General Knowledge Flashcards
The hock consists of how many joints?
6
Medial tarsal arthrodesis plates for dogs are angled at ?
130 degrees
Coxofemoral luxations are most commonly caused by?
Trauma
Clinical signs of acute traumatic rupture of the cranial cruciate ligaments are
- Stifle hyperflexion
- Mild lameness
- Marked joint effusion
- External tibial rotation
- Marked joint effusion
The caudal cruciate ligament is
- Shorter than the cranial cruciate ligament
- Prevents cranial tibial translation
- Limits external tibial rotation
- Limits stifle hyperextension
- Limits stifle hyperextension
What percentage of dogs develop osteoarthritis after coxofemoral luxation?
55%
When performing a femoral head and neck excision, the femoral neck is transected:
A) From the cranial aspect of intertrochanteric fossa to the lesser trochanter.
B) From the caudal aspect of intertrochanteric fossa to the greater trochanter.
C) From the cranial aspect of intertrochanteric fossa to the greater trochanter.
D) From the caudal aspect of intertrochanteric fossa to the lesser trochanter.
B) From the caudal aspect of intertrochanteric fossa to the greater trochanter.
Which of the following statements regarding avascular necrosis of the femoral head is correct?
Question 3Select one:
A) The lameness is usually only mild.
B) In the majority of patients the condition is bilateral.
C) Males are more commonly affected than females.
D) Young dogs between 4 and 11 months old are affected.
D) Young dogs between 4 and 11 months old are affected.
Which of the following statements regarding juvenile pubic symphysiodesis is correct?
A) It stops endochondral ossification of the pubic symphysis.
B) It is most effective in puppies between 16-20 weeks of age.
C) It is most effective in dogs with severe coxofemoral laxity.
D) It is performed after clinical signs have developed.
A) It stops endochondral ossification of the pubic symphysis.
What is the success rate of hip toggle rod stabilisation?
Up to 90%
When performing an extraarticular iliofemoral suture repair…
A) a hole is drilled from lateral to medial in the ilium just caudal to the acetabulum.
B) a capsulorrhaphy is not required.
C) a second hole is drilled from caudal to cranial through the femur just proximal to the insertion of the gluteal muscles at the tip of the greater trochanter.
D) a cranio-lateral approach to the hip joint is performed
D) a cranio-lateral approach to the hip joint is performed
In the normal animal, the femoral head and neck are inclined by:
130-145
In the normal animal, the femoral long axis is anteverted by:
12-40
At what age are double or triple pelvic osteotomies best performed?
<10 monthts
How many named bones are forming the tarsus?
7
To perform a pantarsal arthrodesis using a medial plate, screws are placed in which bones?
Distal tibia, talus and 4th tarsal bone
Major complications after partial tarsal arthrodesis are most commonly caused by:
Implant failure
Malleolar fractures are best stabilised with:
Pins and tension band wire
Isolated dorsal subluxations of the tarsal joint:
A) Should be best treated with arthrodesis of the intertarsal joint.
B) Carry a good prognosis.
C) Should be best treated with arthrodesis of the tarsometatarsal joint.
D) Should be best treated with arthrodesis of the tarsocrural joint.
B) Carry a good prognosis.
What is the prognosis of dogs diagnosed with tarsal OCD?
Guarded
OCD of the talus most often affects:
A) The caudomedial ridge of the talus.
B) The craniolateral ridge of the talus.
C) The caudolateral ridge of the talus.
D) The craniomedial ridge of the talus.
A) The caudomedial ridge of the talus.
Indications for pantarsal (tarsocrural joint) arthrodesis include:
A) Achilles (CCT) tendon rupture
B) Calcaneal fracture
C) Tarsometatarsal joint luxation
D) Central tarsal bone luxation
A) Achilles (CCT) tendon rupture
Which of the following injuries is to be expected in a type 2b Achilles tendon rupture?
A) Musculotendinous rupture
B) Common calcanean tendon rupture with intact paratenon
C) Avulsions of the tendon of insertion of gastrocnemius with intact SDFT
D) Tendinopathy
B) Common calcanean tendon rupture with intact paratenon
Which of the following statements regarding the anatomy of the cranial cruciate ligament is correct?
A) The craniomedial band is taut in stifle flexion but not in extension.
B) The caudolateral band is taut in stifle flexion and extension.
C) The craniomedial band is taut in stifle flexion and extension.
D) The caudolateral band is taut in stifle flexion but not in extension.
C) The craniomedial band is taut in stifle flexion and extension.
What percentage of the meniscus has blood supply originating from the synovium?
The peripheral 15-25% of the menisci.
Anatomical deformities commonly present in medial patellar luxation are:
A) Internal femoral torsion
B) Genu varum
C) Coxa valga
D) Lateral bowing of the distal femur (distal femoral valgus)
B) Genu varum
Which of the following techniques is considered to be an intra-capsular stabilisation technique?
A) Tight rope.
B) Replacement of the cranial cruciate ligament with an allograft.
C) Placement of bone anchors to replace the cranial cruciate ligament.
D) Fibular head transposition.
B) Replacement of the cranial cruciate ligament with an allograft.
Anatomical deformities present in lateral patellar luxation are:
A) Genu valga
B) Medial bowing of the distal femur (distal femoral varus)
C) External femoral torsion
D) Coxa vara
A) Genu valga
The prognosis following surgery in dogs with grade 2 medial patella luxations is:
Good
Which of the following statements is correct?
A) A positive tibial compression test is always indicative of full rupture of the cranial cruciate ligament.
B) The tibial compression test is less sensitive at detecting partial tears than the cranial drawer test.
C) The tibial compression test is more sensitive at detecting full tears than the cranial drawer test.
D) The tibial compression test may cause more pain than the cranial drawer test
B) The tibial compression test is less sensitive at detecting partial tears than the cranial drawer test.
A second degree sprain is classified as:
Moderate stretching with some tearing of fibres causing moderate instability.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A) The intact caudolateral band is taut in extension but lax during flexion.
B) The intact craniomedial band is taut in extension but lax in flexion.
C) The intact caudolateral band is taut in flexion but lax during extension.
D) The intact craniomedial band is taut in flexion but lax in extension.
A) The intact caudolateral band is taut in extension but lax during flexion.
Consequences of Juvenile Pubic Symphysiodesis are
a) Increased acetabular ventroversion
b) Decreased acetablular ventroversion
c) Increased acetabular anteversion
d) Decreased acetabular anteversion
a) Increased acetabular ventroversion
Bilateral coxofemoral luxation occurs in
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%
a) 10%
Which of the following symptoms occurs in patients with caudal luxation of the hip joint
a) Internal rotation of the affected limb
b) Abduction of the affected limb
c) Shortening of the affected limb
d) Crepitus
b) Abduction of the affected limb
Bilateral cruciate disease occurs in
a) Approximately 10% of patients
b) Approximately 30% of patients
c) Approximately 50% of patients
d) Approximately 70% of patients
c) Approximately 50% of patients
The cranial cruciate ligament
a) Limits internal tibial rotation
b) Limits external tibial rotation
c) Limits internal femoral rotation
d) Limits external femoral rotation
b) Limits external tibial rotation
