailerons
  3. Coupling of ailerons with rudder
    * Aileron rudder interconnect
169
Q

What is a frise aileron?

A

Offset hinges deflect aileron upward to create drag on that side.

170
Q

What is a differential aileron?

A

The upward deflecting aileron is deflected more than the downward aileron.

171
Q

What does an aileron rudder interconnect do?

A

The rudder automatically deflects with aileron movement to counteract adverse yaw.

172
Q

What defines a spin?

A

An aggravated stall with the airplane in a yawed state that results in a downward corkscrew path.

173
Q

What contributes to a flat spin?

A
  • Aircraft center of mass is further away from the spin axis
  • Torque effects w/high power settings
174
Q

Why is the use of ailerons normally bad in the incipient (and all stages) of a spin?

A

Aileron use creates additional adverse yaw which can aggravate the spin.

Example: using aileron to pick up the dropped wing in an incipient spin will contribute more yaw in the direction of spin

175
Q

What does IAS represent?

A

Indicated Airspeed as measured by the pitot-tube

177
Q

What is Equivalent Airspeed (EAS)?

A

CAS corrected for compressibility error

178
Q

What is True Airspeed (TAS)?

A

Speed of the aircraft relative to the airmass in which it is flying

179
Q

What is Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)?

A

IAS corrected for position error (position of pitot tube) and instrument error

182
Q

At what speed and altitude are CAS and EAS differences considered negligible?

A

Up to 200 kts and 10,000 ft

183
Q

How does a turn at low speed differ from turns at high speed?

A

Lower speeds result in a smaller turn radius and a GREATER rate of turn.

184
Q

What defines a standard rate turn?

A

30/second, or 1800/minute

185
Q

How does an increase in altitude effect turn performance?

A

Turn performance decreases (as a result of higher True Airspeed)

186
Q

What is the region of reverse command?

A

The area of the power vs IAS graph where more power is needed to stop airspeed dropping (rather than the point of max endurance where min power is needed to maintain airspeed).

187
Q

Your turn rate equals…

A

Turn Rate: Angle of bank/TAS

188
Q

Turn radius is proportional to…

A

TAS2/Angle of Bank

189
Q

Does the wind have an effect on the rate of descent?

A

No

191
Q

Longitudinal stability occurs on which axis?

A

Pitch/longitudinal

192
Q

Lateral stability occurs on which axis?

A

Roll

193
Q

Directional stability occurs in which axis?

A

Yaw

194
Q

What are the three types of stability?

A
  1. Stable
  2. Neutral
  3. Unstable
195
Q

Why are sweepback wings good for lateral stability?

A

When a swept-wing airplane is sideslipping, the wing toward the sideslip will experience a higher velocity normal to the wing’s leading edge than the wing away from the sideslip. More lift is generated on the wing toward the sideslip and a roll moment arises that tends to diminish the bank angle and return the airplane to equilibrium.

196
Q

What is “Positive” stability?

A

Object returns to original point.

197
Q

What is neutral stability?

A

Object stays displaced until moved back

198
Q

What is “unstable,” or negative stability

A

Object continues to become more and more displaced from the origin

199
Q

Why are dihedral wings good?

A

They improve lateral stability

201
Q

Which is a stronger force, lateral or directional stability?

A

Directional

202
Q

What are three types of tabs?

A
  1. Servo
  2. Anti-servo
  3. Fixed
203
Q

What is an aerodynamic tab?

A

Horn balance, a horn protrudes in the opposite direction of the control surface deflected (on the outer edge of C172 elevator)

204
Q

What is an Anti-servo tab?

A

Moves in the same direction of surface deflection. Makes the control heavier.

AKA “anti-balance” tab

205
Q

What is a fixed tab?

A

A tab that stays fixed (on the C172, is the rudder balance tab). Adjusted by maintenance.

206
Q

What is mass balance and how is it used in a control surface?

A

A mass placed inside control surfaces to adjust the CoG closer to the hinge line, thus reducing/eliminating flutter.

207
Q

In propeller aircraft, what are the four Left-Turning tendencies?

A
  1. Torque
  2. P-Factor
  3. Gyroscopic Precession
  4. Spiraling Slipstream
208
Q

What variables contribute to Gyroscopic Precession?

A
  • Propeller mass
  • RPM
  • Rate of pitch change
209
Q

What is P-Factor?

A

More thrust is produced on the downgoing half of the propellor disc (higher AoA to the relative wind) than the upgoing half of the disc.

210
Q

When is P-Factor strongest?

A
  • High power settings
  • High AoA
  • Low airspeed
211
Q

What are the four aerodynamic forces acting on an airplane? What is the relationship between them in straight and level flight non-accelerated?

A
  1. Lift
  2. Weight
  3. Thrust
  4. Drag.

Lift = weight. Thrust = drag.

212
Q

When are the four aerodynamic forces said to be in equilibrium?

A

When the airplane is in unaccelerated straight and level flight.

213
Q

What is the angle of attack?

A

The angle between the wing chord line and the relative wind.

214
Q

What is Bernoulli’s principle as it applies to aviation?

A

An increase in the speed of a fluid occurs simultaneously with a decrease in pressure.

The air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.

215
Q

Does stall speed change with altitude?

A

No. The speed at which a plane stalls in a particular configuration remains the same regardless of altitude.

216
Q

What is necessary for an airplane to spin?

A

A stall and yaw.

217
Q

During a spin to the right, which wing is stalled?

A

Both.

218
Q

How does frost affect the wing of an airplane?

A

It disrupts the smooth flow of air over the wing, adversely affecting its lifting quality.

219
Q

What can happen if frost is not removed from an airplane’s wings before flight?

A

It may prevent the airplane from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed.

220
Q

What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?

A

The location of the center of gravity with respect to the center of lift.

221
Q

What happens when the airplane is loaded to the most aft CG limit?

A

It makes the airplane less stable at all speeds, but induced drag is reduced as is fuel burn.

222
Q

What are the impacts on changes in the center of pressure of a wing?

A

They affect the aircraft’s aerodynamic balance and controllability.

223
Q

What makes an airplane turn?

A

The horizontal component of lift – which is a function of “G loading.”

No Gs? The aircraft will not turn regardless of the bank angle.

224
Q

What is the purpose of the rudder?

A

To control yaw.

225
Q

Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane when compared with straight-and-level flight?

A

Turns.

226
Q

What are the load factors for 30°, 45°, and 60° turns?

A
  • 300 = 1.2 G
  • 450 = 1.4 G
  • 600 = 2 G
227
Q

How much lift is required to support a 4,000-pound airplane in a 45° turn?

A

4,000 pounds * load factor of 1.4 = 5600 pounds.

228
Q

What is one purpose of wing flaps?

A

To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing, without increasing airspeed.

229
Q

What should you do if you encounter severe turbulence?

A

Reduce to maneuvering speed or slightly below, maintain level flight attitude, and allow minor variations in airspeed and altitude.

230
Q

When are wingtip vortices created?

A

Anytime an aircraft is generating lift.

231
Q

How do wake turbulence vortices circulate?

A

Outward, upward, and around each wingtip.

Counterclockwise when looking from behind the aircraft.

232
Q

When does the greatest wingtip vortex strength exist?

A

When the aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.

233
Q

Where do wingtip vortices tend to move?

A

They tend to sink below the aircraft generating the lift and downwind.

234
Q

What happens to vortices when they reach the ground?

A

They spread apart, and tend to drift with the wind.

235
Q

How should you avoid wake turbulence when departing and landing?

A

When departing, maneuver the aircraft above and upwind from the heavy aircraft. When landing, stay above the large aircraft’s final approach path, and land beyond the large aircraft’s touchdown point.

Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral (4 decks)

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